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Question 1

What serum sodium level defines hyponatremia?

Answer 1

Less than 135 mEq/L.

Hyponatremia can lead to neurological symptoms due to brain swelling.

Question 2

What serum sodium level defines hypernatremia?

Answer 2

Greater than 145 mEq/L.

Hypernatremia can cause cellular dehydration and neurological disturbances.

Question 3

Name one cause of sodium excess.

Answer 3

IV fluids with high sodium (hypertonic solutions).

Such solutions are often used in specific medical conditions but must be monitored closely.

Question 4

Name one cause of sodium loss.

Answer 4

Diarrhea & vomiting.

These conditions can lead to significant electrolyte imbalances if not managed properly.

Question 5

What level defines hypokalemia?

Answer 5

Less than 3.5 mEq/L.

Hypokalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 6

What level defines hyperkalemia?

Answer 6

Greater than 5 mEq/L.

Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac issues.

Question 7

Give one reason for hyperkalemia.

Answer 7

IV fluids with potassium or adrenal insufficiency.

Adrenal insufficiency affects potassium regulation in the body.

Question 8

Give one reason for hypokalemia.

Answer 8

Diuretics or gastrointestinal losses.

Certain diuretics can lead to increased urinary potassium excretion.

Question 9

What serum calcium defines hypocalcemia?

Answer 9

Less than 9 mg/dL.

Hypocalcemia can cause muscle spasms and neurological symptoms.

Question 10

What serum calcium defines hypercalcemia?

Answer 10

Greater than 11 mg/dL.

Hypercalcemia can result in kidney stones and cardiovascular issues.

Question 11

Name one neurologic symptom seen with sodium imbalances.

Answer 11

Seizures or confusion.

Neurological symptoms vary depending on whether sodium levels are high or low.

Question 12

What precaution is needed for patients with sodium imbalances?

Answer 12

Airway protection and seizure precautions when indicated.

These precautions are critical to prevent injury during seizures.

Question 13

Which IV solution is isotonic?

Answer 13

0.9% sodium chloride (Normal Saline).

Isotonic solutions are used for fluid resuscitation.

Question 14

What fluid shifts into cells causing swelling?

Answer 14

Hypotonic solutions (e.g., 0.45% saline).

Hypotonic fluids are used cautiously to avoid cellular edema.

Question 15

What fluid can cause water to move out of cells?

Answer 15

Hypertonic solutions (e.g., 3% saline).

These solutions are used in specific medical emergencies to reduce cerebral edema.

Question 16

How does D5W behave once infused?

Answer 16

It starts isotonic then becomes hypotonic as dextrose is metabolized.

Understanding this behavior is important for fluid management.

Question 17

What is the normal arterial pH range?

Answer 17

7.35 – 7.45.

Deviations from this range indicate acid-base imbalances.

Question 18

What is the normal PaCO₂ range?

Answer 18

35 – 45 mm Hg.

PaCO₂ levels are crucial for assessing respiratory function.

Question 19

What is the normal bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) level?

Answer 19

22 – 26 mmol/L.

Bicarbonate levels help evaluate metabolic status.

Question 20

What does a pH above 7.45 indicate?

Answer 20

Alkalosis.

Alkalosis can result from various metabolic or respiratory conditions.

Question 21

What does a pH below 7.35 indicate?

Answer 21

Acidosis.

Acidosis can be either metabolic or respiratory in origin.

Question 22

What term is used if pH normalizes but CO₂ and HCO₃⁻ are abnormal?

Answer 22

Fully compensated.

This indicates that the body has adjusted to maintain pH within normal limits.

Question 23

What is a key sign of epiglottitis?

Answer 23

Drooling and tripod positioning.

These signs indicate airway obstruction and require immediate medical attention.

Question 24

What virus commonly causes bronchiolitis?

Answer 24

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV).

RSV is particularly common in infants and young children.

Question 25

What type of rash is seen in scarlet fever?

Answer 25

A sandpaper-like rash. ## Footnote This rash is distinct and often accompanies streptococcal infections.

Question 26

What sound is characteristic of croup?

Answer 26

A seal-bark cough. ## Footnote Croup is often viral in origin and may require supportive care.

Question 27

What gene mutation causes cystic fibrosis?

Answer 27

CFTR mutation. ## Footnote This genetic condition affects the respiratory and digestive systems.

Question 28

How does impetigo typically present?

Answer 28

Honey-colored crusts, usually on the face. ## Footnote Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection in children.

Question 29

Which virus causes hand-foot-mouth disease?

Answer 29

Coxsackievirus. ## Footnote This disease is characterized by sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet.

Question 30

What causes scabies?

Answer 30

Mite infestation. ## Footnote Scabies is highly contagious and requires treatment for all affected individuals.

Question 31

Name one of the three fetal shunts.

Answer 31

Ductus venosus, foramen ovale, or ductus arteriosus. ## Footnote These shunts are critical for fetal circulation.

Question 32

Which defect is a hole in the atrial septum?

Answer 32

Atrial septal defect (ASD). ## Footnote ASD can lead to heart failure if not addressed.

Question 33

What four defects make up tetralogy of Fallot?

Answer 33

VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. ## Footnote Tetralogy of Fallot is a common cyanotic heart defect.

Question 34

How do blood pressures differ in coarctation of the aorta?

Answer 34

High in upper extremities, low in lower extremities. ## Footnote This condition can lead to significant cardiovascular complications.

Question 35

What is the main defect in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)?

Answer 35

The aorta and pulmonary artery are switched. ## Footnote TGA requires surgical intervention soon after birth.

Question 36

Name one common symptom of the flu.

Answer 36

Fever or body aches. ## Footnote Influenza can lead to severe complications, especially in high-risk populations.

Question 37

Which spots inside the cheek are seen with measles?

Answer 37

Koplik’s spots. ## Footnote These spots are pathognomonic for measles and appear before the rash.

Question 38

What is another name for German measles?

Answer 38

Rubella. ## Footnote Rubella poses risks during pregnancy, leading to congenital rubella syndrome.

Question 39

What facial rash is seen in fifth disease?

Answer 39

“Slapped cheek” appearance. ## Footnote This viral infection is common in children and usually self-limiting.

Question 40

What is primary hypertension also called?

Answer 40

Essential or idiopathic hypertension. ## Footnote This type of hypertension has no identifiable cause and is the most common form.

Question 41

Why must you use the correct cuff size when checking BP?

Answer 41

Incorrect size may give false readings. ## Footnote Accurate blood pressure measurement is crucial for diagnosis and treatment.

Question 42

What is the normal adult heart rate range?

Answer 42

60 – 100 beats per minute. ## Footnote Deviations from this range can indicate underlying health issues.

Question 43

What systolic value is stage 2 hypertension?

Answer 43

140 mm Hg or higher. ## Footnote Stage 2 hypertension requires medical intervention to prevent complications.

Question 44

What is the rate for normal sinus rhythm?

Answer 44

60–100 bpm. ## Footnote This range indicates a healthy heart rhythm.

Question 45

What is a common cause of sinus bradycardia?

Answer 45

Athletic training or sleep. ## Footnote Sinus bradycardia can also occur in certain pathological conditions.

Question 46

What rate defines sinus tachycardia?

Answer 46

Over 100 bpm. ## Footnote Sinus tachycardia can occur due to stress, fever, or anemia.

Question 47

What is a key EKG finding in VT?

Answer 47

Wide QRS complexes (“tombstone” appearance). ## Footnote Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to cardiac arrest.

Question 48

What is a typical treatment for atrial flutter?

Answer 48

Synchronized cardioversion or antiarrhythmics. ## Footnote Atrial flutter can lead to stroke if not managed properly.

Question 49

What is the first step in treating SVT?

Answer 49

Vagal maneuvers. ## Footnote Vagal maneuvers can often restore normal heart rhythm without medication.

Question 50

What is the treatment for a tension pneumothorax?

Answer 50

Needle decompression and chest tube placement. ## Footnote Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 51

Name one common sign of pneumonia.

Answer 51

Productive cough with fever. ## Footnote Early recognition and treatment are vital to prevent complications.

Question 52

Which ABG value indicates respiratory acidosis?

Answer 52

Elevated PaCO₂ (above 45 mm Hg). ## Footnote Respiratory acidosis can be caused by conditions that impair ventilation.

Question 53

What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

Answer 53

Epinephrine auto-injector. ## Footnote Immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial for survival.

Question 54

What skin change occurs in anaphylaxis?

Answer 54

Flushing and hives. ## Footnote These symptoms indicate a systemic allergic reaction.

Question 55

What is a key characteristic of distributive (anaphylactic) shock?

Answer 55

Vasodilation and fluid loss from vessels. ## Footnote This type of shock can lead to significant hypotension and organ failure.

Question 56

In metabolic acidosis, which value is low?

Answer 56

HCO₃⁻ is low. ## Footnote Metabolic acidosis can result from conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis.

Question 57

In respiratory alkalosis, what happens to PaCO₂?

Answer 57

It is low due to hyperventilation. ## Footnote Hyperventilation can occur in anxiety or certain medical conditions.

Question 58

In metabolic alkalosis, which value is high?

Answer 58

HCO₃⁻ is high. ## Footnote Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by excessive vomiting or diuretic use.

Question 59

Which organ compensates slowly—lungs or kidneys?

Answer 59

Kidneys (hours to days). ## Footnote Kidney compensation is slower but more permanent compared to respiratory compensation.

Question 60

How should potassium be administered IV?

Answer 60

Slowly and diluted to avoid vein irritation. ## Footnote Rapid administration can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrest.

Question 61

What is essential when converting medication units?

Answer 61

Accuracy in mg, g, mL, and L units. ## Footnote Errors in dosage calculations can lead to serious patient harm.

Question 62

What is a key step in preventing infections?

Answer 62

Proper hand hygiene and PPE use. ## Footnote Infection control measures are critical in healthcare settings.

Question 63

Why use mnemonics in nursing?

Answer 63

To quickly recall important information. ## Footnote Mnemonics can enhance memory retention and efficiency in practice.

Question 64

What position should a patient be in when measuring BP?

Answer 64

Seated with the arm at heart level, legs uncrossed. ## Footnote Proper positioning ensures accurate blood pressure readings.