1-500 Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Question
A
Answer
2
Q
An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called
A
an embargo
3
Q
Field observations are not always reported in total because
A
the significance of the data is not understood
4
Q
In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to
A
keep very accurate records
5
Q
Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating?
A
the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year
6
Q
When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______.
A
civil action
7
Q
Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected?
A
determining how the information will be used
8
Q
Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment?
A
a. a mandatory injunction, b. revoking a license, c. an injunction
9
Q
An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets is
A
evaluation
10
Q
On-the-job education should start with planned, routine, intensive in-service training of
A
all field and office personnel
11
Q
All of the following describe objectives used in environmental quality planning except
A
non-measurable
12
Q
Self-imposed health risk factors include
A
a. exposure to sunlight, b. diet, c. smoking
13
Q
Legal proceedings to enforce a law may include
A
a. issuance of an order to eliminate a violation, b. suspension of a permit, c. civil sanctions
14
Q
In an environmental control statistical report for program, the “total man-days expended” will
A
show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities
15
Q
Which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action?
A
reinspection
16
Q
In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability?
A
easy to obtain
17
Q
The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to
A
public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life
18
Q
Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and
A
enforceable
19
Q
The terms “goals” and “objectives” are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as
A
the realistically attainable ends
20
Q
Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility’s problems.
A
establishment owners
21
Q
The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for
A
an administrative warrant
22
Q
Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and
A
on the basis of a general administrative plan
23
Q
The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as
A
a. clean air, b. clean food service establishments, c. decent housing
24
Q
A standard for dishwashing that states that the “total bacteria count should not exceed one hundred per utensil surface,” is an example of what type of objective?
A
performance
25
A well developed ______ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical purposes.
daily
26
To have a successful environmental control service, the retention of competent personnel is a primary concern. Which of the following is (are) required to retain competent personnel?
a. adequate salaries, b. pleasant, stimulating working conditions, c. a dynamic and challenging program
27
The number of inspections divided by the number of workdays should equal which of the following?
average number of inspections per workday
28
Since competent direction is essential to a divisional program's effectiveness, it is important to offer
none of the above
29
From a legal standpoint, which of the following is true regarding enforcement of standards?
a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard
30
The effectiveness of an inspection program depends on technical competence and the ______ of regulatory staff.
attitude
31
A program plan should be developed for each of the program activities. This plan should list which of the following criteria for each activity?
a. work load and methods to meet program objectives and financing, b. resource requirements, goals and objectives, c. need for the program, evaluation, and law
32
The precise levels at which specific air pollutants become a health hazard are relatively easy to establish by existing surveillance systems.
FALSE
33
Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract.
FALSE
34
It is possible to control noise
a. at the source, b. in its path of transmission, c. where it is received
35
Fluorocarbons in the atmosphere are of concern because they may
a. react with the ozone in the upper atmosphere, thus reducing the total amount of ozone available, b. cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth, c. cause an increase in skin cancers and changes in our climate, animal, and plant life
36
The terms "washout" and "rainout" both refer to a cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere.
TRUE
37
A ______ is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels.
decibel
38
The frequency of a sound determines its pitch.
TRUE
39
When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called
synergism
40
Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a
fog, mist, or dust
41
Precipitation accomplishes an effective cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere by
a. accumulation of small particles in the formation of raindrops or snowflakes in clouds, b. the washing out of scavenging of large particles by falling raindrops or snowflakes, c. removal of gaseous pollutants by dissolution and absorption
42
A deterioration in the ozone layer of the stratosphere can cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth.
TRUE
43
The unit of measurement most commonly used to measure loudness is called
phon
44
Sound absorbing materials absorb low frequency sounds much more effectively than high frequency sounds.
FALSE
45
Air pollution control should first be considered at the
source
46
If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense is 20 decibels than one decibel?
100
47
The Montreal Protocol categorizes ______ and ______ in two classes based on their ozone-depiction potential.
CO2 and PAN
48
Glazing, silvering, or bronzing on the underside of a leaf is evidence that injury has occurred by
peroxyacyl nitrates
49
The meteorological elements that have the most direct and significant effects on the distribution of air pollutants are
a. solar radiation, b. wind speed and direction, c. precipitation and stability
50
Turbulence is the wind characteristic that is
the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants
51
Some specific measures that can be used to reduce the effect of highway noise include
a. setting lower speed limits for certain sections of a highway, b. establishing alternate truck routes, c. enclosure of highways going through residential areas
52
For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between
loudness and intensity
53
______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation.
fluorides
54
Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day's time an average of
35 pounds of air
55
Stability of the atmosphere
a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions - b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile
56
In what part of the earth's atmosphere are photochemical oxidants produced?
troposphere
57
Sources of pollutants can generally be classified as
a. line sources, b. area sources, c. point sources
58
Which of the following items are not natural topographic features?
canals
59
A particle count of above ______ is said to be representative of an urban area
50,000
60
Street dust would be considered what type of pollution?
fugitive pollutant
61
Ozone can be formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons.
TRUE
62
What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants?
sulfur dioxide
63
______ can be formed as a result of the sun's action on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons
ozone
64
The ratio of the energy passing through a wall, floor, or ceiling to the energy striking it is called
sound transmission loss
65
Long-term wind data of a given location are presented graphically in the form of a
wind rose
66
Transportation is the largest source of air pollution.
TRUE
67
The amount of sound energy a material can absorb is a function of its absorption coefficient at a specified frequency.
TRUE
68
Which of the following types of materials are known to reflect sound?
rubber tiles
69
Continuous exposure to high-level noise is less harmful than intermittent or occasional exposure.
FALSE
70
Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs.
FALSE
71
The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is
inversely proportional to wind speed
72
A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to
a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber
73
In the United States, the Ringlemann smoke chart consists of how many rectangular charts?
four
74
A primary pollutant is one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions.
FALSE
75
Individuals react differently to noise depending on age, sex, and socioeconomic background.
TRUE
76
Air pollution is the presence of ______ in the outside air in amounts that are injurious or detrimental to humans, animals, plants, or property.
a. solids, b. gases, c. liquids
77
Stack samples must be collected at the same speed of flow that gases normally pass through the stack.
TRUE
78
The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.
intensity
79
The normal change in temperature with altitude is
noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air
80
The Safe Alternatives Policy program
specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances
81
Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except
nylon
82
Halon-1211 is used primarily in ______.
portable fire extinguishers
83
Air pollutants may be in the form of microorganisms.
TRUE
84
Areas on the windward side of mountain ranges can expect less precipitation due to the forced rising, expansion, and cooling of moving air masses.
FALSE
85
The most common type of noise measurement device used for initial surveys to provide rapid evaluation and identification of potential problem areas is the
sound level meter
86
The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by
the Department of Labor
87
The concentration resulting from a continuous emission of a pollutant is directly proportional to wind speed.
FALSE
88
A primary pollutant is
one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists
89
______ involves the chemistry, physics, and dynamics of the atmosphere and includes many direct effects of the atmosphere on the earth's surface, ocean, and life.
meteorology
90
The effects of air pollution are influenced by
a. wind speed, and direction,b. sunlight, c. precipitation
91
Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution?
electrical substations
92
In general terms, it is safe to assume that any two identical sound levels will have the effect of increasing the overall level by 10 dB.
FALSE
93
Halon-1301 is used primarily in ______.
fixed fire suppression systems
94
Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch.
TRUE
95
The major factors related to hearing loss are
a. time duration of exposure and repeated impact, b. intensity of sound waves, c. frequency content of sound
96
Which of the following is not a malodorous gas?
carbon monoxide
97
Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned.
sulfur dioxide
98
The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on
the compressibility and density of the medium
99
______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer.
HCFCs
100
Which of the following is not a primary pollutant?
sulfuric acid
101
Almost all sound contains multiple frequencies.
TRUE
102
In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with
skunks
103
The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (48 years) and 1974 (72 years) have occurred mostly in the early years and are due to
a. sanitation, b. nutrition, c. chemotherapy
104
It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans.
TRUE
105
Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries.
FALSE
106
An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called
a communicable disease
107
The cancer rate is roughly 72% higher for inner-city people than the level for suburbanites.
FALSE
108
There is a scientific consensus that further increases in life expectancy are dependent on the extent to which
b and c above
109
A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is
psittacosis
110
Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods that have been properly handled and then through appropriate time temperature control of the finished product.
TRUE
111
An analysis by Dever indicated that environmental factors were considered to be the cause of 49% of all deaths due to accidents, 20% of the influenza and pneumonia deaths, 41% of the homicides, and 15% of the deaths due to birth injuries and other diseases peculiar to early infancy.
TRUE
112
Between 26 B.C. and 395 A.D., the average life expectancy was
24 years
113
The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed
disinfection
114
House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis.
TRUE
115
Tularemia is often transmitted to humans by handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats.
TRUE
116
Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil.
FALSE
117
Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats, and domestic animals.
TRUE
118
Marsh miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella.
FALSE
119
Schistosomiasis is
a water contact disease
120
Rats are one of the seven animals most likely to carry rabies.
FALSE
121
The most effective means of control of bats is to "build them out."
TRUE
122
Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin.
FALSE
123
The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except
homicide
124
Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days.
TRUE
125
The term "endemic" means
constant presence of an illness
126
The prevention of deaths from a particular disease increases the overall life expectancy in direct proportion to its decreased mortality.
FALSE
127
Urine is usually sterile, except for urinary schistosomiasis, typhoid, and leptospirosis carriers.
TRUE
128
The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is termed
tertiary prevention
129
Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by
fungi
130
The prevention of respiratory diseases in "vulnerable" individuals is to
a. protect people from the source, b. eliminate routes of transmission, c. reduce presence of susceptible individuals
131
Life expectancy is a measure of health progress, morbidity levels, and the quality of life.
FALSE
132
Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens.
FALSE
133
A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of
chemical poisoning
134
It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported.
TRUE
135
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by
ticks
136
The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except
use of antibiotics
137
The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is
epidemiology
138
The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the
incubation period
139
The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the toilet tanks in older hotels.
FALSE
140
A vaccinated dog or cat bitten by or exposed to a rabid animal should be confined for 4 months or destroyed.
FALSE
141
Observations and cost-effective analyses have shown that good housing and sanitation are far more effective measures for the control of cholera, typhoid, and similar diseases than is immunization.
TRUE
142
Public awareness demands a quality of environment that provides fundamental needs such as which of the following?
a. pure water, clean air, pure food, b. decent housing, c. safe recreational facilities
143
Which of the following factors is not considered in of need of control by the WHO health goal?
achievement of individual wealth
144
The Overseas Development Council has created a Physical Quality of Life Index by combining assessments of
literacy rates, life expectancy and infant mortality rates
145
Strategic planning is a tool that helps organizations
a. decide where they want to be in the future, b. locate where they are now, c. plan how to get to the desired state in the future
146
The most important factor leading to the abandonment of a site is related to
an adequate, safe water supply
147
A comprehensive solid waste study must include
preliminary analysis for solid waste treatment and disposal
148
What led to the formation of the NEPA?
a. public concern over environmental pollution, b. scientific support, c. professional prodding and support
149
Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by
revenue bonds and general obligation bonds
150
Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area?
lower taxes
151
An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is
a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible
152
Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan.
regional
153
The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to
a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment, b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment, c. encourage greater understanding of the environment
154
What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning?
the county
155
The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except
surrounding area politics
156
Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey?
water supply source that is fast moving
157
For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except
an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year
158
______ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits.
industry
159
When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, which of the following steps would generally not be included?
construction plans
160
The ______ in many cities has been leveling off, but has been increasing in the suburbs.
rate of population growth
161
Revenue bonds are usually repaid by
specific sources of revenue (such as water charges)
162
The term "Federal agency" does not include which of the following
the executive office
163
A comprehensive water supply study must include
alternative sources of water
164
One method of financing for a municipal capital improvement is by revenue bonds which in turn are paid by
persons receiving the service
165
A GAP analysis is
an analysis of the distance between the current state and the future state
166
A SWOT analysis is
none of the above
167
When a suitable site is being selected for a particular purpose, which of the following must be known before any property is investigated?
#REF!
168
Comprehensive community planning includes which of the following steps?
#REF!
169
The agency that developed guidelines to assist urban areas and cities assess the environmental impact of housing and urban development was
the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development
170
An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment.
NEPA
171
Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should
a. develop zoning regulations, c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services
172
Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is
0.03
173
A planning board's enforcement tools include
#REF!
174
The EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform is
200 colonies per 100 ml
175
The generally accepted method(s) of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is (are)
comprehensive land-use planning
176
In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains all the following except
special planning studies
177
The purpose of public information and community action is which of the following?
#REF!
178
Plan implementation involves capital improvement programs and financing plans.
TRUE
179
An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except
probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided
180
A QOL index is useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions.
FALSE
181
Actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment are categorically defined as
categorical exclusion
182
The Council on Environmental Quality was established by
Title II of NEPA
183
A "vision" is a term used in strategic planning to represent the
#REF!
184
Every 1,000 new people in a community will require 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year.
FALSE
185
Financing for municipal capital improvements is generally done by revenue bonds or general obligation bonds.
TRUE
186
A project study is another term for Acomprehensive regional planning.@
FALSE
187
In the quality of life index, the economic environment includes all of the following except
material quality
188
General overall policy planning includes all of the following except
detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans
189
Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region.
TRUE
190
Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems
must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing
191
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 made it the responsibility of the Federal Government to use all practical means to coordinate ______ to encourage harmony between man and his/her environment.
#REF!
192
Due to political boundaries, the costs of implementing services for community functions are best handled by
metropolitan regions
193
The nitrogen dioxide below ______ ppm does not pose a health problem.
0.05
194
______ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine "the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment."
Leopold
195
The selection of a site for a public building often requires improvements. An undesirable feature that can often be remediated for public health reasons concerns is
a low swampy area
196
Comprehensive planning includes
#REF!
197
The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by
the constitution or laws of a state
198
The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is
6 mg per liter
199
General obligation bonds used for financing municipal capital improvement are repaid by
real property tax
200
To determine the resources on a section of property, one should seek the assistance of a person who is experienced and familiar with
a. geology and wildlife - b. forestry and engineering
201
A certificate of compliance is issued by the ______ when a system is properly installed.
health department
202
Haphazard development can be controlled by comprehensive local and regional planning if
broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided
203
An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements?
#REF!
204
A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness.
#REF!
205
Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by
Hornback
206
A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of what types of wastes?
solid wastes
207
Stakeholder Focused Interactive Strategic planning is designed to locate common ground held by all stakeholders in the planning process.
TRUE
208
The topography of a subdivision lot usually determines the location of the well with respect to the sewage disposal system.
TRUE
209
The environmental impact statement
is a written description of legislative proposals and actions affecting the quality of the human environment
210
Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies ensures that public health and welfare are protected?
regulatory responsibilities
211
General obligation bonds
#REF!
212
The assessment of stakeholders values, interests, and expectations can be used to evaluate the probability of success of a strategic plan.
TRUE
213
The Council on Environmental Quality requires ______ to submit an Environmental Quality Report to Congress.
the President
214
Planning and zoning regulations are based on
the rights of the government to exercise its police power to control the private use of land for public benefit
215
______ developed a set of guidelines to aid urban areas and cities assess the impacts of development actions.
HUD
216
The preferred method for water and sewerage service for a subdivision is to
extend existing water lines and community sewer lines
217
If an adequate, satisfactory, and safe water supply is not obtainable at a reasonable cost, the site should be
abandoned
218
If the air in a community contains 0.10 to 0.17 parts per million of sulfur oxide, it is considered to be ______ quality air.
moderate
219
A special engineering study is required for slopes with an incline greater than
8 percent
220
The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed
25 NTU
221
If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 ml of water, it is placed in which environmental impact category?
2
222
Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination; therefore, a physical exam should be required
none of the above
223
For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be cooked to
155 degrees F for 15 seconds
224
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states?
Oregon and Michigan
225
A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test
is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk
226
A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)?
#REF!
227
When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration.
120 degrees F, 25 mg/l
228
An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is
quarry tile
229
What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine?
15 seconds
230
The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be
$10 billion to $80 billion per year
231
At what time and temperature specifications does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized?
155 degrees F for 30 minutes
232
The ______ test shows the amount of extraneous material in milk but will not show dissolved material.
sediment
233
People at increase risk for listeriosis are
a. pregnant women, b. newborns
234
The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as the
IMS
235
Inspection report forms are primarily tools used to
assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy
236
Celery, a major source of salad contamination, has proven to be acceptable when
immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water
237
In order to protect against salmonellae growth in time/temperature control for safety / potentially hazardous food, the recommended temperature for storage is
41 degrees F
238
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become
a particular problem for produces and users of ground beef
239
Strong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because
shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever
240
Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by
NSSP
241
The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is
0.5 ppb
242
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the
intestines of man and animals
243
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by
an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7
244
The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to
prevent foodborne illnesses
245
Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food?
#REF!
246
Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish.
230
247
The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following?
improper cleaning of the cow
248
Which of the following is not a common refrigerant?
nitrogen oxide
249
The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is
scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry
250
As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 degrees F to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps:
to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F
251
Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ______ of exposure in purified seawater.
12 to 24 hours
252
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a bacteria that currently
is difficult to test for
253
Floors in food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, and similar places should be sloped ______ toward each drain.
1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot
254
Routine and frequent inspections of food-processing and food-service establishments alone does not ensure that adequate levels of sanitation will be met. Inspections must be supplemented with
#REF!
255
Salty flavors in milk may be due to the use of milk from cows infected with
mastitis
256
The racks in refrigerators or walk-in coolers must be ______ to allow circulation of cold air.
slotted
257
If the fat content of milk increases by ten percent or more, the pasteurizer temperature must be increase by
5 degrees F
258
The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is
wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry
259
A certified industry inspection is an inspection
conducted by a certified member of the industry
260
An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of
wallboard
261
Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are
oysters
262
Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria:
Escherichia coli
263
Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment?
none of the above
264
Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than ______ at the end of the system.
170 degrees F for 5 minutes
265
Temperatures of ______ have been found satisfactory for the storage of refrigerated foods.
38 degrees F to 41 degrees F
266
Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on food work surfaces.
50-foot candles
267
Which state has a quarantine on mussels from May 1 to October 31?
California
268
After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below ______ so that
40 degrees F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase
269
In order to avoid pathogen growth and/or survival, food that is greater than ______ thick frozen or partially thawed should not be cooked.
4 inches
270
Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches
212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds
271
The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is
the specific heat
272
A mold control program should include all of the following factors except
spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound
273
When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by
a. methylene blue reduction test, b. resazurin test
274
Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of
70 degrees F to 98 degrees F
275
Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F.
45 degrees F
276
Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in
10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F
277
Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than ______ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food.
3 inches
278
In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of ______ degrees.
30
279
Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish?
elastic flesh
280
The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be
180 degrees F
281
All meat and poultry plants must develop and implement a system of preventative controls known as
HACCP
282
The primary responsibility of food service management is
education and supervision of employees
283
Oysters, soft-shell and hard-shell clams, mussels, lobsters, crabs, and shrimp fall under what group?
shellfish
284
Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of
0.24 to 0.27
285
Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature?
6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F
286
In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of
10-foot candles
287
Pasteurized milk quality is indicated by
a. direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count, c. phosphatase test, taste and odor tests
288
Which bacteria can survive cooking to appropriate levels?
Clostridium perfringens
289
Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing?
#REF!
290
Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment.
typhoid fever
291
Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following?
a. toxins , b. anthrax spores , c. pesticides
292
Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on
hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations
293
Proper facility lighting is essential for
#REF!
294
E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by
. a and b
295
Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking.
#REF!
296
Quality control of milk includes which of the following?
#REF!
297
Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center.
discoloration
298
Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas?
increase air temperature
299
Common refrigerants include which of the following?
#REF!
300
When direct consumption of shellfish might be hazardous due to radionuclide or industrial wastes pollution; the median coliform MPN of the water does not exceed 700 per 100 ml; and not more than 10 percent of samples exceed MPN of 2300 per 100 ml, an area is designated
restricted
301
Equipment can be disinfected by being in contact with a chlorine solution for at least
10 seconds
302
Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?
combustibility
303
Land disposal by hazardous waste regulation includes
waste pile
304
Sources of dioxin include ______.
#REF!
305
Funding for the collection, storage, and disposal of household hazardous waste always comes directly from the individuals who generate the waste.
FALSE
306
Domestic wastewater which passes through a sewer system to a POTW is not considered to be a ______.
a. solid waste, b. hazardous waste
307
Heating of air, gas, or gas mixture up to 9032 degrees F for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called
plasma technology
308
The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill.
99.9999 percent
309
Hazardous wastes include
none of the above
310
By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes.
solid
311
Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste.
FALSE
312
Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______.
chlorinated hydrocarbons
313
A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.
TRUE
314
Household hazardous waste is not exempt from DOT regulations when shipped to a disposal facility.
TRUE
315
The state or federal regulatory agency with jurisdiction should never be consulted when conducting a suitability audit of a waste disposal company.
FALSE
316
Hazardous wastes include ______ substances.
#REF!
317
A permanent facility for collecting and storing household waste should be located away from residential areas and places of public gathering.
TRUE
318
High temperature incineration systems are most suitable to destroy
organic compounds
319
Which of the following is the least approprate option for hazardous waste minimization?
concentration
320
Hazardous waste is governed by the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
321
Which of the following waste material is not classified as a California list waste that is banned from land disposal?
any solid waste
322
Well-placed, existing solid waste collection areas are good choices for household hazardous waste collection sites.
TRUE
323
The EPA requires that toxic waste incinerators achieve a destruction and removal rate of ______ before the material is landfilled.
99.99 percent
324
Wastes generated by the construction industry include
#REF!
325
Examples of thermal destruction processes in addition to incineration are
cement kiln
326
Support of household hazardous waste management is an avenue for industries to paint themselves as community leaders and defenders of the environment.
TRUE
327
The regulatory level for total cresol under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is
200 mg/l
328
Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?
fuel blending
329
Hazardous wastes generated by vehicle maintenance shops include
#REF!
330
Hazardous wastes may be in a ______ form.
#REF!
331
Which of the following is not included in hazardous waste regulations?
domestic sewage
332
In many cases, x-ray beams or fluoroscopes will extend past the fluoroscopic screen and protective lead, thereby exposing the operator to the direct beam.
TRUE
333
It takes ______ half-lives to reduce the radioactivity of a radionuclide to about 1% of what it was when first measured.
7
334
In practice, exposure to all ionizing radiation is controlled by the use of shields of lead.
FALSE
335
A filter of 2 mm of aluminum will absorb the soft, or less penetrating, radiation.
TRUE
336
Neutrons are charged, high-energy particles.
FALSE
337
An unacceptable use of radiation is
fluoroscopy for the purpose of fitting shoes
338
The median lethal dose of radiation (at which about 50% of the persons exposed will probably die in one month) is considered to be
550 to 750 roentgens
339
The genetic harm done by radiation is not cumulative.
FALSE
340
Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds?
alpha particles
341
Carbon 14, a radioactive isotope of carbon, has a half-life of almost 6000 years.
TRUE
342
The term "rem" is short for
none of the above
343
Radiation could scatter and bounce off the
#REF!
344
______ routinely sample air, water, and food supplies for radionuclides.
#REF!
345
The term "rad" means
radiation absorbed dose
346
A CT scanner is a combination computer and x-ray machine.
FALSE
347
A state radiation protection program may involve control of
#REF!
348
Medical uses can present a hazard to technicians, patients, and others through the improper handling of radionuclides and contaminated wastes.
TRUE
349
Alpha particles have a negative electric charge.
FALSE
350
R is the symbol used for the term "roentgen".
TRUE
351
Which of the following are sources of radiation?
#REF!
352
The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in
#REF!
353
Medical personnel involved in radium therapy can become unnecessarily exposed during handling of the source needle.
TRUE
354
The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in
curies
355
Large doses of radiation can be applied to local areas, as in therapy, with little danger.
TRUE
356
Fluoroscopy exams should be done before x-rays.
FALSE
357
Background radiation cannot be eliminated.
TRUE
358
The effective half-life of an injected radionuclide is determined by the length of time the nuclide remains in the body and its radioactive half-life.
TRUE
359
The common types of radiation are
#REF!
360
Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by
both glass or plastic and aluminum
361
Radioactive substances used in medicine are always sealed.
FALSE
362
Sources of x-rays that operate at a voltage above 10 kilovolts are less hazardous than sources less than 10 kV.
FALSE
363
When the whole body is irradiated, the most radiosensitive area(s) is (are)
#REF!
364
The only difference between gamma rays, x-rays, and visible light is
their frequency
365
More information is known about effects of trace amounts of chemical carcinogens than radiation effects.
FALSE
366
Radon is an alpha emitter; daughter decay products are alpha, beta, and gamma emitters.
TRUE
367
Only sperm and nerve cells can apparently replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive.
FALSE
368
A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation.
FALSE
369
Microwaves are reflected by
metals
370
Isotopes of the same element have
the same atomic number but different mass numbers
371
What material has a high melting point, a high atomic number and is used as a target material to produce x-rays?
tungsten
372
Lead shielding devices are not necessary for chest or upright x-rays.
FALSE
373
Beta particles can be stopped by a few millimeters of aluminum.
TRUE
374
Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.
TRUE
375
Common deficiencies regarding therapy units may include filtration, exposure control, and calibration.
TRUE
376
One of the common types of ionizing radiation is the x-ray.
TRUE
377
The absorption of how many ergs (energy-per-gram) of air represents one roentgen?
about 86
378
Regarding emergency radiation exposure, the state has a responsibility to:
#REF!
379
Neutrons can have
a. biological effects, b. the ability to make other substances radioactive
380
The FDA requires that sunlamps that radiate UV rays be equipped with timers which automatically shut off after
based on the intensity of the UV lamp
381
Microwave ovens that have magnetron tubes use electrical energy to generate
high frequency, short wave energy
382
Which of the following is not commonly associated with the term frequency?
particles
383
The dose or energy absorbed by an irradiated object is a function of both the kilovolt and the milliampere settings of the machine.
TRUE
384
Which of the following exposures should be considered in assessing radiation hazard?
#REF!
385
If the radioactivity of a material is not known, the half-life cannot be determined.
FALSE
386
Long term effects of radiation on an individual are predictable.
FALSE
387
A principle(s) for effecting external radiation protection is (are)
#REF!
388
If 5000 persons were exposed to a background radiation of 0.1 rem per year, this would represent a person-rem exposure of 500.
TRUE
389
Which term is used to describe the exposure of large populations to ionizing radiation?
person-rem
390
______ has the responsibility for internal housekeeping and for monitoring all waste discharges in terms of types and quantities.
Industry
391
A thin sheet of paper will stop a beta particle.
FALSE
392
The term "rem" does not take into consideration the biological effect of different kinds of radiation from the same dose in rads.
FALSE
393
Many defects in x-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments.
TRUE
394
Everyone is subject to natural background radiation.
TRUE
395
An ordinary chest x-ray produces an exposure of about 0.1 rad; a very heavy diagnostic series, about 10 rads.
TRUE
396
Factors that could determine the effect of radiation on the body include
#REF!
397
Gamma rays come from the nucleus of an atom; x-rays come from the electrons around the nucleus and are produced by electron bombardment.
TRUE
398
Biological effects of radiation on all living organisms, including human beings, are termed somatic or genetic.
TRUE
399
The Department of Energy regulations require solidification of high-level radioactive wastes within ______ of their production.
5 years
400
Filters will
reduce stray radiation
401
To produce thermal effects, microwave energy is converted to ______ in the body or organism.
heat
402
The best control of swimmer's itch at a bathing beach is to
add copper sulfate
403
The addition of sodium bicarbonate is usually used to
raise the alkalinity
404
Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of
a. NTU, b. Secchi disk readings
405
An operating free chlorine residual of ______ is usually required in practice.
1.0 to 3.0 mg/l
406
The formula (Volume of Pool / Pump Flow Rate (GPM) x 60 min) = turnover rate, will tell us .
the number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters
407
The minimum recommended depth of water under a 1 meter board (1 meter high) is
10 feet
408
Many of the problems associated with migrant labor camps are related to
#REF!
409
The generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a
fill and draw pool
410
A vehicle built on a chassis and having a body of not more than 8-feet wide and 32-feet long designed for travel, recreation, and vacation use is
travel trailer
411
One of the ways to recognize a well designed and properly operated pool is when you find the water at the time of inspection to be
crystal clear, with the proper level of approved disinfectant, and a PH level of 7.4
412
To raise the pH, add
sodium carbonate
413
In large pools with outlets more than 5 feet from the end wall, pool inlets should be located
every 20 feet
414
Improper use of chemicals or improperly balanced pool or beach water may cause the spread of infectious disease due to
#REF!
415
The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. This product
is 62 percent molecular at a pH of 7.2
416
The pool must be designed
to fit the expected numbers of swimmers
417
Gas chlorine is considered
100 percent available chlorine
418
Pool inlets should be located a minimum of 10 inches to 15 inches below the water line to
prevent loss of disinfectant
419
The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation and the
effectiveness of chlorine
420
To mix acid and water, always
add acid to water
421
It is essential that all public pools
run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day
422
Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chlorinated cyanurates, bromine and
iodine
423
The connection between the pool drain and the sanitary sewer must
have a properly located cleanout
424
Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than do non-swimmers
regardless of bathing water quality
425
The main drain should have a grate that is ______ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects.
four times
426
A pH between _____ and _____ is optimal PH control for eye irritation, but is not optimal for chlorine effectiveness.
7.5 - 7.6
427
A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water every ______.
6 to 8 hours
428
The assemblage of large numbers of people in a limited area requires that certain minimum facilities be provided. Some guidelines to assist in the preparation for mass gatherings include
#REF!
429
When chlorine is added to water
HOCl is considered the primary product
430
Swimmers itch is also known as
schistosomiasis
431
One study of basic sanitation and migrant farm workers found that migrants who did not have access to water and sanitation facilities in the field had a clinic utilization rate for diarrhea
20 times that of urban poor
432
The rate of filtration should be ______ for a diatomite filter.
1 to 2 gpm/ft2
433
A chemical commonly used to improve water clarity is
alum
434
The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of
on-board holding tanks
435
The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools
pseudomonas aeruginosa
436
A pH ______ is probably optimal for minimal eye irritation along with maintenance of effective residual chlorine.
7.5 to 7.6
437
The backwash rate for both conventional, rapid and high rate sand filters is
15 gpm/ft2
438
The recommended and most effective method of maintaining pool water quality is
continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration
439
Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every
1 to 2 hours
440
The ideal pH range for swimming pools is
7.2 to 7.6
441
It has been found that pools less than 30 feet wide with a surface area less than 1600 ft2
may utilize skimmers instead of gutters
442
Dead animals are best disposed in
a. an incinerator or rendering plant, b. a separate area of sanitary landfill
443
Which of the following is (are) true about composting?
b. it may come from the organic fraction of municipal solid waste, c. it results in a poor fertilizer
444
After a landfill site is closed, it should be covered with at least ______ of compacted soil having a low permeability, graded to shed rainwater, melting snow, and surface water.
2 feet
445
Which of the following is not recommended for a refuse storage area?
uncovered base
446
In the rectangular furnace, the grates are arranged in
tiers
447
Additional fuel is needed to incinerate refuse
a. with 30 percent or less rubbish, b. with 50 percent or more moisture
448
The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are
time, temperature, and turbulence
449
The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should be
with the prevailing wind
450
______ reduces the final volume of wastes.
a. compaction, b. maceration
451
The valley or ravine landfill method utilizes "lifts" from the bottom up with depths usually of
8 to 10 feet
452
The wastewater generated from washing out refuse bins and containers
a. can be disposed of with the garbage, b. must pass through a grease trap before entering a sewerage system, c. should not be allowed to run onto the surface of the ground
453
Large items that are not recyclable should be
b and c
454
In order to determine the depth at which a sanitary landfill can be operated, which of the following must be determined?
#REF!
455
Compression or shredding of bulky objects before landfilling them will
#REF!
456
Which of the following is true about garbage stands?
garbage stands should be convenient to the kitchen, in an airy shaded location
457
Oil that has had a physical and chemical impurities removed and that by itself or when blended with new oil or additives, is substantially equivalent or superior to new oil intended for the same purposes, is called
re-refined oil
458
The dumping of garbage and other refuse at sea in the United States is
prohibited
459
The transfer station should be located ______ of the collection service area.
in the center
460
One piece of refuse-compaction and earth-moving equipment is needed at the landfill site for approximately each
80 loads per day
461
The temperature of the gases leaving the furnace is reduced by
#REF!
462
Before trying to convert an "open dump" into a sanitary landfill, you must first
b. institute a rat-poisoning program 2 weeks before conversion, c. develop a plan of operation, supervision, maintenance, and a drawing showing your proposed plans
463
Methane in the presence of air is explosive at concentrations between
5 and 15 percent
464
The normal economical hauling distance to a refuse disposal site is usually between
10 to 15 miles
465
Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start
at the point of generation
466
Collection cost is about ______ of the total cost of solid waste management.
50%-70%
467
The spread of ______ is (are) encouraged when uncooked garbage is fed to hogs
#REF!
468
Depending on the size of the community, there should be a minimum of one man at a landfill site and ______ men per 1000 yd3 of waste dumped per day that the site is open.
six
469
When considering a site for a sanitary landfill, both county and regional-wide planning and administration of the site should be considered because
#REF!
470
The goal for management of hazardous waste should be
zero discharge
471
Which of the following allows for 95 percent or more volume reduction of municipal solid wastes?
b. pyrolysis, c. high-temperature incineration
472
What does RCRA stand for?
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
473
The average amount of solid waste generated, collected, and disposed of from a particular area is dependent on many local factors such as
#REF!
474
The furnace temperature and burning rates of an incinerator can be controlled by adjusting
#REF!
475
Systems used for treatment and disposal of animal wastes include
#REF!
476
Incinerators are rated in terms of
tons of burnable waste per day
477
The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is the
area or ramp method
478
Added moisture used in maceration ______ the handling and haul costs of solid waste
increases
479
The commonly acceptable refuse disposal and treatment methods are
composting, recylcing, incineration, and sanitary landfilling
480
The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately
10 to 15 percent of the original volume
481
______ can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incinerator or water-wall incinerator.
energy
482
The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of
garbage disposal
483
The most suitable soil for cover material at a landfill site is one that is
easily worked and minimizes infiltration
484
The National Safety council reported that solid waste collection workers have an injury frequency approximately ______ times the national average for all industry.
ten
485
Volume reduction can be achieved by
#REF!
486
A county or regional landfill should provide enough area for a ______ period of operation.
20- to 40-year
487
Which of the following is not one of the four characteristics of hazardous wastes as defined by the Environmental Protection Agency?
radioactivity
488
A landfill site should not
be inaccessible during bad weather conditions
489
The best way to control deep fires in a sanitary landfill is to
separate the burning refuse and dig a fire brake around the burning refuse
490
The Consumer Product Safety Commission requires that refuse bins or containers must be able to withstand a hanging weight or force of ______ pounds and a horizontal force of ______ pounds without overturning, with the force applied where tipping of the bin is not likely.
191; 70
491
The EPA believes that only ______ of the waste stream can be recovered economically.
56 percent
492
Acidic conditions ______ the growth of methane-producing bacteria.
inhibit
493
High-density compaction of solid wastes is accomplished by compression to a density of more than ______.
66.5/lb ft3
494
The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least
1500 to 1800 degrees F
495
The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1976
regulates the production and use of chemical substances that may present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or environment
496
A properly designed and controlled incinerator is satisfactory for burning combustible refuse as long as
air pollution standards can be met
497
A relatively porous landfill earth cover will permit
a. the escape of gases, b. greater infiltration and leachate production
498
According to the United States Environmental Protection Agency, solid waste does NOT include
#REF!
499
Shredding reduces the volume of wastes to about ______ or less of the original bulk.
40 percent
500
A dragline may be used at a landfill site for
#REF!
