1001-1500 Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Question
A
Answer
2
Q
Individuals particularly susceptible to the toxic effects of cadmium are those who are deficient in:
A
iron
3
Q
Which one of the following statements about cadmium is false?
A
it helps the body metabolize calcium
4
Q
The largest outbreak of cadmium poisoning thus far documented occurred in:
A
Japan
5
Q
A major problem associated with cadmium poisoning is:
A
kidney failure
6
Q
Of the following, the most likely to succumb to cadmium poisoning are:
A
malnourished women
7
Q
Which one of the following is least likely to occur in the US?
A
cadmium poisoning
8
Q
What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under five years of age?
A
Haemophilus influenzae type B
9
Q
How is giardiasis USUALLY transmitted to others?
A
person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual
10
Q
Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public’s health and welfare are protected?
A
regulatory responsibilities
11
Q
What is epidemic?
A
the occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy
12
Q
What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease?
A
skin
13
Q
Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease?
A
heat disinfection
14
Q
Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with:
A
contaminated food
15
Q
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with
A
Escherichia coli 0157:H7
16
Q
The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except
A
lag phase
17
Q
Which one of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term endemic?
A
constant presence of an illness
18
Q
An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example best fits the definition of a:
A
nonfeasance
19
Q
Vehicleborne, vectorborne or airborne are all examples of:
A
indirect mode of transmission
20
Q
An employer is held liable for the torts of its employee committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as:
A
respondeat superior
21
Q
Performance of an authorized act in a unauthorized manner is called:
A
misfeasance
22
Q
What is the federal agency that regulates food additives?
A
food and drug administration
23
Q
How is the term contamination defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?
A
presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article or substance
24
Q
What is the most common contributing factor to foodborne illness?
A
improper holding temperatures
25
Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety?
they support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms
26
Which food does not require refrigeration at 41F (5C)?
UHT creamers
27
What is the best means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?
adequate refrigeration and cleanliness
28
What is the maximum accumulated time that time/temperature control for safety food can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?
6 hours
29
If time only is used as a public health control, the maximum period of time recommended by the FDA for time/temperature control for safety food to be held is:
6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70F
30
What is the minimum period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?
20 seconds
31
Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to:
155F for 15 seconds
32
What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella?
Ingestion of contaminated food
33
What is the source of scombroid poisoning?
Histamines in the muscle of fish
34
What type of well is considered least likely to become contaminated?
Drilled
35
Diatomaceous earth filters:
Should be supplemented by a chlorination system
36
Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through:
Smooth clay
37
What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places?
Slow sand
38
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except
Hydrostatic loops
39
Which of the following is the least effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water?
Activated carbon
40
Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks and flushed for how long?
2 to 3 minutes
41
What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water?
Lead
42
Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following except:
Potassium
43
Which of the following is least important when reducing sewage to gases?
Earthworms
44
A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide (H2S). The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator and supplied air?
No, because oxygen content and methane were not tested
45
All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant except which one?
Long-lasting residual
46
Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients except:
Magnesium
47
What does mottled brown and red soil indicate?
Inadequate aeration methods
48
Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered unless:
Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 feet
49
Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce
EPA priority pollutants
50
After the servicing (pumping) of a septic tank, it is essential that the tank and lid be
Replaced and secured for safety purposes
51
The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate?
Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment
52
What is the most effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people?
Be sure that pork is thoroughly cooked
53
An HACCP plan is not required when:
Cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk
54
What should not be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?
Freeze
55
What is the primary requirement in designing a food service facility?
Cleanability
56
What is the most important rule of food storage?
Follow the first in, first out rule
57
Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways except:
Above the dishwashing sinks
58
According to the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) how must hazardous household waste be disposed?
Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements
59
Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history?
The business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of
60
Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?
Pressurized
61
What is the term for a statistical estimate of an oral dose of a chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population?
. LD50
62
The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following except the:
pH of the substance
63
Which respiratory device provides the best protection?
Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece
64
The Emergency Planning and Community Right -to-Know-Act (SARA Title III) requires the disclosure of all the following except type and quantities of:
All chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere
65
For first responders at an incident, which one of the following is listed correctly according to order of importance?
Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property protection
66
Which one of the following pesticides can be legally used in the United States by the public?
Diazinon
67
Many diseases and infestation have common names that can confuse the professional when referred to by lay individuals and often children. The term cooties refers to a/an:
Lice infestation
68
The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in:
Electron volts (eV)
69
The term rem is short for:
None of the above
70
What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent?
Human disease
71
No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than:
5 feet
72
An employer moves employers who have reached the upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, to prevent further exposure. What type of hazard control is this?
Administrative control
73
A negative pressure fit test for a protective mask:
Is done by placing both palms against the intake filters
74
Quantitative risk assessments usually measure human exposure through all of the following except:
Computer models
75
The most likely cause of photochemical smog is due to:
Heavy motor vehicle traffic
76
The industries least likely to be a source of sulfur dioxide pollution are:
Hazardous waste incinerators
77
What is the primary cause of death resulting from automobiles exhaust accumulation in garages?
Carbon monoxide
78
The most common type of injury in a home is
A fall
79
A S trap is not considered legal in most state plumbing codes due to which of the following factors?
They are not vented
80
Which of the following products is not a traditional formaldehyde air pollution source?
Burning vegetation
81
Long term effects of lead poisoning include:
Learning disabilities
82
A stud is a unit of building construction that is intended as a:
Vertical support
83
A joist is used:
As a horizontal support
84
A footing drain is required to:
Keep a foundation from slipping
85
The chimney of the house should be a minimum of __ above the highest structure of the home.
Three feet
86
What is the horizontal part of the stairs you step on called?
Riser
87
When footers fail this often results in:
Cracked and/or displaced foundations
88
A plastic ground cover sealed to the foundation should be placed on the found in the crawl space of the home to:
Control moisture in the crawl space
89
The footing drain is intended to drain water away from the base of the home to
Prevent damage to the footer and foundation
90
The termite shield is placed between the
Foundation and the sill
91
The maximum size of a stair riser should be
8' ¼
92
The distance between the end of the water supply pipe and the sink should be how many times the diameter of the supply pipe?
2
93
Biological safety equipment includes
Technical manuals
94
The addition of sodium bicarbonate will
Raise the pH
95
The government organization that usually deals with major disasters is the
Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
96
One of the first actions an individual should take upon hearing an order for the evacuation of homes and businesses is turn off the
Public utility services to the building
97
When temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, the first consideration in shelter selection should be
Protection of the survivors from health and safety risks
98
After flooding and other natural disasters, vaccination is needed for
Vaccinations not required
99
Key components of the HAZWOPER program exclude
Sanitary requirements
100
The difference between a disaster and terrorism is best described as
Intent
101
Which of the following would not be as likely to be contracted bathing at a beach?
spinal meningitis
102
What public health factor is of primary importance in determining the sanitary quality of recreational waters?
coliforms
103
The causative agent Naegleria fowleri has been linked to which of the following diseases?
primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
104
Which organism would probably survive in a hot tub?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
105
A secchi disk is used to determine:
clarity in recreational waters
106
A chemical used to adjust pool alkalinity is:
sodium bicarbonate (soda ash)
107
Which pH could cause the least eye irritation?
7.6
108
What is the primary reason the pH of a pool should stay less than 8?
decreases the amount of active chlorine available
109
The factor used to determine the bromine residual with the chlorine test kit (DPD):
multiply chlorine residual by 2.25
110
The chemical quality of a pool is generally measured by which 2 tests?
pH and chlorine residual
111
Which raises the pH of pool water?
sodium carbonate (soda ash)
112
What compound is the principal scale former?
calcium carbonate
113
The preferred treatment for algae control is:
superchlorination (heavy chlorination
114
The best method to eliminate swimmers itch is:
break the life chain of the schistosome
115
Which of the following is a method by which recreational waters may be contaminated?
a. infected people, b. surface runoff, c. normal water flora
116
Swimming pool water that is brownish black in color may be due to:
Mn
117
The best method to reduce diving accidents is to:
develop diving training and education programs
118
Muriatic acid is a weak solution of:
hydrochloric acid
119
In which situation would you most likely find PAM?
geothermal pool
120
Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than non-swimmers
regardless of bathing water quality
121
The treatment system of a pool is typically recommended to be installed in which of the following flow arrangements?
Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, disinfectant feeder, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, ph feeders, adjustment inlets
122
Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelotnetric Turbidity Units. It is recommended that a level of 0.5 NTU
shall not be exceeded
123
A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water a minimum of every
6 or 8 hours
124
The gutters or skimmers should receive a minimum if what percent of the total pool water due to the large quantity of organisms and materials which typically float.
60%
125
The acidity alkalinity balance affects eye irritation water coagulation and the
effectiveness of chlorine
126
To mix acid and water, always
add acid to water
127
When the chlorine is added to water
one acid is formed
128
Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every
60 minutes
129
The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of
on-board holding tanks
130
The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. The product
is 62 percent molecular at pH of 7.2
131
The main drain should have a grate that is ___ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects.
four times
132
It is known that some pathogenic organisms will survive from less than __ day(s) in heat to more than __ in freezing moist soil.
1 and 2 years
133
Primary sedimentation can remove found in soil, water and wastewater.
#REF!
134
Wastewater is the used water from a home or community and the strength is expressed in terms of
#REF!
135
Nutrients associated with eutrophication include
#REF!
136
The favored method disposal of domestic wastewater is
connection to public sewer system
137
The wastewater from a water closet and latrine or aqua privy flushing is referred to as
black water
138
The most accurate estimates of sewage flow are based on
annual water-meter readings
139
Septic tanks serving commercial operations should be inspected for the need for cleaning
twice per year
140
If a septic tank is pumped in a wet period
the tank may float out of the ground
141
How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced?
every 3 to 5 years
142
Final disposal of sludge may include all of the following except
vegetable dumping
143
Chemical coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration will remove nearly all bacteria, viruses, protozoa and helminths if supplemented by
chlorination
144
Why should sewage sludge not be used as a soil builder or fertilizer supplement for crops for forage if it has not been properly tested?
it may result in higher levels of toxic metals in the vegetation and in the animals eating the vegetation
145
What is the best assurance of satisfactory operation of a properly designed and constructed septic tank system?
proper maintenance
146
One of the most important factors contributing to disease transmission of microbiological agents is
concentration or dose of microorganisms
147
A watertight tank designed to slow down the movement of raw sewage and wastes passing through to the soils is known as a
septic tank
148
Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains
cadmium
149
A measure of the relativity constant rate at which clear water, maintained at a relatively constant depth, will seep out of a standard size test hole that has been previously saturated is the
soil percolation test
150
The ability of a soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is related to all of the following except
cation exchange capacity
151
The most effective method discovered for running a percolation test is
to make tests in holes that have been filled with water overnight
152
Deep sludge depth, thick fog layer and the appearance of particles of solids in the effluent from a septic tank is an indication of what?
a septic tank in need of cleaning
153
Sand filters, elevated systems in suitable fill, evapotranspiration absorption systems, evapotranspiration beds, aeration systems, stabilization ponds or lagoons, recirculating toilets and the like, are
sometimes used where soil is unsuitable
154
By USEPA Standards, the pH of secondary treatment effluent shall be in the range of
6 to 9
155
Which of the following would be a cause of septic-tank failure?
#REF!
156
Man-made organic compounds that degrade very slowly are referred to as
refractory organics
157
Sewer gas may contain
#REF!
158
Which of the following is true regarding the use of septic-tank cleaners?
their use is not advised
159
The NODAK system is designed to
protect ground water
160
The distance between the field or tiles must be a minimum of __ in a treatment absorption field arrangement.
6 feet
161
The depth of septic tanks and ratio of width to length recommended by most health departments are very similar.
TRUE
162
What two factors determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tanks?
permeability of septic tank materials and soil characteristics
163
What two factors determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tanks?
permeability of septic tank materials and soil characteristics
164
What are two factors commonly used to determine soil permeability or ability of the soil to absorb wastewater?
soil perc test and soil characteristics
165
Which would not be considered suitable for disposal of sewage by subsurface means?
clay
166
What step listed below must be done in order to obtain reproducible results in the soil perc test?
#REF!
167
Which is correct regarding septic tanks?
they will slow down the flow rate so that solids can be settled out
168
Detention time for septic tanks should be not less than
24 hours
169
How often should residential septic tanks be inspected?
annually
170
Which should not be added to septic tanks?
#REF!
171
Which statement is true in regards to outlets and inlets on distributions boxes in sewage disposal systems?
inlet must be 6 inches higher than outlet
172
Which of the following is not a factor in the satisfactory operation of a septic tank/sand filter system?
ratio of septic tank size to sand filter size
173
Which method is most common method of applying wastewater to land?
spray irrigation
174
Which gas is found in sewers but is not considered explosive?
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
175
What is considered to be the best single strength measure of wastewater polluted water containing degradable waste?
5-day BOD
176
Another name for a mature or balanced lake is __
mesotrophic
177
Name the three zones of stream pollution, in order of normal chain of events.
degradation, decomposition, recovery
178
decomposition
degradation
179
What is permissible 8 hour threshold limit value for H2S?
20 ppm
180
What is the most important step in wastewater operations?
good housekeeping
181
Which would not be considered domestic sewage?
dairy cattle waste
182
Of the following, the one classified as a compound is:
ammonia
183
The scientific name of a certain microorganism is Clostridium perfringens. The second word of this name indicates the:
species
184
Imhoff tanks used for sewage disposal are primarily dependent upon the action of:
bacterial decomposition
185
In the environmental planning of a rural subdivision, what basic information would you utilize in determining if both individual water and sewage systems could be placed on each home site?
the size of the lot
186
Untreated surface disposal of residential sewage is most likely to be a cause of:
hepatitis
187
The 5-day BOD test should be performed when:
conducting a series of tests to determine the degree of water pollution
188
The soil profile of a site refers to the:
side view of the face of the soil horizon
189
BOD is a measure of the biodegradeable organic content of a water sample. It is necessary to dill the bottle completely full and not have any air bubbles in the sample in order to:
prevent additional oxygen from diffusing into the sample
190
Samples for BOD analysis should be:
refrigerated and analyzed within hours
191
To prove in court that a septic tank is polluting a stream, the best evidence is to show that:
dye placed in the septic tank appears in the stream
192
When sewage treatment lagoons are excavated from fractured rock such as slate or shale, there is a danger that if sewage is stored in these lagoons, the sewage may:
flow untreated through the rock fractures and contaminate aquifers
193
The best single measure of polluted water is:
5 day BOD
194
A septic tank is used to:
slow down the movement of raw sewage
195
The principal purpose of a trap used in connection with a plumbing fixture is to:
prevent the entrance of sewer air & foul gases into the house through the fixture
196
Hydrogen sulfide is fatal at what concentration?
300 ppm
197
The objective(s) in pest control should be
integrated pest management involving the use of a combination of educational, cultural, biological, physical, chemical and legal measures, as appropriate
198
Bacteria may be carried in the digestive system of the housefly for as long as
4 weeks
199
Pediculosis is an infestation of
lice
200
Wasps are usually attracted to
#REF!
201
The smallest diameter hole through which an average house mouse can pass is
1/2 inch
202
An example of a single dose rodenticide is
red squill
203
The key to an effective, long-term, rodent control program is
community sanitation
204
A female rat becomes sexually mature in
2 to 3 months
205
A single pair of rats are capable of producing __ litters of young per year
4 to 7
206
A pigeon control program to eliminate nesting places should be preceded by
ectoparasite control
207
Bat-proofing should be done in the __ , when bats are hibernating in caves
late fall through winter
208
The best preventive measure for poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac is
recognition of the plant and its avoidance
209
The symptoms from contact with poison ivy, oak and sumac normally appear after
a few hours to 7 days
210
Hay fever is correctly referred to as
pollenosis
211
Concentrations of less than __ pollen grains/m3 of air in a 24-hour period usually do not produce allergic reactions
33
212
Most ragweed pollen grains settle to the ground within about
200 feet of their source
213
Which of the following has been proven to be most effective for controlling ragweed?
2, 4-D
214
The World Health Organization considers DDT irreplaceable in public health at the present time for control of the some of the most important vector-borne diseases of humans.
TRUE
215
In accordance with Food Additive Regulations, a pesticide added intentionally or incidentally to a processed food is considered an additive.
TRUE
216
Blackflies are disease vectors for onchocerciasis.
TRUE
217
Rats have an extremely keen sense of sight but very poor taste and smelling ability.
FALSE
218
The rabies virus may be contracted from the aerosol of an infected animal's urine, entering through the nose or mouth.
TRUE
219
The best time to apply a herbicide is in the late spring or early summer when plant growth and development is taking place.
TRUE
220
The most widespread cockroach pest in restaurants is
German
221
Roaches are capable of spreading:
salmonellosis
222
What is the most important aspect in controlling roaches
maintaining food general sanitation
223
Pesticides used in cockroach control:
cannot overcome good sanitation
224
Flies generally spread disease by
mechanical transmission
225
Mosquitoes have been known to spread:
encephalitis
226
The mosquito genus responsible for the transmission of malaria is:
anopheles
227
Two insect parasites of rodents which transmit disease to man are
flea and louse
228
A rodent sign which would best indicate a current infestation with a number of rats would be:
soft, dark rat dropping ranging in size from 3/8 inch to 3/4 inch
229
Pyrethrum is an important insecticide because:
it is not toxic to humans
230
Why is it a good practice to paint 6 inch wide white lines along walls inside a warehouse?
a. aids in detection of insects, b. aids in detection of rodents, c. serves as a reminder not to stock material next to the wall
231
Of the following, which is not ordinarily used as a rodenticide?
methoxychlor
232
The one of the following that is not ordinarily considered to be transmitted by an insect?
tetanus
233
The insect infestation on humans known as pediculosis is caused by
lice
234
The most prevalent arthropod-borne disease transmitted to humans in the US today is:
encephalitis
235
Scabies is an infectious disease of the skin caused by:
mites
236
Which is not considered a single dose rodenticide?
warfarin
237
Who establishes tolerance levels of pesticides?
EPA
238
Under FIFRA, all pesticides must be classified by what manner?
restricted use or general use
239
Mosquitoes are responsible for all except
Q fever
240
The primary method of eliminating house flies is
application of sanitary practices
241
What is the best method for eliminating rats?
starve the rats by removing food and water sources
242
Why are anit-coagulant type rodenticides coated with paraffin?
prevent decomposition of poison by rain moisture
243
Which method of mosquito control is not very effective for nuisance prevention?
residual spray
244
The one of the following diseases which is caused by a virus
encephalitis
245
The one of the following diseases in which rats don't act as the intermediate hosts is
amoebic dysentery
246
In rodent control, the primary method of producing permanent results is:
proofing
247
The one of the following which is ordinarily not used as a fumigant:
phosphorus pentoxide
248
The most effective measures for mosquito control are dependent upon the:
elimination of breeding places
249
The one of the following that is not ordinarily transmitted by an insect:
tetanus
250
The variety of rat most common in the US in urban environments is:
brown rat
251
Eradication of mosquitoes and ticks would have no effect on epidemic of:
infectious hepatitis
252
The disease most likely to be transmitted to restaurant customers as a result of the presence of rats in the food prep area is:
salmonellosis
253
A rodenticide which is also an emetic is:
red squill
254
Which of the following blood-feeding insects afflicts people engaged in outdoor activities and has larvae which develop while attached to rocks or other surfaces in fast moving streams?
mosquito
255
Which is not another name for the Norway Rat (rattus norvegicus)?
black
256
What method is most effective to eliminate pigeons?
remove sources of food, water and harborage
257
Which would be a plant-derived organic pesticide?
rotenone
258
What is the inherent capacity of a pesticide to produce injury or death?
toxicity
259
Lasso is the trademarks for
alachlor
260
Under which conditions would a pesticide operator wear a respirator?
#REF!
261
The establishment number can be found on a pesticide container and it indicates:
the factory that produced the pesticide
262
Which disease is the result of a tick bite?
Q fever
263
Chaga's disease is also known as
trypanosomiasis
264
Weil's disease is also known as:
leptospirosis
265
Which disease can be transmitted by birds?
b and c above
266
What is the most common form of malaria?
plasmodium vivax
267
Most pesticide deaths in children and adults in the US are due to
inhalation
268
The most common route of pesticide entry into the body is:
ingestion
269
Which is not an organophosphate pesticide?
lindane
270
In the event of a toxic spill, what is the first thing to be done?
evacuate all unnecessary personnel
271
What is the most important step in the use of pesticides?
read the label
272
All are anti-coagulant type rodenticides except"
surflan
273
What etiologic agent for malaria is most fatal to man?
plasmodium falciparum
274
Toxicity is determined by a laboratory procedure called the
toxicity characteristic leaching procedure
275
The regulatory level for benzene under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is
0.50 mg/l
276
Information and advice on what to do with hazardous waste when spilled in a transportation accident is available 24 hours a day from the
Chemical Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)
277
In 1984, RCRA was amended to require __ or the equivalent, at hazardous waste landfills.
double liners
278
Toxicity priority pollutants include
#REF!
279
The goal for hazardous waste management should be
zero discharge
280
Which of the following is not an option for hazardous waste minimization?
increase production
281
Heating of air, gas or gas mixture up to 9032F (5000C) for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called
Plasma pyrolysis technology
282
The disposal of equipment and other materials containing PCBs
will remain for a long time
283
Sources of dioxin include
#REF!
284
It can be assumed that all hazardous waste landfill liners
will eventually leak
285
PCB waste collected from households is exempt from disposal regulations.
FALSE
286
Funding for the collection, storage and disposal of household hazardous waste always come directly from the individuals who generate the waste.
FALSE
287
Household hazardous waste disposal bids should be evaluated solely on the basis of price.
FALSE
288
A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.
TRUE
289
Sylvatic plaque:
is the name given to an infection in wild rodents of Pasturella pestis
290
Which of the following disease is not insect-borne:
diphtheria
291
Endemic typhus is spread by the:
flea
292
Which of the following is unlike the rest, regarding epidemiology?
rabies
293
An arthropod-borne disease is spread by:
insects
294
Eastern equine encephalitis is
a viral disease
295
Which of the following statements is not true about poliomyelitis
paralytic type of polio is often due to the bite of the wood tick
296
The disease that is common to stone age spearhead markers, hard rock miners and sand blast operators is:
silicosis
297
Which of the following diseases is not related to rodents in its transmission to man:
yellow fever
298
Which of the following is not related to enchinococcosis:
cats
299
The infection reservoir for arthropod-borne viral encephalitis is general accepted to be:
birds
300
The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is called:
tertiary prevention
301
In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with
skunks
302
An infected organism which does not experience symptoms during the spread of an illness is called a
carrier
303
Soil moisture of about __ % of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens
20-Oct
304
Which is not a primary source for Giardia lamblia cysts?
roaches
305
Which animal is the primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus
deer mice
306
A factor or agent which increases the risk of cancer is known as a
carcinogen
307
As of 1975, the diseases which caused 2/3's of the deaths in the US included all but which of the following?
influenza
308
The goal of environmental health programs should be
#REF!
309
A major process for the prevention of respiratory disease of susceptible persons is
education
310
Asbestosis is caused by fine silicate fibers retained in the
lungs
311
The primary health problems of developing countries are
communicable disease and malnutrition
312
Disease is considered the antithesis of health, defined as "a state of physical, mental and social well-being and ability to function, and not merely the absence of illness or infirmity."
TRUE
313
It is believed that the ingestion of one virus CFU can cause infection in humans.
TRUE
314
It is estimated that less than 62% of water and foodborne diseases are not reported.
TRUE
315
Any person bitten by a bat should receive antirabies therapy unless the bat is caught and found to be negative for the rabies virus.
TRUE
316
Which amendment of the US Constitution protects a nonpublic area from unreasonable searches and seizures?
IV
317
___ is the failure to perform an official duty without sufficient excuse.
nonfeasance
318
An example of __ is closing down an establishment without first giving a required statutory notice.
misfeasance
319
__ is the doing of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner.
misfeasance
320
If permitted under existing laws, which of the following would be an effective technique for ceasing operation of an establishment?
revoking a license
321
The random inspection approach
fails to focus on recurring problem establishments
322
Environmental health regulatory staff must be __ first and foremost.
educators
323
When an order has been ignored, the next step is to
hold an administrative hearing
324
The legal authority to conduct a routine environmental health inspection:
delegated by the legislature
325
When a business authority refuses consent to an inspection, the most appropriate action is to:
return later with an inspection warrant obtained through an appropriate court
326
An individual's right to be treated with a least a minimum of decency and fairness by governmental officials is guaranteed by the provision of:
due process
327
In planning and implementing an environmental health investigation it is necessary to follow explicit procedure in an ordinance because:
such action is required by due process
328
At a trial, the technical person called as a witness should:
answer all questions truthfully and directly
329
Which of the following is generally most useful as legal evidence:
original field notes
330
A correct statement about police power is that it:
is a plenary and inherent attribute of sovereign governments
331
According to the Freedom of Information Act, all of the following information must be available to the public except:
medical records of personnel
332
A warrant to conduct routine inspection of a private dwelling should be obtained only:
After consent has been refused
333
An inspector's choice of embargo, seizure or condemnation should be based on:
Statutory authority and immediacy of risk
334
Following an inspection and the written report and prior to leaving the site, it is desirable to:
Meet with management and discuss the significance of the items
335
If a health official failed to close a restaurant known to have imminent health dangers this is:
Nonfeasance
336
The term applied to certain incorporated towns or cities in which the state constitution or legislature gives them the right to formulate and adopt city charters and regulate their own affairs is:
Home rule
337
What is the term given to organization wherein lines of authority and responsibility run upward and downward through several levels with a broad functional base at the bottom and a single executive head at the top?
Scalar process
338
A license can be revoked for all reasons except:
Conviction of a crime not related to intended purpose of license
339
What is the most important means of enforcement of the Federal Food Drug & Cosmetic Act?
Embargo
340
If a health official finds a nuisance while doing an inspection what is the most simple and practical method to correct the situation?
Have the owner correct the situation
341
In order to achieve a conviction for failure to obey a violation order, which conditions must be satisfied?
#REF!
342
An inspection of a premise can lawfully be made in all of the following situations except:
When refused admission
343
A householder says to an inspector, "Go ahead and do your dumb inspection. You'll get in here somehow anyway." May the inspector perform the inspection?
Yes, because consent, however reluctant, has been given
344
Police power
Is almost exclusively left to individual States to establish and enforce laws for the citizen welfare
345
Which of the following is not characteristic of a license or permit:
Is a semi-voluntary device to carry on his or her occupation with government approval
346
In legal terminology the power of condemnation is also known as:
Eminent domain
347
When is the sanitarian required to obtain a search warrant before entering and searching the kitchen of a restaurant?
When the owner has refused entry on this occasion
348
Environmental Impact Statements are required by which federal act?
National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
349
Under negligence law, the sanitarian owes the public a duty:
To act as reasonable person
350
A comprehensive inspection of an establishment when it is first brought under departmental control is a(n) __ or __ inspection.
Initial, complete
351
Environmental health technicians=assignments differ from environmental health scientists' or sanitarians' assignments in that __.
Technicians are not required to resolve problems that require the application of new methods and techniques or those that require action beyond the specific work assignment
352
Sanitarians, environmental health scientists and other environmental specialists must obtain which of the following minimum educational requirements?
A baccalaureate degree
353
The __ inspections are annual or scheduled inspections to determine compliancewith laws, codes, rules and regulations.
Routine
354
Administrative hearings can be useful because
#REF!
355
What should be done after the project is an ongoing program?
Reevaluate goals and objectives; refine program
356
If properly installed, one of the best floorings for kitchens, dairies, bakeries and similar places is
ceramic tile
357
Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in
10 to 15 minutes at 230F
358
Thawing a 16-pound turkey at 40F will take a period of __ days?
about 3 days
359
The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk shipped in interstate commerce is
0.5 ppb
360
Beef usually spoils first
on the surface
361
Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in Cheddar cheese?
Salmonella ssp
362
Which food has the highest acceptable plate count of E coli?
cheese
363
Dry stored goods should be stored off the floor at least __ to prevent their contamination.
6 inches
364
Practically all foods, whether canned, pickled, cured or dried
deteriorate upon storage
365
The quality of milk reaching the ultimate consumer is largely determined
at the farm, where the milk is processed
366
Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of
200 mg/l
367
When disinfecting rubber valves and other parts of milking equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ or a strong chlorine solution of ______ strength can be used instead.
180 to 190F, 200 mg/l
368
In case of emergency, raw milk may be rendered safe for drinking if __ and then immediately cooled.
heated in a water bath to a temperature of 165F
369
The pipeline milker
requires special attention to ensure its sanitary condition
370
Milk is considered pasteurized by the Federal Drug Administration if it reaches
#REF!
371
Listeriosis is a
serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes
372
Which of the following foods are not at high risk for transmitting listeriosis?
potato chips
373
Which group of the following bacteria typically contains most of the pathogenic bacteria?
mesophilic
374
Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting our waterways from contamination?
EPA
375
Shucked shellfish must be stored at __ or less.
40F
376
When the internal temperatures of perishable foods is 40F, growth of which of the following is inhibited?
a. Salmonellae, b. Staphylococci
377
A freezer unit for frozen food should maintain temperatures of __ or below.
0F
378
To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, __ of 5.25 percent bleach with one gallon of water should be used.
0.25 oz
379
The final rinse water temperature of a heat sanitizing warewashing machine should cause the surface of the dishes and utensils to reach which temp?
160F
380
Which of the following is not a step in proper machine dishwashing?
cloth dry
381
The estimated number of Americans who have suffered full or partial hearing loss as a result of excessive exposure to noise is:
10 million
382
Most concerns about noise as pollutant have focused on the:
worksite
383
The noise most frequently considered as annoying by community residents is from:
vehicles
384
In general, noise levels are directly related to the:
population density
385
The major source of excessive community noise is:
airports
386
Which one of the following sources of noise has been declining slightly in recent years?
automobile
387
A given individual will most easily tolerate noise when:
the source of the noise is from construction
388
Which one of the following is considered by many to be the most insidious type of pollution?
noise
389
The louder the sound, the greater the:
amplitude
390
The measure that is used to determine the loudness of a sound is:
decibel
391
Maximum sensitivity to sound for humans is in the range of
1000-5000 cps
392
It is estimated that the number of Americans who are exposed daily to noise that has the potential to damage their hearing is:
20 million
393
Hearing loss that lasts a few hours following exposure to excessive noise is referred to as:
temporary threshold shift
394
Slight, irreversible hearing loss may result for many people, from daily exposure over an 8 hour period of time to sound averaging:
85 dB
395
The amount of time required to produce permanent damage to hearing is cut in half with an increase in sound of
5 dB
396
The first type of hearing sensitivity to become damaged as a result of excessive noise exposure is sensitivity to:
high frequencies
397
Loss of hearing to the extent that low frequency sounds are distorted or can't be heard is considered:
sensorineural loss
398
Hearing loss that results from infectious or trauma is called:
conductive loss
399
By age 65 the number of Americans who experience hearing loss sufficient to affect communication is:
1 in 4
400
Age-related hearing loss is referred to as:
presbycusis
401
A constant buzzing or ringing in the ears is called:
tinnitus
402
The hearing ability of a fetus is well-developed by the:
28th week of gestation
403
Which one of the following seems to have the most impact on a child's reading skills?
noisy home environment
404
Which one of the following statements is false?
noise affects the quantity of work done
405
Which one of the following statements is true?
adults are wakened by noise more easily than children
406
The first national law in the United States Designed to deal with noise was the:
Noise Control Act
407
The Act that authorized the Environmental Protection Agency to work in partnership with state and local governments in the area of anti-noise programs was the:
Quiet Communities Act
408
Which component of clean, dry air has the smallest volume?
Sulfur dioxide
409
Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angeles and London type smog, along with what two pollutants?
Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride
410
Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with
High motor vehicle traffic
411
What type of air pollution causes loss of chlorophyll in plants?
PAN
412
Injury to plants due to __ shows up as flecks, stipple and bleaching, tip burns on conifers and growth suppression.
Ozone
413
Have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation.
Fluorides
414
Animals are primarily affected by the pollutants in the air
Through ingesting vegetation
415
What size particles can reach the lowest parts of the lung?
3 microns
416
Emissions which find their way into the ambient air without being vented through a stack are known as
Fugitive emissions
417
How are total suspended particles measured?
Collection and weighing
418
Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2 to 3 microns in size on
High volume samplers
419
The Ringlemann chart method of evaluating particle pollution in the atmosphere is being replaced by a determination of the
Percent opacity
420
Which of the following are examples of short-range primary pollutants?
Total suspended solids and sulfur dioxide
421
Which of the following inversions develops at night under conditions of relatively clear skies and very light winds?
Radiational inversion
422
The information needed to use an air quality model includes
Meteorological data, pollutant concentration data and source emission data
423
The pitch of a sound is determined primarily by
Frequency
424
The distance that a sound wave travels in one cycle or period is the
Wavelengths of the sound
425
For workers, a sound level above __ dBA should be considered unsafe for daily exposure over a period of months.
90
426
Chlorofluorocarbons increase the amount of ozone in atmosphere.
TRUE
427
Bacteria and spores are considered natural sources of air pollution.
TRUE
428
A sampling train is a device used to measured emissions from locomotives.
FALSE
429
The United States Environmental Protection Agency has the sole responsibility for implementing "The Noise Control Act of 1971".
FALSE
430
FCs are widely used because of their
Chemical stability
431
The Montreal Protocol agrees to control the
Use of all ozone depleting chemicals or substances
432
Methyl bromide is used primarily as a
Pesticide
433
The "Ozone Hole" was first noticed in
Antarctica
434
The Safe New Alternatives Policy program (SNAP)
Specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances
435
A major effect of stratospheric ozone layer depletion is
Increase in incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer
436
When absorbed daytime heat is radiated quickly into space and the temperature of surface air drops below that of the air above it, the condition is referred to as:
Radiation inversion
437
Which one of the following is the major source of air pollution in the United States?
Automotive vehicles
438
All of the following are criteria pollutants except:
Carbon dioxide
439
Acid condensates, dust, soot and smoke are considered:
Particulate matter
440
The most dangerous of the particulate air pollutants in terms of human health are:
Aerosols
441
National Ambient Air Quality Standards have been set for all of the following except:
Carbon dioxides
442
The major source of sulfur dioxides is:
Fuel combustion
443
One of the main precursors of acid rain is:
Sulfur dioxide
444
Which one of the following is generally found at the highest concentrations in urban atmospheres?
Carbon monoxide
445
Which one of the following is most dangerous to humans who have heart problems?
Carbon monoxide
446
Which one of the following has been implicated in many rush-hour traffic accidents?
Carbon monoxide poisoning
447
The only criteria gas that is colored is:
Nitrogen dioxide
448
The major constituent of the photochemical oxidants is:
Ozone
449
The chemical used as a measure of the oxidant level of the atmosphere at any given time is:
Ozone
450
Which one of the following crops would probably be least affected by air pollution?
Potatoes
451
The pollutant that would most likely cause the most damage to the nervous system would be:
Lead
452
Which one of the following is most hazardous to human health?
Asbestos
453
The Emergency Planning and Community-Right-to-Know Act was prompted by the accident at:
Chernobyl
454
The greatest number of casualties as the result of air pollution occurred in:
Meuse River Valley, Belgium
455
The first major recorded episode of air pollution that produced human casualties occurred in:
Donora, PA
456
Perhaps the major weakness of using animal studies to determine "safe" level of air pollutants is:
Difficulty in extrapolating the results to humans
457
The major effects of air pollution on human health deal with:
Respiratory problems
458
Pollutants in the ambient air most associated with heightened risk of death and disease are:
Particulate
459
High level of particulate air pollution have been associated with all of the following except:
Skin cancer
460
Which one of the following has not been associated with slowing or halting respiratory tract cilia movement?
Carbon dioxide
461
Inhalation of which one of the following may result in chronic airway resistance?
Sulfur dioxide
462
In the United States the first federal attempt to regulate pollutant emissions was enacted in:
1955
463
Which one of the following gave the federal government a modest degree of authority to attack interstate air pollution problems?
Clean Air Act
464
The first emission standards for automobiles dealt with emission of?
hydrocarbons
465
Regulations regarding automobile emission standards began with automobiles manufactured in:
1968
466
A problem associated with passage of federal air control standards was:
They relied on voluntary compliance by states
467
Earth Day began in:
1970
468
The legal precedents that form the basis of US air quality control regulations currently in effect began with the:
Clean Air Act Amendments of 1970
469
The Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 did all of the following except:
Reauthorize funding for the EPA
470
Setting levels of pollutants that are intended to safeguard human health yet allow a margin of safety to protect more vulnerable segments of the population are called:
Primary standards
471
Parts of the country that fail to bring their pollution levels into compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards are called:
Non-attainment areas
472
Perhaps the most difficult of the pollutants to control is:
ozone
473
Standards designed to promote human welfare by protecting agriculture crops, livestock, property and the environment in general are called:
Secondary standards
474
Catalytic converters work to reduce all of the following except:
Carbon dioxide
475
The first state to implement a motor vehicle inspection and maintenance program was:
New Jersey
476
In order to implement and enforce federal Clean Air Act requirements, states must:
Develop state implementation plans
477
A major problem that is thwarting efforts to clean up the air is:
Lack of routine air quality monitoring in developing nations
478
According to the World Health Organization, approximately what percentage of the world's population breathes air that contains health-threatening levels of particulate?
70
479
The only country in the world to compensate victims of air pollution is:
Japan
480
Which area of the United States is projected to be most heavily affected by stricter air quality regulations:
Los Angeles
481
By nature, unpolluted rainfall:
Has a pH of between 5.0 and 5.6
482
Acid Rain was first identified in:
England
483
In terms of avoiding acid rainfall, in which of the areas would it be best to live?
Southern tip of Florida
484
The majority of sulfur dioxide originated from:
Coal and oil burning power plants
485
The majority of nitrogen oxide originates from:
Motor vehicles
486
The reason acid rainfall is a politically-charged issue is:
Pollutant emissions involved may be produced many miles from regions suffering the effects
487
The strategy most often used to solve sulfur dioxide emissions in close proximity to the plant that produces the emission is:
Building tall stacks to direct the emission upward
488
The sensitivity of an ecosystem to acid precipitation is largely determined by the areas's:
Buffering capacity
489
Which one of the following areas of the United States would be most sensitive to acid precipaitation?
New England
490
When a body of water becomes acidified, the first aquatic species to disappear are generally:
Freshwater shrimp
491
The primary reason for fish disappearing from bodies of water becoming acidified is:
Their reproductive cycle is disrupted
492
Shock loading refers to:
Several months' accumulation of acid quickly melting into a spawning area
493
Which one of the following metals is most fatal to fish when it becomes dissolved in acid waters?
Aluminum
494
Mobilization of metals in acid water becomes a direct threat to human health when:
The acidified water is a source of drinking water
495
Which one of the following is most affected by acid rain?
Conifer forests at high elevations
496
Which one of the following is the most common "technological fix" for reduction of sulfur dioxide emissions?
Stack gas scrubbers
497
The concept of utility companies brokering government-assigned allowances for sulfur dioxide emission is called:
Cap & trade
498
At the top of the US Environmental Protection Agencies list of the 18 top cancer risks is:
Indoor air pollution
499
The indoor air pollution problem may have worsened as the result of all of the following except:
Increased outside air-exchange
500
The highest home radon concentration levels are most likely to be found in:
Basements
