501-1000 Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Question
A
Answer
2
Q
Modern furnace walls are usually lined with
A
tile or have water walls
3
Q
Biological safety equipment includes
A
a. biosafety cabinets, c. personal protective equipment
4
Q
Office space should provide at least ______ per minute per occupant of clean outside air at minimum where smoking is not prohibited.
A
20 ft3
5
Q
Regulation of bloodborne pathogens is promulgated by
A
OSHA
6
Q
The Medical Waste Tracking Act of 1988, which amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act, required ______ to establish a two year demonstration program for tracking medical waste in selected states.
A
EPA
7
Q
Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds
A
60 percent
8
Q
A biohazard is
A
a material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to humans or their environment
9
Q
To prevent chimney backdrafts, the chimney must be constructed ______ inches above the highest point of the roof at a minimum.
A
24 inches
10
Q
Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers and
A
indirect waste piping
11
Q
The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure to infectious agents by good microbiological technique and safety equipment is called
A
primary containment
12
Q
In unsewered areas, the responsibility for water and sewer for new subdivisions is assigned to the
A
developer
13
Q
Which of the following are not typically members of the infection control committee
A
hospital CEO
14
Q
Mobile homes have been in general production since
A
1954
15
Q
The reasons for nosocomial infections in hospitals, and nursing homes are
A
REF!
16
Q
The drain line of an ice machine should connect to the sewer system through
A
an open receptacle with an air gap
17
Q
Most urban dwellers spend what percent of their total time indoors
A
80 to 90 percent
18
Q
Which of the following is the primary cause of indoor air quality problems?
A
inadequate ventilation
19
Q
Minimum APHA-PHS standards for housing include
A
running water piped in
20
Q
The high moisture content of combustion vent gases create
A
acids which eat away at the mortar in the chimney
21
Q
Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in
A
hospitals
22
Q
Universal precautions refer to
A
an infection control measure in which all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious
23
Q
Minimum wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is
A
160 to 167 degrees F
24
Q
The development and maintenance of an exposure control plan is one requirement of
A
OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens regulations
25
Those laboratory activities that may result in personnel exposure to aerosols may result in
increased containment
26
Exposure to formaldehyde can cause
#REF!
27
Lead poisoning is commonly associated with children living in homes built before
1970
28
Vent gases combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form
sulfuric acid
29
Which or the following are the most frequent disease transmission routes in child day care centers?
#REF!
30
Radon is detected in a home through measurment of
alpha particles
31
The major potential entry sources of radon are
#REF!
32
The appointment and maintenance of an Institutional Biosafety Committee (IBC) is one of the requirements of
NIH
33
The Muerto Canyon virus causes disease of the ______ in humans.
lungs
34
A class II biological safety cabinet (BSC) is designed to protect
#REF!
35
In the APHA-PHS Recommended Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Ordinance, the responsibility of storing and disposing of all rubbish is assigned to the
owner and occupant jointly
36
Laboratories working with infectious agents in a properly controlled setting have been shown to
represent no threat to the community
37
Herpesvirus simiae (B-virus) is naturally occurring in certain species of monkeys namely the macaque. The highest risk of humans acquiring this virus is from
the bite of a macaque
38
The air gap between the end of the faucet and the overflow rim of the sink should be ______ times the diameter of the supply pipe.
1 1/2
39
Muerto Canyon virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by
deer mice
40
A clean bench should be considered for use
only when there is no possible risk to personnel
41
Biological safety cabinets should be performance tested every
1 year
42
The biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment is
biosafety level 2
43
The housefly consumes only liquids, and therefore, must transform all other substances to the liquid state before digestion.
TRUE
44
The poison of poison ivy, oak, and sumac is an oleoresin that is found in all parts of the plant except the
wood
45
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is transmitted by
dog ticks
46
For a pesticide to be permitted for application on a raw agricultural food or feed, the residue must exceed the tolerance established for the product by the Department of Health and Human Services under the conditions of use.
FALSE
47
Psittacosis/Ornithosis is spread by
pigeons
48
Malaria prevention programs have been losing their effectiveness in many countries mainly because of
a. inadequate funding and research, b. adaption of mosquitoes to new environments, c. resistance to certain insecticides and resistance of Plasmodium falciparum parasites to drugs used to prevent and treat malarial infections
49
DDT has been banned for use in all countries except parts of Africa, Sweden, Great Britain, and all South American Countries.
FALSE
50
Rattus norvegicus is also referred to as the
#REF!
51
The most practical way to control hay fever is to
treat the patient
52
Lice require human blood to live.
TRUE
53
Black flies are disease vectors for onchocerciasis.
TRUE
54
Vector-borne encephalitidies are not communicable directly from person to person, but only by the bite of infected mosquitoes.
TRUE
55
Bats are threat to humans because they carry
rabies
56
A pesticide that ______ is referred to as a "Restricted Classification" pesticide and is generally not available to the homeowner.
#REF!
57
In order to control rats at open dumps, a poison-bait application program should be started ______ before a site is abandoned or converted and before earthmoving equipment is brought to the site.
2 weeks
58
A "chigger" is the larval stage of a type of
mite
59
The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act
#REF!
60
The female and male mosquito feed only on the blood of humans and animals.
FALSE
61
The first step in a rat control program is
a community survey
62
The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones are
spring and fall
63
The prime feeding time of the Anopheles mosquito is usually around midday.
FALSE
64
Items such as tennis balls, golf balls, gloves, and auto tires that come into contact with poison ivy, oak, and sumac may spread the poison as well as physical contact with the plants.
TRUE
65
Yellow jackets usually build their nests below the ground.
TRUE
66
Rattus Rattus is also referred to as the
roof rat
67
Some of the main sources of pollen are trees in the summer, grasses in the spring, and weeds in the winter.
FALSE
68
Relief from hay fever may be obtained by
#REF!
69
An example of an anticoagulant rodenticide is
warfarin
70
Sodium fluoroacetate, also known as "1080," is the most effective fast-acting rodenticide available for use throughout the United States.
FALSE
71
Wasps are usually attracted to
#REF!
72
Vector-borne encephalitidies have replaced malaria as the major mosquito-borne disease in North America.
TRUE
73
The poison found in poison ivy, oak, and sumac is extremely volatile.
FALSE
74
Burning off poisonous plants is not advisable because smoke will carry particles long distances and spread the infection.
TRUE
75
Bat-proofing should not be conducted from May through August because baby bats can be trapped inside.
TRUE
76
Hormone or growth regulators also known as systematic herbicides are toxic to the plant living cells they cover and are usually absorbed through the stem of the plant upon contact.
FALSE
77
Bat-proofing should be done in the ______, when bats are hibernating in caves.
midautumn through spring
78
An effective pest management and weed control program focuses on the
integration of a combination of methods
79
A mature ragweed plant can produce up to ______ pollen grains in one season
1 billion
80
In general, there are three kinds of weeds. These are
annuals, biennials, and perennials
81
When first considering the control of houseflies, roaches, and rats, the primary emphasis should be on
basic community environmental sanitation to eliminate the conditions that make possible their survival and reproduction
82
An adult rat requires approximately ______ of food per day.
1 ounce
83
The Norway rat has a normal home range of
100 to 150 feet
84
Bats serve a useful purpose by keeping down the number of insects.
TRUE
85
Rodents are the primary reservoir/host of the hantavirus. In particular, ______ appears to be the primary reservoir for hantavirus, which was first recognized in 1993 in the southeastern United States.
deer mouse
86
The full potential of naturalistic and source-reduction measures should be applied before considering chemical means for controlling arthropods, rodents, and weeds.
TRUE
87
______ is an infectious disease of the skin caused by burrowing of the female mite into the skin where it deposits its eggs.
scabies
88
Because the pesticides lindane and malathion do not stain they are excellent liquid insecticide sprays to use for controlling bedbugs in mattresses or other bedding.
FALSE
89
Storage of clothing, bedding, and any other lice infested items for at least ______ will cause the lice to die of starvation.
2 weeks
90
Soil sterilants are a type of herbicide which are
absorbed by the plant root system
91
The best preventive measure for poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac is
#REF!
92
Which of the following is not a condition that encourages the growth of weeds?
none of the above
93
It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than __________ of harsh temperature extremes.
2 years
94
Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by
a zone of degradation
95
A lump of soil with good characteristics will break apart with little pressure along definite cleavage plains and should be blue or grayish in color.
FALSE
96
When storm water and domestic sewage enter the same sewer it is known as a
combined sewer
97
The recommended maximum length of the system materials for a gravity flow absorption field is 75 feet.
TRUE
98
If the septic tank will have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it
the size of the tank should be increased 50 percent
99
The recommended backfill over the absorption field is 8 to12 inches.
TRUE
100
The plans for an area to be sewered should
#REF!
101
The detention time for wastewater in a septic tank is recommended to be
24 to 72 hours
102
A storm sewer is used to
remove rain other standing surface water
103
What is the most common method of applying wastewater to land?
spray irrigation
104
Brine from water softening units as low as ______ may inhibit bacterial action in septic tanks.
1.2 percent
105
Each water quality class has a ______ standard established.
#REF!
106
Trickling filters can remove 90 to 95 percent of the __________ found in soil, water, and wastewater.
#REF!
107
Grease traps are installed for the purpose of minimizing grease in the sewer system. The trap
is not of proven value in many commercial applications
108
The use of a cesspool is prohibited due to
greater potential for groundwater contamination
109
Chlorination of untreated wastewater is typically NOT an effective treatment for
#REF!
110
The permeability of soil is directly related to the __________ of the soil.
#REF!
111
After a septic tank has been cleaned, it should not be scrubbed and disinfected. Why?
a. the sludge sticking to the insides would have a seeding effect and assist in renewing the bacterial activity, c. it would be considered a safety hazard
112
The amount of dissolved oxygen required in aerobic bacterial decomposition, measured in ppm or mg/l and used in determining the strength of wastewater is
biochemical oxygen demand
113
The septic tank functions as a
#REF!
114
Facultative bacteria can
live under both aerobic and anaerobic condition
115
While it is arguably preferable to conduct a soil analysis for sizing absorption fields percolation tests are sometimes used. In order to obtain reproducible results with a soil percolation test, it is very important to:
soak the hole with water before the test is made
116
Ozone disinfection has many advantages. Which of the following is NOT true?
ozone is approximately equal in cost to chlorine
117
Loam is composed of which of the following?
#REF!
118
Sludge accumulation in a tank serving a normal home has been estimated at
18 to 21 gals. per person per year
119
The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) prohibits the discharge of pollutants into U.S. waters unless a permit is issued by
a. EPA, b. the State
120
Plants employing trickling filters, activated sludge, and spray irrigation present a possible health hazard to their employees due to
inhalation of airborne microorganisms
121
Common causes of failure of septic tank seepage field systems include improper sizing, nonsuitable soil, nonservicing, and
leaking fixtures
122
The wastewater from a toilet or latrine flushing is referred to as
black water
123
Sewer gas may contain
#REF!
124
The reliability and interpretation of the soil percolation test are affected by all of the following except
shape of the test hole
125
Which of the following is not true concerning sewage and disease hazards?
entamoeba histolytica, hepatitis viruses, and giardia cysts are easily destroyed by normal chlorination of sewage
126
In the usage of septic-tank additives, which of the following compounds is not recommended?
#REF!
127
Sewage treatment plants should be designed for
the population at least 10 years in the future
128
The exposure of excreta or sewage on the surface of the ground sets the stage for disease transmission by both direct contact or
#REF!
129
After the absorption field has failed, which of the following will NOT correct or repair the field?
increase the water pressure
130
The examination of road cuts, stream embankments, and/or building excavations provides only marginal information about soils due to oxidation.
FALSE
131
A water leak no larger than 1/8 inch in diameter can result in a loss of up to:
400 gallons in 24 hours
132
The sand filter is used to
a. remove suspended solids from water - b. remove bacteria from water
133
The typical limitation of use of the septic tank absorption field system is due to
soil type and size requirements
134
Which of the following is an explosive component of sewer gas?
methane
135
The field distribution piping should be surrounded with ______ and at least 2 inches deep under the pipe.
washed gravel, 3/4 inches to 2 1/2 inches
136
The ability of the soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is called
permeability
137
Septage is best defined as
a. sludge, b. scum, c. gray water
138
Which of the following is typically used at a residential sewage treatment system with a surface discharge?
a. sodium hypochlorite, b. calcium hypochlorite
139
Soil containing loam will remove most of the phosphorus in sewage effluent.
TRUE
140
Low-pressure, vacuum and cluster systems may be used
#REF!
141
The volume of the dose from a properly sized dosing tank should be equal to:
60% of the volume of the lines dosed
142
The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and the
soil percolation test
143
The traditional absorption field should be laid in trenches not more than ______ below the ground surface.
24 inches
144
Yeast added to a new septic tank speeds up digestion by a factor of 2.7.
FALSE
145
The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the ground water table or rock is 62 inches.
FALSE
146
Which of the following is non-toxic to aquatic organisms, a good viricide, and adds oxygen to treated wastewater effluents?
ozone
147
Excreta typically is defined as containing
2000 million fecal coliform, 450 million fecal streptococci, and 400 billion E. coli per 100 to 200 grams
148
The degree of eutrophication of a lake is indicated by
#REF!
149
Human disease from aerosols of wastewater
is related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes
150
Chemical coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration remove
#REF!
151
Disinfection or chlorination of sewage effluent is
an added safeguard to reduce the risk of disease transmission where the probability exists
152
Which of the following are least important in reducing sewage to "soil," liquids, and gases?
anaerobic bacteria
153
The top of the absorption field gravel should be covered with
permeable material
154
A soil which is mottled brown and red would indicate
a tight soil probably due to a fluctuating water table or lack of aeration
155
Which of the following soils would be most suitable for subsurface absorption of wastewater
a yellow, brown, or red soil
156
A young lake is considered to be
oligotrophic
157
Sludge and scum accumulation, and the appearance of particles of solids in the effluent from a septic tank is an indication of what?
a septic tank in need of cleaning
158
The placement of the distribution box is not critical as long as it is water tight.
FALSE
159
The effectiveness of disinfection depends on
#REF!
160
The use of a serial distribution system is considered to have disadvantages over the use of distribution boxes.
FALSE
161
Any excavation in clay, loam, silt or sand more than ______ in depth should have side wall protection to prevent a cave-in.
4 feet
162
Loam is a mixture of gravel, sand, silt, and clay containing what?
decayed plant and animal matter
163
The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the
slow sand filter
164
In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using
tincture of iodine
165
A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by
water
166
Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the presence of coliform organisms in drinking water?
the drinking water should be considered unsanitary
167
In testing for residual chlorine, which of the following determines free available chlorine with minimal interference from combined chlorine, iron, nitrates, and nitrites?
DPD-colormetric method
168
Alkalinity of water is desirable at levels of
30 to 100 mg/l
169
Which of the following methods of backsiphonage prevention is least effective?
barometric loop
170
Which of the following chemicals is the most widely used to destroy microorganisms?
chlorine
171
The flushometer valve is typically protected by
a non-pressure-type vacuum breaker
172
Which of the following is not used to disinfect water?
fluorine
173
The geophysical methods used to identify and investigate the extent and characteristics of ground water pollution include
#REF!
174
Microscopic photosynthetic plants of the simplest forms, having neither roots, stems, nor leaves, that are associated with taste and odor, filter clogging, and other water problems are known as
algae
175
The control of corrosion in piping requires all of the following steps except
an increase in water velocity
176
Of the following, which is not a variable to be considered when deciding upon a safe distance between a well and a sewage disposal system?
the number of individuals utilizing the well
177
Cross-connections are frequent causes of disease resulting from
#REF!
178
Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. all surface water must be considered unsanitary unless given adequate treatment, c. when considering surface water as a water supply, the entire watershed must be surveyed
179
Control of infectious, intestinal diseases of humans requires
#REF!
180
Which of the following disinfecting compounds can be used full strength for disinfection?
sodium hypochlorite
181
A centrifugal pump is limited to use where the lift of the water is not in excess of
15 feet
182
The Langelier index is used to determine the point of stability of
calcium carbonate
183
Which of the following is used to properly seal a drilled well to prevent contamination of the water supply?
grouting
184
Granular activated carbon (GAC) filters are used to
#REF!
185
Ozone is effective against
#REF!
186
Which of the following is the more common and least expensive method of backflow control?
air gap separation
187
Which of the following is (are) fundamental to the control of inorganic chemicals in drinking water?
#REF!
188
Which of the following wells is considered the most dependable source of water and is less likely to become contaminated?
drilled well
189
Which of the following factors contributes to water hardness?
dissolved bicarbonates, sulfates, and/or chlorides of magnesium and calcium in groundwater
190
The gas causing the distinct "rotten egg" odor in many water sources is
hydrogen sulfide
191
What is desalination?
the conversion of seawater or brackish water to fresh water
192
Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in well systems?
boiling the water
193
Which of the following is not a primary consideration when locating a groundwater supply?
the distance that the water will need to travel
194
The sources of water supply are divided into which of the following major classifications?
groundwater and surface water
195
Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method or device to prevent backsiphonage?
cross-connections
196
The gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are
oxygen and carbon dioxide
197
Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through
sandy loam or clay
198
Water containing nitrates generally indicates
evidence of agricultural/previous pollution
199
Drinking water standards generally specify that a water is safe provided that testing in a specified manner does not reveal more than an average of
1 positive sample out of 40 samples taken
200
Hardness in drinking water is desirable at levels of
50 to 80 mg/l
201
Trihalomethanes are synthetic organic chemicals primarily created
during the pre-chlorination process
202
When considering water storage requirements, which of the following is not considered a recommended practice?
the retention time for the stored water should not be over 8 hours
203
All of the following will generally vary directly with the quantity of water used for domestic purposes except
amount of minerals in the water
204
Porosity is
a measure of the amount of water that can be held by a rock in its pores or voids, expressed as a percentage of the total volume
205
A sanitary survey of a water system is necessary for what reason?
to determine the safety and the adequacy of the water supply
206
It has been estimated that waterborne disease worldwide accounts for in excess of
250 million illnesses per year
207
Domestic community water system pumps should be of such capacity as to deliver the average daily water demanded to the storage tank in
6 to 12 hours
208
Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?
clostridium sporulates
209
Centrifugal pumps are of several types depending on the design of the
impeller
210
In sandy soil, sewage organisms can travel about
200 feet
211
Which of the following is not commonly used for disinfection of water?
silver nitrate
212
Barium is a muscle stimulant and in large quantities may be harmful to the nervous system and heart. The fatal dose is
550 to 600 mg
213
Which of the following compounds would not contribute to water hardness?
sodium chloride
214
One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is
failure to seal well casings properly
215
A jet pump will lift water a maximum of
120 feet
216
The quiescent settling of water such as would occur in a reservoir, lake or basin without the aid of chemicals is known as
plain sedimentation
217
If sufficient amounts of activated carbon in the powdered form are used, practically all tastes and odors are removed from water by
adsorption
218
High concentrations of nitrates in drinking water are
a possible cause of methemoglobinemia
219
Often over 90% of sodium arsenate can be removed by
coagulation
220
As you know from previous readings, the composition of soil is very important in the removal of both viruses and bacteria. Which of the following soil conditions is most favorable for removal of viruses?
fine loamy sand over course sand and gravel
221
Proper disinfection of water using chlorine depends on the concentration of chlorine plus which of the following?
#REF!
222
Diatomaceous earth filters
should be augmented by chlorination
223
The amount of color in water should be less than
15 color units
224
Which of the following is used to control the growth of algae and protozoa?
filtration
225
The limitation of the lift capability of the centrifugal pump is based on
the weight of the atmosphere
226
A well casing should be equipped with a vent and installed
with concrete used as grout
227
The presence of which of the following is most easily identified by laboratory analysis in water contaminated by feces?
coliform
228
It is estimated that at any given time, there is/are _____ times more water stored underground than in all the surface streams and lakes.
20 to 30 times as much
229
Direct filtration can produce a good quality water at a lower cost provided that the water being treated is
#REF!
230
An example of a surface water supply would be
a reservoir
231
It is recommended that a contaminated well be abandoned unless
a. all the sources of pollution can be found and removed, b. the contaminated stratum from which water is being extracted is effectively sealed off
232
The conversation of seawater or brackish water to fresh water is called
desalination
233
Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at exposure of
300 ppm
234
The type of water that makes it difficult to produce suds or to rinse laundry, dishes or food equipment is
hard water
235
Which of the following defines effective porosity or specific yield?
the amount of water that will drain out of saturated rock or soil by gravity
236
When using presettling reservoirs to eliminate heavy turbidity or pollution before treatment, what is the desirable retention time?
2 to 3 days
237
The safe distance between a well and a waste disposal system is dependant on
#REF!
238
Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge
400 billion gallons of sewage into the ground per day
239
The most practical method for removing nitrates from water is
ion exchange
240
Hydropneumatic or pressure-tank water systems are suitable for
small communities, housing developments, private homes and estates, camps, food service operations, and hotels
241
This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it?
ammonia
242
In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then into steam, usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of
258 degrees F
243
What does it mean when a body of water has a high JTU?
It has high turbidity
244
Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) are most commonly used to
Determine turbidity
245
What is the first step in evaluating the safety of a potential water system?
A detailed sanitary survey of the water supply
246
What are examples of groundwater systems?
Dug, bored, driver, drilled well; rock, sand or earth springs; infiltration galleries
247
The quality of surface water depends on
The watersheds area drained, land use, location and sources of pollution and the natural agencies of purificatio
248
The hydro pneumatic tank typically contains_____ of its volume as water.
20 percent
249
Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium?
Reverse osmosis
250
Typically, an abundant supply of groundwater may be yielded from
Sedimentary rocks
251
Groundwater in the soil travels up through a plant's root system and then comes out from the leaf structure as
Transpiration
252
Turbidity of water will
#REF!
253
The presence of which of the following elements in water treatment plant effluent is used as a measure of filtration efficiency?
Aluminum
254
Proper disinfection of water using chlorine depends on the concentration of chlorine plus which of the following?
#REF!
255
The presence of which of the following in water would indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?
Clostridium perfringes
256
Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?
Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)
257
Reduction of the level of fluorides in drinking water can be accomplished b
#REF!
258
What are the fundamental steps involved in the control of organic chemicals in drinking water?
Conduct sanitary survey to identify sources, types and amounts of pollution
259
Backflow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by
a. Backpressure, b. Backsiphonage
260
Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge
400 million gallons of sewage into the ground each year
261
In a test conducted in North Carolina by the PHS in sandy soil, sewage organisms traveled
In excess of 200 feet
262
Leaching from a garbage dump has been found to pollute wells
2000 feet away
263
Which of the following would be classified as a non-transient, non-community water system (NTNCWS)?
Water supply serving a factory with at least 25 employees
264
A water system serving one apartment building with three apartments, having a total of six residents is a Public Water Supply (PWS)?
FALSE
265
Of the following, which are included as major regulatory requirements in the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)?
Public information
266
The primary Drinking Water Standards
b and c
267
The Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the highest concentration of a contaminant that is allowable in a water system.
TRUE
268
Any time a MCL is exceeded the NTNCWA must give notice by continuous posting in a conspicuous location within the area served by the water system.
TRUE
269
Which of the following is not included in the nine contaminant groups?
Microorganisms
270
Which would not be classified as a sedimentary formation?
olivine
271
Rocks such as serpentine, slate, soapstone and marble belong to which class:
metamorphic
272
Which soil has the greatest % porosity
silt
273
Which is included in the sanitary survey of groundwater supplies?
#REF!
274
When collecting bacteriological samples that have been chlorinated, what chemical is used to dechlorinate the water?
sodium thiosulfate
275
What is the purpose of using a forward sweeping motion when collecting water samples from a stream or lake?
prohibits contamination from samples hands
276
Which bacterial group is indicative of fecal contamination or sewage pollution?
coliform
277
Which soil condition is most favorable for removal of viruses?
fine loamy sand over coarse sand and gravel
278
What water constituent has been associated with staining plumbing and clothing dark brown or black?
Mn
279
Methylene Blue Active Substance (MBAS) is a test to identify:
presence of detergents containing phosphates
280
In domestic water well supplies, which two elements cause most hardness?
Ca and Mg
281
Which residual test for chlorine would be least desirable?
OTA
282
Which would not be used as coagulant?
sodium hypochlorite
283
Which organism is not known as an iron bacteria?
Giardia lambia
284
What conditions would result in the worst case of pipe damage due to corrosion?
soft water, low alkalinity, presence of oxygen
285
Which statement is most correct:
facultative bacteria live in either aerobic or anaerobic conditions
286
Which increases the chance of pollution travel?
#REF!
287
Measure of the amount of water held by a rock or soil in pores or voids, expressed as % of the total volume:
porosity
288
What is the primary organism identified in the fecal coli form test?
Escherichia coil
289
Which is not a measure of water turbidity?
siple turbidity unit
290
Which is the standard measure for water turbidity?
nephelometric turbidity unit
291
Another name for epsom salt is:
magnesium sulfate
292
The final product in biochemical oxidation of ammonia yield:
nitrate
293
Which contaminant in water is associated with methemoglobinemia?
nitrate
294
Which will cause taste and odor in water supplies?
#REF!
295
What statement concerning ozone is incorrect?
Ozone residual can last several hours
296
Regulation of drinking water additives is the responsibility of:
EPA
297
Which conditions indicate organic stream pollution?
#REF!
298
Lakes having characteristics of being clean, high in DO, deep and receiving few nutrients:
Oligotrophic
299
Which organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?
Clostridium sporulates
300
Algae development will cause all conditions except:
Rapid fall in pH
301
The presence of bacteria responsible for typhoid fever in a public water supply could be traced to:
Fecal contamination
302
Objectionable tastes and odors in public water supplies are, in a great majority of cases, due to the presence of:
Algae and protozoa
303
Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at an exposure of
300 ppm
304
Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through
Sandy loam or clay
305
Infectious Hepatitis A (HAV) is a disease caused by:
virus
306
The pH of a solution in which the apparent hydrogen ion concentration is equal to 1 x 10-8 moles per liter is:
8
307
The substance commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment is:
Aluminum sulfate
308
A sample of water taken for bacteriological analysis is usually packed in ice, if the sample cannot be analyzed immediately. The main reason for this procedure is to retard changes in the:
Number of bacteria in the water
309
The disinfecting ability of chlorine is affected most by:
Hydrogen ion concentration
310
Alkalinity exists in three forms. Which is not one of these forms?
hypochlorite
311
Which of the following compounds would not contribute to water hardness?
Sodium chloride
312
Improperly located wells, allowing fecal pollution of the water supply, may lead to outbreaks of:
Salmonellosis, shigellosis, cholera, hepatitis
313
Viral hepatitis B (HBV) is most often associated with:
Administration of blood products
314
Historically in the US, most of the impetus for adequate water treatment came from the need to control:
typhoid
315
Communicable diseases such as typhoid fever, cholera, shigellosis, and infectious hepatitis are most commonly transmitted by the:
Fecal/oral or vehicle-borne route
316
Which of the following chemicals that can be used for the disinfection of water does not provide a residual?
Ozone
317
Aeration is advantageous in the treatment of water containing:
Dissolved iron and manganese
318
Masonry reservoirs of rural water supplies are called:
Cisterns
319
The liquid form of chlorine used for emergency disinfection of small volumes of
Sodium hypochlorite
320
A general rule when surface waters are used for drinking water supplies is:
That they must be considered contaminated
321
If you had to rely on only one of the following to determine the safety of a drinking water supply, which one would you choose?
Sanitary survey of supply (source, equipment, etc)
322
The general type of subsurface formation in which groundwater contamination is likely to travel the farthest is:
Limestone
323
The presence of coliform in water indicates:
The possible presence of pathogens
324
The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is:
The presence of gas from the fermentation of the media
325
If a series of three consecutive water samples from one supply all showed the presence of E coli when each sample was run through presumptive, confirmed and completed tests, the most logical interpretation would be:
The supply was possibly exposed to human fecal contamination
326
Activated carbon is used to:
Control tastes and odors
327
A physical cross-connection:
Is a connection which may permit the flow of water into an approved potable water supply from an unapproved (non-potable) water supply
328
Backsiphonage is likely to result if:
A potable water line is connected with non-potable water supply used for fire fighting
329
In the bacteriological analysis of water a positive completed test is definite proof that the sample of water:
Contained coliform bacteria and may be unsafe to drink
330
The DPD test is commonly used for the determination of:
Chlorine or bromine
331
If hard water is softened by the ion exchange method, which one of the following will increase?
sodium
332
The proper method of obtaining a sample of tap water for bacteriological analysis is to collect the sample from a tap that has:
Been opened for 2-3 minutes, holding the sample bottle near the base and filling it to within an inch of the top
333
According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, the minimum number of water samples which must be submitted for bacteriological analysis for a public water supply depends upon the:
Population served
334
The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the
Slow sand filter
335
In plumbing system, where a faucet feeds a sink, it is advisable to have the faucet situated well above the rim of the sink. Why?
Possible suction of wastewater into the supply of potable water
336
One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay or hardpan is
Failure to seal well casing properly
337
Aeration is a natural process or mechanical process which:
a. Increases the contact between air and water, b. Improves the physical and chemical characteristics of water
338
If water in a stream is a 20 degrees C and has nine mg/1 oxygen per liter:
It would probably be comfortable for rainbow trout
339
The main function of a sand filter is to:
Remove suspended solids
340
A chlorine concentration of 30 ppm in a drinking water supply is:
Excessive
341
The gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
342
Ozone is effective against
#REF!
343
A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by
Water
344
The manner in which water moves from place to place, changing from one form to another is called the:
Hydrologic cycle
345
The process whereby water that has fallen on land finds its way back to the oceans is called:
run-off
346
The majority of fresh water is found:
As groundwater
347
Just to maintain bodily functions, a person needs:
4-12 pints of water each day
348
To improve the health and living standards among Third World populations, one of the best things that could be done is:
Increase the quantity of readily available safe water
349
The factor that will ultimately result in chronic water shortage is:
Unchecked population size
350
For their drinking water supply, over 95% of all farm families depend on:
Groundwater
351
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of groundwater?
It is more expensive to access than surface water
352
Most cases of groundwater pollution occur in areas:
Of high pollution
353
The Amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act do not cover:
Private wells
354
Degradation of groundwater supplied by human-generated pollutants is generally the result of:
Faulty waste disposal practices
355
The primary reason for the decline in the water table in some groundwater dependent areas of the world is:
Over-pumping
356
In the United States, saltwater intrusion into depleted aquifers is becoming a problem in:
Southern California
357
The majority of the world's water is used in:
Agriculture
358
Perhaps the greatest potential for reducing the demand for water could result from:
Better use of technology in agriculture irrigation
359
The easiest and least expensive way to conserve water within most households is:
Repairing leaky toilet fixtures
360
It is estimated that installation of water-saving plumbing devices in homes would save approximately:
55 gallons of water per day per 2-3 person household
361
The major problem associated with desalinization of water is:
The amount of energy required
362
Xeriscape landscaping means:
Selecting plants that can thrive on natural precipitation
363
Swimming pools receive fecal waste, urine, dead tissue, saliva, mucous from the nose, sweat and pollution and contaminates from the surrounding environment. This emphasizes the importance of proper swimming pool design including
#REF!
364
Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelometric Turbidity Units. It is recommend a level of 0.5 NTU
shall not be exceeded
365
The gutters or skimmers receive a minimum of __ of the total pool water due to the large quantity of organisms and materials which typically float.
60 percent
366
Eye irritation can be caused by prolonged exposure to water with a pH
below 7.4, of 7.0
367
One advantage of using cyanuric acid additive is that it
stabilizes residual chlorine
368
The increase of dissolved solids due to evaporation in whirlpools, hot tubs and spas is indicated by
cloudy water
369
Swimming pools have been implicated in many outbreaks of disease, including
leptospirosis
370
The bottom of multiple-use pools should have a bottom slope not greater than __ when the depth is less than 5.5 feet
1 inch per 12 inch
371
Approved public swimming pools should have
#REF!
372
The fresh water supply line to the pool must
fill to the pool through an approved air gap
373
The speed with which emergency action can be taken is largely dependent on
prior planning
374
The evacuation and survival of individuals in an emergency or natural disaster are dependent of the extent to which
#REF!
375
The __ is usually involved in dealing with major disasters.
b. Federal Emergency Management Agency, c. Red Cross
376
If temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, shelter selection should take into consideration
a. protection from flooding and the elements, b. availability of heat, light and space
377
Natural disaster victims should be provided with how much water per day.
3 to 6 gallons
378
There is no need for vaccination after flooding and other natural disasters, although it is frequently cause for public concern.
typhoid
379
A quantity of liquid bleach (household) can be used to retreat 1000 gallons of water for drinking.
1 pint
380
___ is a satisfactory method for disinfecting water that is not grossly polluted.
chlorination
381
When treating water with chlorine in emergency situations, the chlorine dosage should be __ when the water is turbid or colored.
doubled
382
Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plants sites must be tested at least every.
2 years
383
The emergency plan at a nuclear electric power plant must include a means for notification of the public living within of the plant within a 15-minute period.
10 miles
384
During nuclear emergencies __ provides technical support.
#REF!
385
The most hazardous category of nuclear emergency is
general emergency
386
HAZWOPER requirements apply to
voluntary clean-ups at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites
387
OSHA regulations other the HAZWOPER apply to emergency response and hazardous waste operations if they are
more stringent
388
The written safety and health program must incorporate
#REF!
389
Hazardous waste sites must be characterized __ general site entry to determine the hazards present at the site.
prior to
390
The site control program at an uncontrolled hazardous waste site must include
site work zones
391
Those who work on uncontrolled hazardous waste sites are required to receive a minimum of __ training
40 hours
392
Workers involved in waste operations at hazardous waste TSD facilities are required to receive at least __ of training before working in hazardous waste operations.
24 hours
393
Air monitoring at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites can be conducted by
a person knowledgeable about industrial hygiene practices
394
Air monitoring shall be conducted in order to ensure proper selection of
#REF!
395
A medical surveillance program must be provided to workers at hazardous waste sites by the
employer
396
Employers are required to develop and implement a program to inform __ of the degree of exposure likely as a result of participation in hazardous waste operations.
a. employees, b. contractors
397
Containers used in site clean-up operations must be marked and labeled in accordance with regulations.
OSHA, EPA, DOT
398
If equipment or clothing is sent from an uncontrolled hazardous waste site for cleaning, the __ associated with the equipment must be communicated to the off-site facility.
hazards
399
Decontamination solvents must be
disposed of properly
400
Uncontrolled hazardous waste sites must have an emergency response plan with the following elements
#REF!
401
Showers must be provided at hazardous waste clean-up sites when operations will last longer than
6 months
402
Those involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted TSD facilities must receive __ of initial training.
24 hours
403
The yellow pages of the emergency response guidebook lists
hazardous material by ID number
404
The orange pages of the emergency response guidebook lists
guides to use when responding to hazardous materials transportation incidents
405
The green pages of the emergency response guidebook lists
initial isolation and protective action distances
406
The US DOT emergency response guidebook can be used to
quickly identify the specific or generic classification of hazardous materials during the initial response phase of an incident
407
To disinfect a well, one should and pour directly into the well.
mix one quart of bleach in five gallons of water
408
Following floods or other natural disasters, there is frequently public concern for __ vaccination
typhoid
409
The number one item listed under emergency equipment and supplies is __
water
410
In case of disasters, the speed with which action may be implemented is dependent upon
prior plans for emergencies
411
During an emergency, the drinking water source should be
assumed unsafe
412
Following a disaster raw food should be
b. cooked well, c. avoided if possible
413
In an emergency, people will need __ of water per day each
3 to 6 gallons
414
Emergency shelters should provide a minimum of __ per person.
30 sq ft2 per person
415
To disinfect clear water using 5% household bleach,
mix 1 tablespoon to 10 gallons and let set 30 minutes
416
The provisions of the CFR Part 1910 of Title 29 "Bloodborne Pathogens" are under the authority of?
Department of Labor
417
All patients should be considered to be potentially infectious for HIV and other bloodborne pathogens. Therefore you should
#REF!
418
Engineering controls are:
controls that isolate or remove hazards from the workplace
419
According to "Universal Precautions", which of the following are considered to be infectious?
a. all blood from human sources, b. certain body fluids
420
Wearing contact lenses in an area that has the potential to expose workers to body fluids requires
that they may not be cleaned in the work area
421
Contaminated needles must always be
none of the above
422
Protective equipment such as gloves for workers in contamination risk areas must be
provided at no cost to the employee for work purposes
423
Broken glassware found in contamination risk areas or if suspected to have contained infectious material
must be picked up using mechanical means
424
Hepatitis B vaccinations for employees that work in contamination risk jobs and areas
must be offered at no cost
425
Which one of the following is not a man-made toxic substances?
asbestos
426
It is generally accepted that the most widespread chemical contaminant known is:
polychlorinated biphenyls
427
PCBs were first synthesized in:
1920s
428
Which one of the following is a characteristics of PCBs?
high heat resistant
429
What characteristic of PCBs made them an environmental and health hazard?
chemical stability
430
The highest PCB concentrations documented in the US are in:
Waukegan Harbor
431
The process of a toxic substance being increasingly stored in body tissue is called:
bioaccumulation
432
An electrical transformer leak of PCBs resulted in the destruction of millions of dollars worth of chicken and eggs in:
Montana
433
The primary route of entry of PCBs into human is:
ingestion
434
Which one of the following has not been shown to be associated with PCBs?
fertility
435
Which of the following would most likely contain the highest proportion of PCBs?
chinook salmon
436
The most characteristic symptom of individuals occupationally exposed to PCBs is:
chloracne
437
A major worry associated with prolonged, low-level PCB exposure is:
liver cancer
438
Which one of the following was not initially associated with PCBs?
minimata disease
439
Which one of the following statements is true?
there is no definitive evidence that links PCBs with cancer and other chronic health problems in humans
440
The approved method of disposing of PCBs is:
high-temperature incineration
441
Which of the following statements is true?
dioxin is formed as a unwanted by-product of herbicide manufacturing
442
Which one of the following is not a major source of human exposure to dioxin?
Water
443
Consumption of contaminated:
water
444
The statement "dioxin is the most toxic of all man-made chemicals" is somewhat misleading because of the testing done on:
guinea pigs
445
Immune system interference has been demonstrated with dioxin exposure in all the following except:
mice
446
Perhaps the most significant long-term effect of dioxin exposure appears to be:
disruption of hormonal regulation of reproduction
447
Which one of the following general human health problems has been definitively associated with general exposure to dioxin?
chloracne
448
What is a major issue that is confronting public health professionals responsible for setting exposure limits to TCCD?
the chemical seldom appears alone
449
Perhaps the number one cause of disease as a result of general environmental exposure is:
asbestos
450
A major problem associated with occupational exposure to asbestos is:
cancer
451
Airborne exposure to asbestos fibers is most commonly associated with:
fibers being released through automobile braking
452
The primary route of asbestos entering the human body is through:
inhalation
453
Which one of the following cities has a water concentration of asbestos that is 10-100 million fibers per liter?
San Francisco
454
Which one of the following has not been associated with asbestos?
multiple myeloma
455
The number 1 cause of asbestos-related mortality is:
lung cancer
456
Asbestos is the only known cause of:
mesothelioma
457
For which one of the following has no direct, causative link been conclusively established:
gastrointestinal cancer
458
Which one of the following statements is false?
safe levels for asbestos exposure have been established
459
Perhaps the most important determinant of the cancer-causing potential of asbestos is:
the size of the asbestos fibers to which one is exposed
460
The extent of risk of development of an asbestos-related disease is probably most associated with:
level and duration of exposure
461
A major population group that has increased concern associated with exposure to asbestos fibers has been expressed for:
school children
462
A major drawback facing compliance with the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act is:
lack of funding to comply with the provisions of the Act
463
Which one of the following is not a way of remedying an asbestos hazard?
demolition
464
Which one of the following means of remedying an asbestos hazard is most expensive?
removal
465
When engaging in complete asbestos removal, the provisions of which one of the following must be strictly met?
Clean Air Act
466
Which one of the following is not a requirement for complete removal and disposal of asbestos?
the material may be transported in an open vehicle
467
The number one environmental health problem that affects America's children is:
lead poisoning
468
Perhaps the first occupational exposure to a toxic mineral was associated with:
silver processing
469
A major event that lessened environmental exposure to lead was:
phase-out of leaded gasoline
470
Which one of the following has been identified as the major source of adult lead exposure?
ceramic coffee mugs
471
Which one of the following has not been identified as a hazard associated with lead exposure?
occasional use of antique or collectible dinnerware
472
The major source of lead poisoning today is:
ingestion of lead-based house paint
473
Lead-based paint may be used for:
painting bridges
474
The major cause of lead poisoning of children is from:
inhaling lead contaminated household dust
475
Lead poisoning is most acute for:
infants
476
Occupational risk of lead poisoning is most prominent among:
construction workers who demolish bridges
477
The leaching of lead from solder into home-brewed liquor is a frequent source of lead poisoning in some rural counties of
Alabama
478
The estimated half-life of lead in bones is:
27 years
479
Which one of the following could produce the sudden release of lead that has been stored in the bones into the bloodstream?
pregnancy
480
Which one of the following conditions is not a specifically identified health damaging effect of lead in the human body?
heart attack
481
Perhaps the most serious manifestation of damage done as a result of lead being in the bloodstream is to:
nerve tissue
482
In children, perhaps the most damage result of chronic low-level exposure to lead can:
produce lowered IQ scores
483
Which one of the following does not appear to be a "legacy of childhood lead exposure?"
high class rank
484
A treatment for lead exposure that involved administering a drug that binds to lead and facilitates its excretion from the body is called:
chelation
485
One of the most important aspects involved in restoring a child who has been exposed to lead to good health is:
removal of the child from the source of exposure
486
Which one of the following would probably be most cost effective in the prevention of lead poisoning of children?
covering bare soil or planting foundation shrubs
487
Which one of the following, given present conditions, would probably produce the best results in terms of alleviating health damage as a result of childhood exposure to lead?
universal lead screening
488
What was the first medical use for mercury?
treatment for syphilis
489
The major source of mercury emissions into the atmosphere is from:
coal burning
490
The major route of entry of inorganic mercury into humans is through:
inhalation of mercury vapors
491
The cause of "Mad Hatters' Disease" was traced to:
mercury
492
A potential source of mercury exposure that could remain for years is from:
stored containers of paint produced prior to 1990
493
The tissues most often damaged as result of inorganic mercury entering the body include all of the following except:
heart
494
The most common occupational exposure to mercury is through:
inhalation
495
Which one of the following is least likely to be occupationally exposed to mercury vapors:
farm workers
496
Which one of the following poses virtually no health threat in terms of inorganic mercury?
ingestion
497
The major damage that results from exposure to organic mercury is to the:
brain
498
All of the following have been associated with methyl mercury poisoning except:
tuna
499
Minamata Disease is associated with:
organic mercury
500
A major problem associated with methyl mercury is its:
affinity for fetal tissue
