1501-2000 Flashcards
1
Q
Question
A
Answer
2
Q
Which one of the following is least likely to be a radon emitter?
A
Obsidian
3
Q
Perhaps the most significant source of indoor air pollution in terms of particulate levels is:
A
Cigarette smokers
4
Q
The main source of childhood exposure to particulate pollution is:
A
Tobacco smoke
5
Q
In what type structures are indoor levels of formaldehyde likely to be rather high?
A
Mobile homes
6
Q
Fungal spores, bacterial and animal dander are examples of
A
Biological pollutants
7
Q
Dust mites seem to proliferate in the presence of
A
Use of humidifiers
8
Q
Most cases of sick building syndrome can be traced to:
A
Inadequate ventilation
9
Q
The major constituent of the atmosphere today is:
A
Nitrogen
10
Q
The region of the atmosphere where virtually all life activities occur in the:
A
Troposphere
11
Q
The region of the atmosphere where the temperature slowly rises with increases in altitude is the:
A
Stratosphere
12
Q
Most ultraviolet radiation in sunlight is absorbed by the ozone layer as it passes through the:
A
Stratosphere
13
Q
The reason that there are differences in the amount of infrared absorption in various climatic regions is because:
A
The amount of water vapor varies
14
Q
Ground radiation refers to:
A
Outward radiation of energy from the
15
Q
The Greenhouse Effect is the result of
A
re-radiation of infrared waves back to the earth’s surface
16
Q
The reason that the ozone layer is so important is because it:
A
it protects life forms from solar ultraviolet radiation
17
Q
The most serious threat to the ozone layer is:
A
chlorofluorocarbons
18
Q
The “hole in the sky” was first found over:
A
The South Pole
19
Q
The main component of the Montreal Protocol was the:
A
cutting back and eventually eliminating the use of chlorofluorocarbons
20
Q
The historical significance of the Montreal Protocol is:
A
the agreement among nations of the world to work together to prevent a disaster of global proportions
21
Q
Which one of the following is not one of the major atmospheric gases?
A
ozone
22
Q
Perhaps one of the greatest environmental issues of the late 20th century will be:
A
the Greenhouse Effect
23
Q
Nearly 1/4 of all global carbon dioxide emissions are the result of
A
deforestation
24
Q
Concern over increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere revolve around issues of
A
global temperature
25
The Greenhouse Effect is being enhanced by the increase of all the following gases in the atmosphere except:
oxygen
26
Which one of the following is potentially the most important in terms of global warming?
methane
27
The major impact of global warning would most likely be in:
an alteration of world-wide rainfall
28
It is most likely that the greatest temperature increases as a result of global warming will occur in:
high latitude regions of northern hemisphere
29
Which one of the following is not a potential impact of global warming?
increased crop yield, particularly of citrus fruits
30
Which one of the following may be the most devastating to biodiversity?
global warming
31
Which one of the following will perhaps the most dramatic consequence of global warming?
rising sea level
32
A major part of the Earth Summit was to:
stabilize concentrations of greenhouse gases at 1990 levels
33
Which one of the following nations has the greatest annual rate of carbon dioxide production?
China
34
The only way the atmospheric carbon dioxide level would not continue to increase would be slash emissions to:
60% of their 1990 levels
35
Which one of the following is least likely to be a viable response to stop global warming:
rapidly expand nuclear power generation
36
Even if reduction of the emission of CFCs and other greenhouse gases were accomplished, the effect of what is already in the atmosphere will be exerted for approximately:
100 years
37
At present the largest source of methane is:
cultivation of rice
38
Which one of the following, when burned, emits the most carbon dioxide?
coal
39
To improve the accuracy of global warming predictions:
more understanding of ocean dynamics is needed
40
The relationship between the photosynthetic rate of green plants and the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere may aptly be termed:
carbon dioxide fertilization
41
A basic concept embodied in the Green Lights program is:
energy conservation
42
If the Green Lights program is successful:
pollution from fossil fuel production will decrease
43
What "attracted" industry to the use of chlorofluorocarbons:
their chemical stability
44
Which one of the following gases was not scheduled for phaseout by 1996 as a result of the Montreal Protocol?
halon
45
Which one of the following gases seems to present the greatest challenge in terms of elimination of its use?
freon
46
The ban of chlorofluorocarbons was not targeted at those companies that:
use the gas
47
The term "frequency" cannot be described as
Particles
48
The shorter the wave length
The higher the frequency and energy
49
The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to
x-rays or gamma rays
50
The term "rem" is short for
Roentgen Equivalent Man
51
Which term is used to show the exposure of large populations to low level radiation?
Person-rem
52
The term "genetic radiation" refers to effects of radiation on
Generations yet unborn
53
MPD is the abbreviation for
Maximum permissible dose
54
Common deficiencies regarding fluoroscopy units may be
#REF!
55
CAT scanners are used to locate
#REF!
56
The term "half-value layer" (HVL) is used to designate the thickness of a particular material that will reduce, by one-half, the intensity of radiation passing through the material. Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by
Glass or plastic
57
The siting of nuclear facilities is subject to extensive regulation and licensing by the
Nuclear regulatory commission
58
The FDA requires that sunlamps that radiate UV rays be equipped with timers which automatically shut off after
None of the above
59
X-rays units are generally due for reinspection
Every 2 to 3 years
60
Lasers emit
Electromagnetic radiation
61
Microwave ovens use which of the following energy sources?
Electromagnetic
62
The longer the wave length, the lower the frequency and energy.
TRUE
63
The nature of all radiation is the same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wave length.
FALSE
64
Survey meters are usually read in roentgens or milliroentgens per hour.
TRUE
65
A radioisotope is an artificially created radioactive isotope of a chemical element that is normally not radioactive.
TRUE
66
Beta particles can be health hazard either as internal or external radiation because of the ionization in tissues.
TRUE
67
Generic effects from radiation exposure are usually immediately evident.
FALSE
68
Most cells, tissue and organs of the body are independent and the destruction of one will not affect the other.
FALSE
69
Biological effects should govern the required standards of radiological protection.
FALSE
70
In assessing radiation hazard, the sum total of all exposures should be considered.
TRUE
71
Actual amounts of radiation exposure received in different parts of the world will vary with altitude, background and medical practices.
TRUE
72
With dental x-rays, it is necessary to establish the correct exposure time for kilovoltage, milliamperage and source-to-skin distance.
TRUE
73
It is believed by some researchers that the hazards of low level radiation may be worse than previously predicted, supporting the principle that "x-rays should be used only when there is good medical reason."
TRUE
74
It is not necessary for a dental unit to have filters.
FALSE
75
The discoverer of X-rays was:
Roentgen
76
The term "radioactivity" was "coined" by
Marie and Pierre Curie
77
Which one of the following is not a part of particulate radiation?
x-ray
78
All of the following are considered ionizing radiation except:
Ultraviolet light
79
Resident of which of the following citied would probably receive the most cosmic radiation?
Lake Placid
80
Which one of the following is least penetrating?
Alpha rays
81
Which one of the following is most penetrating?
Gamma rays
82
Residents of which of the following cities would probably receive the most exposure from naturally occurring radioactive minerals?
Vale, California
83
From the standpoint of exposure to radioactive minerals, which one of the following building materials would probably be most "safe"?
Wood
84
Which one of the following is not natural source of radiation exposure?
Nuclear power plants
85
Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is:
Radon
86
The greatest exposure to human made ionizing radiation for most individuals is through:
Medical x-rays
87
The consumer product most significant in terms of radiation exposure is:
cigarettes
88
Perhaps the most "infamous" incidence of radiation-induces illness involved:
Women who painted watch dials
89
The best management for intensely radioactive isotopes that have very short half-lives is:
Isolate them from human contact during their acute phase
90
The amount of radiation damage in human exposure to ionizing radiation is measured in term of:
sieverts
91
Which one of the following is true?
Low levels of ionizing radiation have a potential to cause cell damage rather than cell deaths
92
Perhaps the greatest problem that resulted from the testing of nuclear weapons prior to the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty was:
Radioactive contamination of soil and water
93
Which one of the following is true?
There is a linear relationship between exposure to ionizing radiation and gene mutation
94
Which one of the following is the greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation?
Mutations that accumulate in the gonads
95
Sensitivity to radiation is probably highest:
During fetal development
96
The majority of damage from X-rays during fetal development is to the:
Nervous system
97
Perhaps the most often observed birth defect that is the result of fetal exposure to X-rays is:
microcephaly
98
The most harmful effects of ionizing radiation on human fetal tissue is during:
The second through sixth week of gestation
99
Perhaps the first indication of the health problems associated with exposure to ionizing radiation were the result of a high incidence of
Skin cancers
100
Approximately what percentage of medical and dental X-rays do federal officials estimate to be unnecessary by federal officials?
33
101
Which one of the following has not been suggested as a reason that Americans are receiving excess exposure to X-rays?
Medicaid/medicare requirements
102
Which one of the following is false?
Children should have routine dental X-rays as part of screening programs
103
Perhaps the classic example of X-ray induced malignancy is:
Leukemia
104
In terms of health problems associated with ionizing radiation, perhaps the most prudent way to safeguard public health is to:
Subscribe to the linear dose-response curve
105
Standards for ionizing radiation exposure:
Represent a balance between adverse effects and known benefits
106
Prior to 2008, there have been no new nuclear reactors ordered by US utility companies in the US since:
1978
107
The percentage of electrical energy generated for use in the US by nuclear power plants is approximately:
20
108
The fissionable fuel in all US nuclear reactors is:
Uranium
109
The major problem associated with uranium mining is the possible development of:
Lung cancer
110
Which one of the following is not one way to protect the safety of uranium miners?
Provide special warning monitors for miners to wear
111
A major problem associated with the milling of uranium ore is the:
Production of radioactive tailings
112
Considered by many as the source of greatest public exposure related to nuclear power production is:
Uranium mill tailings
113
Which one of the following creates perhaps the greatest risk of exposure to ionizing radiation?
Mining the uranium
114
Under normal operating conditions, public exposure to ionizing radiation from nuclear power plants is primarily from:
Deliberate release of radioactive gas
115
The reason fallout levels from Chernobyl were considerably less than might have been anticipated was:
Favorable weather conditions prevailed
116
The defense in depth concept that is used in constructing nuclear plants is:
Characterized by repeated layers of thick shielding materials
117
A major concern associated with Chernobyl style nuclear reactors is:
Accidental radioactive releases would be sent directly into the atmosphere
118
A potential public health problem associated with reprocessing nuclear fission material is:
Volatile radioisotopes are released into the atmosphere
119
Which one of the following is a characteristic of high level nuclear wastes?
They generally arise from spent reactor fuel
120
The US site that appears to be the focus of consideration for the nation's first permanent repository for nuclear waste is in:
Yucca Mountain, NV
121
A problem that utility companies are intimating may force them to close operation of nuclear power plants is lack of
A waste disposal alternative
122
The Monitored Retrievable Storage (MRS) concept deals with:
Storage of spent nuclear fuel in above-ground casks
123
The major target for damage associated with ultraviolet radiation is:
Cellular DNA
124
The major concern related to ultraviolet radiation within humans is with:
Skin cancer
125
What percentage of the typical American's lifetime exposure to ultraviolet radiation occurs before age 20?
80
126
Which one of the following is not an anticipated benefit of regularly using a sunscreen of SPF 15 from infancy through age 18 is:
Lowered risk of oat cell carcinoma
127
Perhaps the best sunscreens are those:
That are most water resistant
128
Perhaps the major problem associated with selecting a sunscreen based on SPF alone is:
Lack of generally accepted standards for determining SPF
129
Basal and squamous cell carcinomas are most commonly associated with exposure to:
UVB
130
The most common form of cancer in women under age 30 is:
Malignant melanoma
131
Malignant melanoma seems to be related to:
Occasional severe sunburn
132
Owners of tanning salons claim they offer a safe tan because they:
Use only UVA light
133
UVA has been associated with all of the following except:
Lessened sunburning
134
Exposure to even moderate amounts of ultraviolet radiation can be dangerous for individuals suffering from:
Lupus erythematosus
135
Which one of the following is false?
Microwaves are a form of ionizing radiation
136
Absorption of microwave energy by bodily tissues is largely associated with the:
Amount of water content of the tissue
137
Which one of the following is probably least susceptible to microwave induced injury?
liver
138
Probably the best understood type of microwave induced injury involves:
Excessive heating of internal organs
139
The major controversy associated with injury as the result of microwave exposure deals with:
Prolonged low levels of exposure
140
Which one of the following does not seem to be associated with exposure to microwaves?
Men fathering only male offspring
141
Which one of the following is true?
The risks associated with childhood exposure to EMF are inconclusive
142
The weight and shape of temporary storage containers must be kept within the limits that can be easily and conveniently handled by the collection crew, with the weight preferably not exceeding
70 pounds
143
Frequency of collection depends on
#REF!
144
In business districts, refuse, including garbage from hotels and restaurants, should be collected daily, except on
Sundays
145
Open dumps should be considered
#REF!
146
The home grinding system shreds garbage into small particles while being mixed with water and is discharged to the
house sewer
147
Garbage reduction melts out fats that are used in manufacturing of
soaps, glycerines and cosmetics
148
Composting is the controlled decay of organic matter that may come from
#REF!
149
Which of the following composting method will require limited land space?
none of the above
150
__ is the thermochemical process for the conversion of complete organic solids in the absence of added oxygen, to water, combustible gases, tarry liquids and stable residue.
pyrolysis
151
Resource recovery can be expected to achiever no more than are __ duction in future landfill volume requirement.
60 percent
152
The disposal of used tires presents a problem but shredded tires may be used as
fuel for industries
153
hazardous wastes include which of the following types of substances?
#REF!
154
The most common problems associated with the disposal of hazardous waste are
#REF!
155
The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately
10 to 15 percent of the original volume
156
To provide enough refuse for an incinerator to continuously operate, a refuse storage pit/bin must hold approximately
4 days of refuse
157
When trying to establish economical hauling, what is most important?
hauling time
158
Landfill sites should be at least __ from streams, lakes or other surface bodies of water
200 feet
159
Leachate containing primarily low molecular weight organic compounds are best treated by
biological methods
160
Which of the following is not considered an advantage to using shredded solid waste landfill?
it will readily absorb precipitation
161
Large items that are not salvaged should be
a. set directly into the landfill, b. placed in an alternative location, c. compressed or shredded
162
Which hazard is related to size reduction method for solid waste?
explosions
163
According to EPA which is not a characteristic of hazardous waste.
friability
164
After a landfill is closed, how much soil should be placed on top of the site?
two feet
165
In valleys and ravines, what method of landfilling is considered the best?
area
166
How often should refuse he compacted during the average work day?
continually
167
How much earth should be placed on refuse at the end of the day?
6 inches
168
Which would not be considered an appropriate use for a completed landfill?
housing development
169
What type soil is most desirable as a landfill cover?
sandy loam
170
What reference would you use to determine if an infectious waste that contains viable organisms is included?
RCRA Act
171
Venturi scrubbers, spray towels and packed towers are examples of what type of waste treatment methods?
absorption
172
Which product would probably have the lowest reclamation value?
glass
173
Which statement is correct in regards to methane gas production?
anaerobic methane gas-producing bacteria produce methane
174
What contaminant may accompany methane production if large amounts of sulfate are also present?
H2S
175
The most common problem associated with the disposal of hazardous waste is:
groundwater contamination
176
PCBs have been used in which systems/devices?
#REF!
177
Which is not an essential factor in the combustion phase of an incinerator?
moisture
178
When selecting a location for a sanitary landfill, which is correct?
hauling time is more important than hauling distance
179
The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be:
with the prevailing wind
180
Homes containing garbage disposals should have a septic tank capacity increased by what % in order to accommodate the increased organic loading?
50%
181
After collection, there are four main steps involved in resource recovery. Place in correct order:
size reduction, separation, recovery, utilization
182
Refuse collection frequency depends largely on the length of time required for fly eggs to mature through the larval stages into adults. Under optimum summer temperatures, maturation time is:
7-10 days
183
Which of the following is an unacceptable operating practice at a sanitary landfill?
a specific time and lace should be designated for the dumping of sewage sludge, agricultural wastes and toxic substances
184
The most satisfactory basis for measuring quantities of solid waste is by:
weight
185
The type of sanitary landfill that should be developed on essentially flat land sited in dry areas is:
area landfills
186
Compactibility of soil in landfills depends primarily on:
the gradient of the particle size of the soil
187
The depth of the earth required on the final surface of a sanitary landfill is:
2 feet
188
On the basis of weight, which of the following materials constitutes the largest component of domestic solid waste?
paper
189
Refuse in an established sanitary landfill decomposes by the bacterial process of:
anaerobic decomposition
190
Under RCRA, the EPA has developed standards and procedures that must be followed be all persons that:
generate, transport, treat, store or dispose of hazardous waste
191
The Federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) is mainly concerned with:
solid wastes
192
Which of the following conditions may minimize the problem of leachate?
low rainfall and high transpiration rate
193
Which component of solid waste storage, collection and disposal must be subsidized from the other?
disposal from collection fees
194
The two most common methods of sanitary landfill operation are
area method and trench method
195
Hazardous wastes should not be placed in an ordinary sanitary landfill because:
the wastes could contaminate the surrounding air, land or soil
196
When aerobic synthesis occurs in a landfill, it is expected that the refuse is:
in the early stages of decomposition
197
Advantages of the land disposal of digested sewage (sludge) include all except:
build-up of heavy metals in the soil
198
A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a major contributor to the environment?
lead acid batteries
199
All of the following are considered advantages of using the shredded solid waste landfill method except:
it will readily absorb precipitation
200
Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?
pressurized
201
Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous substances?
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
202
A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions best describes
risk
203
Which of the following sampling devices is best for collecting undisturbed soil samples
split spoon
204
In the APHA method of measuring housing quality, which of the following would be considered a minor deficiency if found inadequate?
central heating
205
A minimum of __ of sleeping area per person is required in the APHA appraisal method.
40 ft2
206
The ASHRAE recommended minimal thermal standard for dwelling is __F at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm.
76F
207
In unsewered areas, the responsibility for water and sewer for new subdivisions is assigned to the
developer
208
The end of a waste pipe should terminate at least __ above the rim of a sink or receptacle directly connected to the drainage system.
2 inches
209
Salvato recommends at least one water closet for each __ beds in a hospital or nursing home.
eight
210
The housing code, regardless of who promulgates it is
a complex environment health code requiring the involvement of environmental health scientists and sanitarians
211
Lead levels exceeded 10ug/dL in US children aged 6 and under in 1990
3000000
212
In children, blood lead levels (BLLs) more than __ are associated with decreased intellectual performance and other adverse health events.
10 ug/dL
213
All of the following are characteristics of an ideal shielding material for lead paint surfaces except
high density and mass
214
CDC advocates a multitier approach for environmental management of lead threats. This approach has which of the following steps
#REF!
215
Radon cannot be reduced with which of the following devices
none of the above
216
The best control of formaldehyde air pollution in the home is
#REF!
217
Short term exposure to formaldehyde levels above __ can cause serious health or life threatening reactions
50 ppm
218
If radon is a problem in your area the following locations would be rooms of higher risk;
basements
219
Individuals assigned to regulatory programs should be
a. exceptionally qualified by both training and experience, c. have achieved appropriate certifications
220
Most mobile homes are
#REF!
221
The control of bloodborne pathogens is regulated by
OSHA
222
The incidence of tuberculosis in English laboratory workers working with M. tuberculosis was reported to be __ higher than for the general population
5 times
223
The term containment is used in describing
safe methods for managing infectious agents in the laboratory
224
The four biosafety containment levels consist of a combination of
laboratory practices, safety equipment and facilities
225
Campylobacter (C. jejuni/C. coli, C. fetus subsp. fetus) may be safely used in the laboratory as a minimum at
biosafety level 2
226
The release of genetically engineered materials to the environment is regulated by
USDA and EPA
227
A national performance standard has been developed by the
National Sanitation Foundation (NSF)
228
Perhaps the most important feature in implementing programs in biosafety is
working with the client in a consultative mode
229
The implementation of a biosafety program begins with
an assessment of risk
230
Which one of the following enter directly into biological processes?
Carbon dioxide
231
The increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the earth's atmosphere might be occurring because of:
the increased consumption of fossil fuels
