1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Etiology?

A

The cause of disease or suffering

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2
Q

What is influenza pneumonia?

A

Infectious inflammation of lungs

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3
Q

What is the etiological agent for influenza pneumonia?

A

Influenza virus

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4
Q

What is acute cystitis?

A

Dramatic Inflammation of the bladder

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5
Q

What is the etiological agent of acute cystitis?

A

Gram Negative rods (E. Coli)

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6
Q

What is an idiopathic disease?

A

Disease in which the cause is unknown

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7
Q

What type of disease is Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Idiopathic

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8
Q

aka Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Bamboo Spine

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9
Q

What happens during ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Inflammation of joints leads to vertebral body fusion

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10
Q

What type of disease is hyperostosis?

A

Idiopathic

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11
Q

What occurs during Hyperostosis?

A

Abnormal growth of osseous tissue

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12
Q

What is the AKA of hyperostosis?

A

DISH

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13
Q

AKA of Hyperostosis?

A

Forestier’s Disease

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14
Q

What does hyperostosis lead to?

A

Fusion, ossification of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)

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15
Q

What are the 3 categories of Etiology?

A

Genetic, Congenital, Idiopathic

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16
Q

What does Genetic etiology mean?

A

The individual’s

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17
Q

What 2 diseases are genetic?

A

Huntington’s and Down’s Syndrome

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18
Q

Onset of Huntington’s Disease?

A

30-35 years

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19
Q

What are the symptoms during Huntington’s disease?

A

Loss of motor function due to loss of neurons, enlargement of ventricles

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20
Q

Huntington’s disease = degeneration of ____

A

Basal Ganglia

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21
Q

In regards to Huntington’s disease, define Chorea:

A

Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements of face and extremities

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22
Q

Dementia is associated with what disease?

A

Huntington’s

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23
Q

What type of disease is Down’s Syndrome?

A

Genetic

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24
Q

What is Down’s Syndrome?

A

Chromosomal abnormality resulting in mental handicap and a characteristic physical appearance

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25
Q

What is Trisomy 21 associated with?

A

Down Syndrome

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26
Q

What is Trisomy 21?

A

Extra chromosome 21

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27
Q

When are people most likely to have a child with Down syndrome?

A

When the male or female is over 35 years old

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28
Q

What is a “Congenital” Disease?

A

When genetic information is intact, but other factors in the embryo’s intrauterine environment interfere with normal development

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29
Q

Toxoplasmosis is what type of disease?

A

Congenital

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30
Q

Toxoplasmosis causes what effect?

A

Teratogenic Effect on the child

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31
Q

What is the teratogenic effect?

A

Abnormal development

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32
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

An agent that causes physical abnormality in a developing embryo or fetus

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33
Q

Teratogenic effect =

A

Physical Abnormality

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34
Q

What is toxoplasmosis caused by?

A

Protozoan toxoplasma gondii (cat feces)

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35
Q

What is similar to toxoplasmosis?

A

Rubella

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36
Q

What type of disease is Fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Congenital

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37
Q

When does fetal alcohol syndrome have a high effect?

A

It has the highest teratogenic effect in the first 3 days of pregnancy and the first trimester

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38
Q

What type of disease is from Thalidomide?

A

Congenital

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39
Q

What is thalidomide?

A

Sleeping drug (Pfizer) administered to pregnant women to prevent morning sickness

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40
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of Thalidomide?

A

Some born with one eye, others born with no extremities.

it did not necessarily decrease the life expectancy of the child

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41
Q

What 3 Diseases are associated with AQUIRED etiology?

A

1) Herpetic Rash
2) Emphysema
3) Parameningeal Infection

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42
Q

Where would you see Herpes Zoster?

A

Under Herpetic Rash

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43
Q

Herpes Zoster is associated with:

A

Shingles

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44
Q

What is herpes zoster: shingles caused by?

A

Varicella-Zoster virus, which also causes chicken pox

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45
Q

When does herpes rash, Herpes Zoster occur?

A

When the immune system is compromised, a dramatic suppression of the immune system

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46
Q

Herpatic rash follows ____

A

Dermatomes

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47
Q

What is emphysema caused by?

A

Cigarette smoking

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48
Q

Emphysema results in:

A

Lung consolidation due to the rupture and damage of alveoli

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49
Q

What can emphysema lead to?

A

Respiratory/heart failure

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50
Q

Parameningeal Infection, aka:

A

Brain Abscess

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51
Q

Brain abscess occurs by:

A

Improper pimple popping

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52
Q

What is the bacteria associated with parameningeal infection?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus Pyrogenes

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53
Q

Parameningeal Infection communication via:

A

Veins of the face and brain

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54
Q

Streptodermal aka:

A

Acne

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55
Q

What is a brain abscess?

A

Large cavity in the brain surrounded by a membrane

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56
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Any collection of pus in the body from pus-forming bacteria (pyogenic)

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57
Q

Infection can enter venous system _____

A

and move to the brain via veins of the face causing a brain abscess

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58
Q

What is a symptom?

A

Subjective finding of disease manifestation, pain, nausea, headaches

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59
Q

What is a sign?

A

A sign is measurable and can be seen, it is an objective finding of disease manifestation

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60
Q

What are examples of signs?

A

High BP, fever, or rash

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61
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

The characteristic combination of signs and symptoms associated with a particular disease

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62
Q

What are the 2 syndromes we discussed?

A

Raynaud’s and Sjogren’s

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63
Q

What happens during Raynaud’s syndrome?

A

Vasospastic contractions of distal vessels

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64
Q

What happens during 1st contraction of Raynaud’s?

A

Contraction of arteries, Fingers/Toes appear WHITE

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65
Q

What happens during 2nd contraction of Raynaud’s?

A

Fingers/Toes appear BLUE due to contraction of veins

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66
Q

What happens to 3rd instance of Raynaud’s?

A

Relaxation of vessels and blood returns. Fingers/toes appear RED

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67
Q

What is Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A

Autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands, more common in females over 35 y.o.

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68
Q

What are the symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Total dryness of mucous membranes due to damage of exocrine glands

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69
Q

What are the 2 main symptoms associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Xerostomia and Xeropthalmia

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70
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

Dry mouth, due to inflammation of sublingual gland

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71
Q

What is Xeropthalmia?

A

Dry eyes, due to inflammation of lacrimal gland. Can cause ulcers

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72
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome causes bilateral _____

A

Parotitis, inflamed parotid glands (hamster face appearance)

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73
Q

T/F, joint pain is a manifestation of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

FALSE, but rheumatoid joint pain or rheumatoid arthritis can be present

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74
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Pattern of development of the disease

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75
Q

What is an acute disease?

A

An illness that develops rapidly (5-7 days)

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76
Q

What is an example of an acute disease?

A

Virus or Cold

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77
Q

What is a chronic disease?

A

At least 6 weeks or more, slow and serious development

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78
Q

What is a subacute disease?

A

Rare classification, and it’s between one and six weeks in duration

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79
Q

Define Local Disease:

A

Disease confined to one region of the body

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80
Q

Example of local disease:

A

Stomach cancer

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81
Q

Define Systemic Disease:

A

Involved multiple organs or systems

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82
Q

Example of Systemic Disease:

A

Metastasized stomach cancer

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83
Q

Define Focal Damage:

A

Limited to one or more distant sites within a diseased organ

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84
Q

What is an example of Focal Damage?

A

One tumor in the stomach

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85
Q

What is diffuse damage?

A

Uniformly distributed damage within a diseased organ, (ENTIRE organ is affected)

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86
Q

What is an example of diffuse damage?

A

Entire stomach is cancerous

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87
Q

What describes how much tissue of the organ is affected?

A

Focal and Diffuse damages

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88
Q

What is a diagnosis?

A

Identification of the patient’s specific disease

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89
Q

What is a prognosis?

A

Prediction of a patient’s disease outcome

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90
Q

What are the 3 causes of cell injury?

A

1) Deficiency
2) Intoxication
3) Trauma

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91
Q

Define, “Deficiency” in regards to cause of cell injury:

A

The lack of substances necessary to a cell

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92
Q

What types of deficiencies are there?

A

1) Primary Nutrient Deficiency

2) Secondary Nutrient Deficiency

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93
Q

Define what primary nutrient deficiency means:

A

Simple absence of nutrient components in food

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94
Q

What disease is associated with “Primary Nutrient Deficiency”?

A

Pellegra

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95
Q

What is Pellegra?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency resulting in Casel’s Necklace dermatitis

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96
Q

Defined what secondary nutrient deficiency is:

A

Component(s) are in the food but cannot be absorbed

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97
Q

What is a common example of secondary nutrient deficiency?

A

Vitamin B12 resulting in pernicious anemia

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98
Q

What must B12 be combined with?

A

An intrinsic factor to be carried into blood

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99
Q

What is Vitamin B12 needed for?

A

For normal red blood cell production in bone marrow and normal nerve cell metabolism

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100
Q

What is “Intoxication” in regards to Causes of cell injury?

A

This is essentially poisoning, presence of a substance or toxin that interferes with cell function

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101
Q

What 2 types of toxins are there in regards to Intoxication of Cell Injury?

A

Exogenous and Endogenous

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102
Q

What are the 3 categories of Exogenous toxins?

A

1) Microbes
2) Chemicals
3) Overdose of some medications

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103
Q

What are microbes (Exogenous toxins)?

A

Infection (usually gram negative rods)

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104
Q

What are chemicals (Exogenous toxins)?

A

Added to food to extend expiration date

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105
Q

Endogenous toxins sometimes results from _____

A

Disruption in normal metabolic reactions

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106
Q

What are the examples of endogenous toxins?

A

1) If an enzyme is missing, the intermediate before it accumulates and becomes toxic
2) Same as above except the intermediates is used in an alternate pathway, which can produce a toxic product

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107
Q

What is a genetic component of endogenous toxins?

A

Non - production of an enzyme

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108
Q

What is an example of a genetic endogenous toxin? (accumulation of a normal metabolite)

A

Alkaptonuria (black urine disease)

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109
Q

What is wrong in your body when you have Alkaptonuria?

A

Normally phenylalanine is converted to tyrosine, but it is not happening

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110
Q

Oxidase of _____ happens during Alkaptonuria

A

Homogentistic acid

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111
Q

If oxidase is not produced, what happens during Alkaptonuria?

A

If oxidase is not produced, homogentistic acid (an intermediate, AKA alkapton) is not converted

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112
Q

What is excreted in the urine which makes it appear black during Alkaptonuria?

A

Homogentistic acid

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113
Q

What does Alkapton have a specific attraction to?

A

The cartilage and to the calcium salt

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114
Q

Homogentistic acid can also accumulate in _____

A

in specific tissues

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115
Q

What is ochronosis?

A

Accumulation of homogenistic acid into cartilage of multiple joints

116
Q

What is a common site of accumulation leading to OA and severe degeneration?

A

Cartilage

117
Q

What does ochronosis cause?

A

Homogentisic acid is deposited in the cartilage causing onchronosis, and there is severe degeneration of the cartilage of vertebral column and complete CALCIFICATION OF IVD’s

118
Q

Ochronosis causes ______

A

Hyperpigmentation such as changes in ear color (homogetisic acid resembles melanin, black pigment). Urine turns black after 30-40 seconds when exposed to air

119
Q

What is Hyperhomocysteinemia?

A

Accumulation of homocysteine leads to atherosclerosis

120
Q

What can hyperhomocysteinemia be prevented by?

A

Vitamin B6, B12, and Folic Acid

121
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

The enzyme phenylalanine hydroxyls is missing so phenylalanine is not covered to tyrosine

122
Q

What is tyrosine?

A

An important factor for melanin and neurotransmitters like epinephrine, NE, and Dopamine.

123
Q

When phenylalanine is not converted to tyrosine, what happens?

A

Activation of an alternative pathway. Phenylalanine is converted to ketones phenyl acetic acid, phenylpyruvic acid, or phenyl lactic acid

124
Q

What do production of Phenylacetic acid, phenylpyruvic acid, or phenyl lactic acid result in?

A

Brain underdevelopment, and sour smell. Most of these kids never speak nor walk. It’s prevented by not eating foods with phenylalanine in it

125
Q

Ionizing Radiation is under what category?

A

Endogenous, Intoxication of Cell Injury

126
Q

What does Ionizing Radiation produce?

A

Free radicals

127
Q

What are the most vulnerable things to ionizing radiation?

A

DNA, cell proteins, and membrane lipids. The cell membrane is the most important part of the cell

128
Q

What is the accumulation of metabolic by-product?

A

Low concentrations of normal metabolites are safe, but in excess are toxic

129
Q

What is an example of an accumulation of metabolic by-product?

A

GOUT

130
Q

Gout aka

A

eating of bones

131
Q

What is Gout caused by?

A

Impairment of purine metabolism.

132
Q

What does Gout cause?

A

Causes accumulation of uric acid in the blood (hyperurecemia)

133
Q

What happens if uric acid gets to the joints?

A

It crystalizes the joints causing extremely painful arthritis

134
Q

Where does the problem of GOUT come from?

A

The activation of the immune system against the uric acid that gets to joint because it is recognized as foreign and phagocytic cells are activated to destroy them

135
Q

What causes the severe pain in GOUT?

A

The lysozymes destroy all cells in joints especially in the morning

136
Q

What part of the body is highly affected by GOUT?

A

1st Metatarsal and is usually asymmetrical

137
Q

GOUT aka

A

Hyperuricemia

138
Q

What are the 3 major syndromes of GOUT?

A

1) Gouty arthritis
2) Soft tissue GOUT
3) Gouty Kidney

139
Q

What is soft tissue Gout?

A

The deposition of uric acid crystal into the soft tissue is called TOPHUS

140
Q

What happens during soft tissue gout?

A

Uric acid crystal penetrates the bursar of mainly the olecranon, and cartilage of proximal forearm and very commonly in the ears (tissue bulging occurs, but there is no pain)

141
Q

What happens during “Gouty Kidney?”

A

It is asymptomatic, silent killer; deposits (typhus;tophi) of uric acid crystals in the kidney

142
Q

How long does Gout y kidney last?

A

15-20 years later, and it develops very slowly with no clinical manifestations. Fatal outcome

143
Q

What is a sign of renal failure ?

A

Smell of urine coming form the mouth

144
Q

What is the only way to combat gouty arthritis?

A

Decreasing the amount of purine you eat, you can decrease the amount of uric acid that is produced (hence gout)

145
Q

What are the 5 types of trauma associated with Cell injury?

A

1) Direct contact
2) Hypothermia
3) Hyperthermia
4) Mechanical pressure
5) Microorganisms

146
Q

Define “Direct Contact” in regards to Trauma of cell injury:

A

Destruction of some cells mechanically

  • Car accident, getting punched
147
Q

What can Direct Contact of TRAUMA result in?

A

Results in hemorrhage, hematoma, battle sign (basal skull fracture), raccoon eyes

148
Q

Define Hypothermia in regards to TRAUMA:

A

Exposure to extremely low temperature

149
Q

What is an example of Hypothermia?

A

Frostbite

150
Q

What happens during frostbite?

A

Freezing/crystallization of cytoplasmic fluid, causing expansion and destruction of cells and tissues; skin turns black (necrosis) - irreversible

151
Q

What happens to the cell membrane during Frostbite?

A

The cell membrane will be broken from the freezing of the cytoplasmic fluid, because it expands as it freezes

152
Q

Define Hyperthermia in regards to TRAUMA:

A

Exposure to extremely high temperature

153
Q

What are the 3 types of Hyperthermia?

A

1) Fire
2) Ionizing radiation (in high doses)
3) Electrical current

154
Q

What is the definition of Ionizing radiation in regards to Hyperthermia?

A

Direct burning of tissue due to the changing of an atom’s orbit, which can lead to burning of a tissue

155
Q

T/F, Ionizing radiation is under both Endogenous and Trauma toxins?

A

TRUE***

156
Q

What is “electrical current” in regards to Hyperthermia?

A

Exposure due to high voltage, resulting in severe burns

157
Q

What are the 5 subcategories under Mechanical pressure?

A

1) Pressure atrophy
2) Tumor
3) Stones
4) Aneurysm
5) High Intensity Sound (low frequency)

158
Q

What is “Pressure Atrophy”?

A

Long periods of pressure on cells and/or tissues, which results in the loss of functional tissues

159
Q

What is the definition of “Tumor”?

A

Results in compression of surrounding structures, causing destruction or decreased function

160
Q

What is the definition of “Stones”?

A

Occupy tight spaces within kidney, gallbladder, etc.

161
Q

What do “Stones” cause?

A

Obstruction of urine flow, increasing physical and osmotic pressure, resulting in loss of normal function

162
Q

What is the definition of “Aneurysm?”

A

Pouching of an arterial wall, due to underdevelopment of middle arterial layer, can rupture causing instant death. Sizes can vary but most common location is in the brain

163
Q

Where is the Aneurysms most common occurrence?

A

Cerebral vessels most common occurrence, at their bifurcation; subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke (occur with rupture)

164
Q

What is high intensity sound? (Low Frequency)

A

Causes damage of the sensory receptors of inner ear, with a permanent loss of hearing (can cause psychological issues)

165
Q

What is an example of High Intensity Sound?

A

Listening to music too loudly and Real injury to receptors in inner ear

166
Q

What are the 2 types of Microorganisms in regards to TRAUMA?

A

Malaria and Echinococcus Disease (Hydatid Disease)

167
Q

What is Malaria?

A

Caused by the protozoan Plasmodium malaria, carried by anopheles mosquito

168
Q

What does malaria enter?

A

RBC’s and begin maturation in 2-4 days

169
Q

What is the result of Malaria?

A

Results in destruction of RBC’s, this = hemolytic anemia, fever, shaking, high temperature

170
Q

What combats plasmodium malaria?

A

Syphilis - Treponema pallidum = high fever

171
Q

Maturation after 2-4 days of malaria results in _____

A

massive hemolysis

172
Q

What is Echinococcus Disease (Hydatid disease)?

A

Tapeworm parasite, ingested through pork

173
Q

How does Echinococcus Disease (hydatid) spread?

A

Cysts within organ, results in pressure atrophy and organ rupture

174
Q

What are common sites of Echinoccus Disease?

A

Brain and Liver, and these cysts will grow until the point that they destroy half the organ

175
Q

What are the 3 changes in the cell?

A

1) Functional (reversible)
2) Structural (reversible)
3) Structural (irreversible)

176
Q

What are the consequences of Cell Injury?

A

1) Morphological (structure) damage and functional damage, either causing the other
2) Example: Cell membrane damage affects function of cell, and sometimes functional changes cause structural changes

177
Q

What is the first category of “Functional Reversible?”

A

Cell and Tissue Accumulation

178
Q

What are the 4 types of Cell and Tissue Accumulation in regards to Functional reversible Cell injury?

A

1) Hydrophobic changes
2) Fatty changes (AKA Steatosis)
3) Residual bodies - scar/fragment of cell damage
4) Hyaline changes (aka Hyalinzation)

179
Q

What are hydrophobic changes?

A

AKA hydrophobic degeneration, cloudy swelling

180
Q

Cell injury causes a functional inability to produce ATP (mitochondrial damage is the first step), what is described?

A

Hydrophobic changes

181
Q

What is the true problem with hydrophobic changes?

A

Na+ ions cannot be pumped out of the cell, increasing cellular osmotic pressure

182
Q

What happens with the extracellular fluid during hydrophobic changes?

A

Extracellular fluid attempts to balance pressure, cell swells with H2O creating a cloudy appearance

183
Q

Where do “Hydrophobic Changes” occur?

A

Specifically within the convoluted tubules of the kidney, there is a narrowing of the lumen due to swelling, which compress glomerular cells, leading to metabolite accumulation in the blood and kidney failure

184
Q

An increase in urine leads to ______ (in regards to hydrophobic changes)

A

Leads to compression of the glomerulus

185
Q

What is portal vein hypertension?

A

Associated with Hydrophobic changes, and this is obstruction of liver vascularization due to cell accumulation

186
Q

What is a small summary of hydrophobic changes?

A

Decrease in size of the lumen, decrease in urine excretion, compression of the glomerulus, results in renal failure

187
Q

Fatty changes (AKA steatosis) =

A

Cells of the liver; hepatocytes

188
Q

What are fatty acids and proteins used for?

A

The production of lipoproteins, which go to the blood supply

189
Q

What are other fatty acids used for?

A

Cholesterol to release bile and bile salts to the intestines

190
Q

What can fatty changes do to the cells?

A

In reference to the accumulation of triglycerides (fatty acids) in parenchymal cells, they compress the cell contents moving them to the periphery of the cell reducing function; and can ultimately cause cell rupture

191
Q

What are common sites of Fatty changes/ Steatosis?

A

Liver (classic), Kidney, Heart ***

192
Q

What 5 factors result in Steatosis/ Fatty Changes?

A

1) Protein malnutrition
2) Intoxication
3) Anoxia
4) Obesity
5) Diabetes Mellitus

193
Q

Describe Protein malnutrition:

A

No protein, which means no lipoprotein synthesis

194
Q

Describe Intoxication:

A

Alcohol damages hepatocytes, which leads to accumulation of fatty acids and cells will swell and cause liver cirrhosis

195
Q

Describe Anoxia:

A

Lack of O2 which is needed to drive reactions for lipoprotein synthesis

196
Q

What does alcoholism result in?

A

“Alcoholic heart” and “Fatty liver,” hepatocytes use free FA’s to make lipoproteins; too much alcohol consumption damages hepatocytes

197
Q

Liver cirrhosis =

A

accumulation of FA’s and swelling of cells

198
Q

What is Residual Body accumulation related to?

A

The cell’s capacity to cope with potentially threatening bacteria or to deal with damaged organelles.

199
Q

Where are residual bodies found?

A

They are found after a previously injury where the cell recovered but had an inability to digest all of the bacteria

200
Q

Residual bodies are the remains of what work?

A

Lysosomes attempting to break down as much of the damaged cell as possible

201
Q

What can be resistant to lysosomal enzymes?

A

Bacteria, which can add to residual bodies

202
Q

Where do residual bodies have the greatest affect?

A

Liver, Kidney, Nervous Tissue

203
Q

Lipofuscin aka

A

Lipocrone

204
Q

What is the most common residual body?

A

Lipofuscin (aka Lipocrone granules)

205
Q

What are lipocrone granules?

A

Parts of sub cellular membranes which are indigestible, pigment of aging “brown atrophy”

206
Q

Hyaline changes aka

A

Hyalinization

207
Q

What is Hyalinization?

A

Accumulation of pink glass-like protein, resembles hyaline cartilage within the cell

208
Q

What are the 2 types of Hyaline Changes aka Hyalinization?

A

1) Intracellular (functional reversible)

2) Intercellular/Extracellular (structural irreversible)

209
Q

What are the 4 branches of Intracellular Hyaline changes?

A

1) Reabsorption Droplets (w/in Renal proximal tubules)
2) Mallory Alcoholic Hyaline (aka Mallory Bodies)
3) Russel Bodies
4) Dutcher Bodies

210
Q

What are reabsorption droplets (w/in renal proximal tubules)?

A

Abnormal protein loss in the urine that the tubules attempt to reabsorb (proteinuria)

211
Q

What syndrome is reabsorption droplets associated with?

A

Nephritic syndrome (minimal change disease)

212
Q

What is Nephritic Syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease, protein is deposited within the cells of the distal convoluted tubules, once excess protein excretion stops the cells will release the deposited protein (reversible)

213
Q

Mallory Alcoholic Hyaline aka

A

Mallory Bodies

214
Q

Where are Mallory bodies found?

A

Within the liver - hepatocytes (impairs their function)

215
Q

What do Mallory bodies result from?

A

From overconsumption of alcohol, it’s reversible with changes in drinking habits

216
Q

What are Russell Bodies?

A

INTRACYTOPLASMIC accumulation of proteins in plasma cells

217
Q

What condition would you find Russell bodies?

A

Multiple Myeloma

218
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Malignant condition; uncontrolled proliferation and disorder function of plasma cells in bone marrow

219
Q

What is aka of Multiple Myeloma ?

A

AKA plasma cell myeloma (IgG)

220
Q

What disease is associated with Bence Jones proteins?

A

Multiple Myeloma aka plasma cell myeloma (IgG)

221
Q

What is Plasma Cell Dyscasias?

A

These are a group of B-cell neoplasms that have in common the expansion of single clone of immunoglobulin secreting and a resultant increase in serum levels of a single homogenous immunoglobulin (“M component”) or its fragments

222
Q

What are Monoclonal gammopathies? (tumors)

A

Plasma cell dyscasias is the aka. These are a group of B-cell neoplasms that have in common the expansion of single clone of immunoglobulin secreting and a resultant increase in serum levels of a single homogenous immunoglobulin (“M component”) or its fragments

223
Q

B cells (B lymphocytes) ->

A

Plasma cells –> antibodies/immunoglobulins

224
Q

What are Dutcher bodies?

A

Intracellular (nucleus) accumulation of proteins

225
Q

Where are dutcher bodies identified?

A

In monoclonal tumors

226
Q

Dutcher bodies are associated with Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia aka

A

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

227
Q

What is Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma aka Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia characterized by?

A

Hyper viscosity of the blood, due to overproduction of IgM antibodies

228
Q

What is an example of hyper viscosity syndrome?

A

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia aka Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

229
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of Intercellular (Extracellular Accumulation)?

A

1) Hyaline Arteriosclerosis

2) Amyloidosis

230
Q

What is Hyaline Arteriosclerosis?

A

Hardening of the arterioles due to hyaline (protein) accumulation

231
Q

What does Hyaline Arteriosclerosis cause?

A

The arterioles to become brittle and/or obstruction of lumen occurs; can lead to obliteration

232
Q

What can Hyaline arteriosclerosis lead to within the brain?

A

Lacunar infarction - thalamus putamen globus and pallidus

233
Q

Parenchymal (intracerebral) hemorrhagic stroke is caused by _____, and what is it?

A

Caused by Hyaline arteriosclerosis and it is, Rupture or hardened arterioles, cases of hypertension

234
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

A generic term for a variety of proteinacceous materials that are abnormally deposited in tissue interstitium in a spectrum of clinical disorders, mainly autoimmune

235
Q

Where are deposits of amyloidosis found?

A

Between cells in the interstitial fluid of the brain, liver, kidney, and skin, leading to the destruction of the cells and ultimately the tissues

236
Q

Amyloidosis has what characteristic?

A

Idiopathic and pathological protein

237
Q

What is kidney amyloidosis characterized by?

A

Extreme proteinuria

238
Q

What are the 2 categories under Adaptive Responses to Cell Changes?

A

1) Alternative Metabolism

2) Altered Size

239
Q

What happens during alternative metabolism?

A

Cells use alternative pathways in order to obtain ATP (preventing hydropic changes)

240
Q

When the oxidative phosphorylation mechanism in the mitochondria of a cell is injured, the cell can use ______

A

An alternative metabolic pathway for the production of ATP preventing hydronic changes (accumulation of sodium and swelling of the cell due to no ATP production)

241
Q

During alternative metabolism, if there is oxygen deficiency the cell can ______

A

Use the anaerobic pathway: glycolysis.

242
Q

If glycolysis is exhausted, what else can the cell use?

A

Fat or protein for the production of ATP

243
Q

What is adaptive response known as “Altered Size?”

A

With injury the cells size may change and therefore the organ’s size will be altered (Hypertrophy or Atrophy)

244
Q

Describe Altered size’s Hypertrophy:

A

It is cell or organ enlargement in response to increased demands. The cell enlarges, but the number of cells stays the same.

245
Q

What is an example of hypertrophy?

A

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy as a result of long term hypertension

246
Q

What happened to create left ventricular hypertension?

A

The heart is working against increased resistance so it increases its size to gain more strength. This also causes an increase demand of O2 leading to damage of heart

247
Q

What is Atrophy? In regards to Adaptive response’s Altered Size?

A

Atrophy is cell or organ decreased size, cell shrinking due to disuse or loss of nerve or blood supply

248
Q

What are the 2 types of Atrophies?

A

1) Disuse

2) Pressure

249
Q

What is disuse atrophy?

A

“If you don’t use it you lose it”

250
Q

What is an example of disuse atrophy?

A

Osteoporosis from minimal load on the vertebral column and loss of skeletal mass from absence of adequate load. It’s also related to hormonal imbalance

251
Q

Osteoporosis is from _____

A

Prevention of osteoclastic activity

252
Q

What are the major locations of Osteoporosis?

A

Ribs, Vertebral bodies, bones of hand, and neck of femur

253
Q

What is an example of Pressure Atrophy?

A

Pressure in kidneys due to stone formation causes accumulation of urine and metabolites causing pressure atrophy

254
Q

What will tests show during pressure atrophy of the kidneys?

A

Creatinine and urea levels are elevated due to decreased secretion leading to kidney sclerosis (hardening of the tissue) and necrosis

255
Q

Loss of normal input (stimuli) is due to what 2 things?

A

1) Inadequate neurological stimulus

2) Inadequate hormonal stimulus

256
Q

What is an example of inadequate neurological stimulus?

A

Muscle atrophy of the extremities in poliomyelitis aka polio aka infantile paralysis

257
Q

Aka of polio?

A

Poliomyelitis aka infantile paralysis

258
Q

The poliovirus enters through the mouth and invades the body, but can become systemic when entered through the blood. T/F?

A

TRUE

259
Q

When the poliovirus enters through the blood and becomes systemic what happens?

A

It invades the Nervous System and damages the neurons at the anterior horns (motor neurons) of the spinal cord

260
Q

What is Polio a typical example of?

A

Neurological impairment leading to muscle atrophy

261
Q

What disease is associated with “Inadequate hormonal stimulus?”

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

262
Q

What was the first autoimmune disease discovered in 1910?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

263
Q

What is Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

A

It’s an autoimmune disease where there is an overproduction of antibodies against the thyroid gland.

264
Q

What do the antibodies of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis do?

A

These antibodies block the receptors on the thyroid gland for TSH released by the pituitary gland.

265
Q

After the antibodies block receptors on the thyroid gland for TSH, what does it cause?

A

Causes failure of the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones T3, T4 = HYPOTHYROIDISM

266
Q

What is the #1 cause of Hypothyroidism in the USA?

A

Hashimoto’s Disease

267
Q

What are the symptoms of Hashimoto’s disease?

A
  • Fatigue, joint and muscular pain
  • Weight gain although loss of appetite
  • Pale or puffy face, feeling cold
  • Dry and thin hair
  • Slow heart rate and respiration rate (slow metabolism)
  • Feeling sleepy and depression
268
Q

What is Grave’s Disease?

A

Autoimmune disease affecting thyroid. The antibodies mimic the TSH, binding to the receptors of the thyroid gland and causing an overproduction of T3 and T4

269
Q

Hyperthyroidism and enlarged thyroid:

A

Grave’s Disease

270
Q

What are the manifestations of Grave’s Disease?

A
  • Exopthalmia
  • Fatigue, muscle weakness
  • Weight loss with increase appetite
  • Rapid heart beat: usually die from heart problems
  • Anxiety and lack of sleep
271
Q

What consists of “STRUCTURAL REVERSIBLE CHANGES?”

A

The cells nuclear envelope is intact

1) Single Blebs
2) Loss of Ribosomes
3) Myelin Figures
4) Swelling

272
Q

What are single blebs?

A

Bulging of a cytoplasm of an injured cell. When we can see more than 3 is a sign of irreversible structural damage

273
Q

What are Myelin Figures?

A

Disruption of the cell membrane, it coils resembling the whorled pattern in the myelin formation; they appear due to separation of a cytoplasm

274
Q

What is swelling caused by?

A

Cell organelles due to INFLUX of water into them

275
Q

STRUCTURAL IRREVERSIBLE CHANGES and Nucleus _____

A

DEAD

276
Q

What is “Several Myelin figures?”

A

It becomes irreversible, and it is characterized by more extensive distortions, extensive swelling of the organelles and their destruction

277
Q

When is there an increase of cell membrane permeability?

A

With influx of sodium, calcium, and water

278
Q

If the nucleus is damaged what does this indicate?

A

Cell’s death

279
Q

What can Nuclear Damage be manifested by?

A

1) Karyolysis
2) Pyknosis
3) Karyorrhexis

280
Q

What is karyolysis?

A

Dissolution of nucleus within the cytoplasm

281
Q

What is Pyknosis?

A

Condensation of nucleus, it’s very tiny and packed

282
Q

What is Karyorrhexis?

A

Fragmentation of nucleus

283
Q

When there is irreversible changes the cell dies, this =

A

NECROSIS

284
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

A condition of cell death through injury of diseases, especially in a localized area of the body

285
Q

What is the paragraph definition of Necrosis?

A

Cytoplasm undergoes digestion by enzymes released from lysosomes and phagocytic cells. Lysosomes of necrotic cells release lysosomal enzymes for this purpose only when the cell is lethally. Cell digestion promotes elimination of the necrotic cell and thus speeds up the healing process.

286
Q

What are the Necrosis forms?

A

1) Coagulative
2) Liquefactive
3) Casseous
4) Gummatous
5) Zenker’s
6) Fat Necrosis (Seatonecrosis)
7) Fibrinoid
8) Gangreene
9) Apoptosis