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Flashcards in 1.0 Administration Part 1 Deck (100):
1

A written directive requiring compliance by all affected members of the Department for a period of two years. (1.01-III)
a. Department Order
b. Department Policy
c. Department Procedure
d. Training Bulletin

A

2

A Department publication that introduces training topics, defines subject matter, explains and discusses accepted practice, procedures, and philosophies. (1.01-III)
a. Department Order
b. Department Policy
c. Department Procedure
d. Training Bulletin

D

3

A written description of procedural steps that must be followed by all affected members of the Department until rescinded or superseded. (1.01-III)
a. Department Order
b. Department Policy
c. Department Procedure
d. Training Bulletin

C

4

A written expression of a guiding principle requiring compliance by all affected members of the Department until rescinded or superseded. (1.01-III)
a. Department Order
b. Department Policy
c. Department Procedure
d. Training Bulletin

B

5

A Department Order is effective for a period of how long from the date of the Order? (1.01-V)
a. 1 year
b. 18 months
c. 2 years
d. Until rescinded or superseded

C

6

Who is responsible for drafting, editing, revising, and publishing all Department Policies, Procedures, and Orders? (1.01-IV)
a. In-Service Training
b. The Chief's Office
c. Research, Analysis, and Planning
d. Operational Support Unit

C

7

Who is responsible for preparing and issuing Legal Updates? (1.01-V)
a. The Chief's Office
b. Watch Commander's Office
c. District Attorney's Liaison
d. Research, Analysis, and Planning

C

8

Who can recommend new Department Policies or changes to existing Policies: (1.01-VII)
a. Research, Analysis, and Planning Unit only
b. The Chief's Office only
c. Any member of the Department
d. Both a and b

C

9

Who can approve the release of Department directives outside of the Department? (1.01-XI)
a. Watch Commander's Office
b. Commanding Officer
c. Supervisor
d. Executive Assistant Chief of Police or designee

D

10

Department procedure 1.03 establishes guidelines to enhance the effectiveness of a pursuit and reduce the likelihood of incidents that could lead to potential liability. To initiate a pursuit, an officer must have ______ to believe the driver, or occupants have committed an infraction or misdemeanor in his/her presence? (1.03-V)
a. Reasonable suspicion
b. Probably cause
c. Intel from a reliable source
d. None of the above

B

11

Unless approved by a Field Supervisor, Field Lieutenant or Watch Commander, how many units shall only be actively involved in a pursuit? (1.03-V)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

B

12

When can officers "trail" or follow the suspect vehicle after being ordered to terminate the pursuit? (1.03-VIII)
a. Anytime, as long as they advise they are trailing
b. Anytime, as long as they do not have their red lights and sirens activated.
c. At officer's discretion.
d. Officers shall not.

D

13

Upon notification of a pursuit, a supervisor's responsibility DOES NOT include: (1.03-IX)
a. Proceeding to the vicinity of the pursuit and actively joining the pursuit
b. Verifying that no more units than necessary are involved
c. Determining as to whether it is safe to continue with the pursuit.
d. Consider factors to determine whether to add units to the pursuit.

A

14

Who has the authority to terminate the pursuit?
a. Communications
b. All Field Supervisors
c. Initiating/Pursuing Officers
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above

D

15

In the event the pursuit enters another agency's jurisdiction, who should generally have the responsibility for a pursuit in progress? (1.03-X)
a. The initiating agency
b. The jurisdiction's agency
c. The California Highway Patrol
d. There is no established protocol

A

16

Spike strips shall NOT be used to stop what type of vehicles? (1.03-XIII)
a. Compact vehicles
b. Cargo vehicles
c. Motorcycles
d. All of the above

C

17

Barricading a roadway is _____ prohibited unless approved by a Field Supervisor, Field Lieutenant, or the Watch Commander. (1.03-XIV)
a. Generally
b. Strictly
c. Not
d. Absolutely

B

18

Under which circumstances may a Pursuit Intervention Technique (PIT) Maneuver be used? (1.03-XV)
a. Only after the supervisor's approval
b. Only after the Watch Commander's approval
c. When pursuing felony suspects
d. Never

D

19

All police pursuits, including non-collision pursuits, shall be reported on what form? (1.03-XVI)
a. PD-145
b. CHP-555
c. CHP-187A
d. ARJIS-2

C

20

Who is responsible for completing the Pursuit Report? (1.03-XVI)
a. Pursuing officer's immediate supervisor
b. CHP supervisor
c. Pursuing officer
d. Field Lieutenant

A

21

The pursuit report should be forwarded to the commanding officer for approval and signature within how many days(s) of the incident? (1.03-XVI)
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

B

22

The pursuit report must be forwarded to the Fleet Safety Sergeant, Traffic Division, within how many days? (1.03-XVI)
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10

C

23

Described as behavior that consists of aggressive physical opposition to being physically controlled and conveys a threat of injury to the officer. (1.04-IV)
a. Active Resistance
b. Assaultive Behavior
c. Compliant Behavior
d. None of the above

B

24

Described as behavior that consists of a refusal to comply with verbal commands and conveys a threat to the officer of another person, or consists of physical opposition to attempt of control by the officer. (1.04-IV)
a. Active Resistance
b. Assaultive Behavior
c. Compliant Behavior
d. None of the above

A

25

The force needed to control a subject who engages in active resistance. (1.04-IV)
a. Distraction techniques
b. Deadly force
c. Greater Controlling Force
d. Lesser Controlling Force

C

26

The force needed to control a subject who engages in passive resistance. (1.04-IV)
a. Distraction Techniques
b. Deadly Force
c. Greater Controlling Force
d. Lesser Controlling Force

D

27

The Use of Force Matrix is broken down into five levels. The third level consists of the following: (1.04-V)
a. Control tactics, pain compliance
b. Neck restraint, chemical agents, taser
c. Hard impact and personal body weapons
d. Deadly force

B

28

Second level of the Force Matrix consist of the following: (1.04-V)
a. Control tactics, pain compliance
b. Neck restraint, chemical agents, taser
c. Hard impact and personal body weapons
d. Deadly force

A

29

When may an officer discharge his/her firearm? (1.04-V)
a. During authorized training at a target range.
b. When the officer has a reasonable belief that a subject (or animal) poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
c. As permitted by Department Procedure 6.09 (Handling of Injured Animals)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

D

30

Which use of force incident does NOT require a report? (1.04-VI)
a. Use of cord cuff
b. The pointing of a firearm at a person to gain compliance
c. The pointing of a taser at a person to gain compliance
d. Use of carotid restraint
e. None of the above. They all require a report.

C

31

If the Watch Commander or Field Lieutenant deems the use of force incident to be of significant magnitude, who will they notify and be given the opportunity to conduct an on scene investigation: (1.40-VI)
a. The local media
b. Internal Affairs Unit
c. Homicide Unit
d. Area Station Investigation Unit

B

32

Officers are limited to how many approved handguns for on or off duty use in their official police capacity? (1.05-IV)
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

C

33

Warning shots are prohibited except when? (1.05-III)
a. No one else is around
b. A cover unit is present and available to assist with deadly force
c. Suspect is only armed with a weapon other than a firearm
d. Under exigent circumstances
e. All of the above

D

34

Upon completion of an incident in which a shotgun round was chambered, who is responsible for unloading and reloading the shotgun? (1.05-III)
a. The officer to whom the shotgun was issued
b. The last officer who deployed the shotgun
c. The cover officer/passenger officer
d. None of the above

A

35

Firearms carried on-duty shall be of a type approved or issued by the Department. Firearms carried off-duty does not need to be approved by the Department.
a. True
b. False

B

36

In instances of lost or stolen handguns, the officer shall prepare a report and give copies of all reports to: (1.05-IV)
a. The Watch Commander
b. The Rangemaster
c. Operational Support Sergeant
d. The SWAT Armorer
e. None of the above

C

37

Any range officer may approve accessories added or alterations made to any firearm.
a. True
b. False

B

38

In order to obtain a waiver letter for the ten-day waiting period, officers must provide the Rangemaster with a purchase receipt that indicates which weapon information: (1.05-IV)
a. Make, Model and Purchase Price
b. Make, Model and Length of the barrel
c. Make, Model and Ammunition capacity
d. Make, Model and Serial number

D

39

Officers who come into possession of any loaded firearm shall always immediately unload the firearm. (1.05-V)
a. True
b. False

B

40

How many times shall an officer qualify with their off-duty firearm? (1.05-VIII)
a. Every quarter
b. Twice a year
c. Annually
d. Every change of shift

C

41

Any officer failing the proficiency shoot will be given how many additional "re-test" opportunities to achieve a passing score after the Original Test Failure? (1.05-VII)
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
e. No limit

A

42

Upon returning to duty after an extended absence, each officer authorized to carry a firearm shall pass a Department proficiency shoot with their duty firearm. Extended absence from duty, for reasons other than medical, is defined as absence for a period of how many days? (1.05-VII)
a. 60
b. 90
c. 120
d. 6 months
e. 1 year

C

43

Officers returning to duty from any medical restriction shall obtain a written authorization from the _____ permitting their participation in a proficiency shoot. (1.05-VII)
a. Immediate Supervisor
b. Rangemaster
c. Commanding Officer
d. Medical Assistant Unit

D

44

OC (Oleoresin Capsicum) may only be used on handcuffed prisoners who are: (1.06-III)
a. Violent
b. About to or causing injury to themselves or others
c. Causing damage to property
d. All of the above

D

45

OC may be used on passively resistant subjects. (1.06-III)
a. True
b. False

B

46

In calm, still air, what is the effective range of the Def-Tec Mark IV (3 oz. canister)? (1.06-III)
a. 3 to 10 feet
b. 5 to 10 feet
c. 5 to 20 feet
d. 7 to 15 feet

C

47

OC should NOT be used on a person who is completely restrained in a safety control chair. (1.06-III)
a. True
b. False

A

48

How long does the effect of OC generally last? (1.06-III)
a. 5 to 10 minutes
b. 10 to 20 minutes
c. 15 to 20 minutes
d. 20 to 30 minutes

D

49

When OC is used, first aid treatment must be done within _____ of applying the OC. (1.06-III)
a. 60 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 10 minutes

B

50

Who do officers return empty or damaged canisters for proper disposal and replacement? (1.06-III)
a. Divisional Supply Room
b. Immediate Supervisor
c. Operational Support
d. Any of the above

C

51

How often should chemical agents be checked? (1.06-III)
a. Once during quarterly inspections
b. Once during monthly inspections
c. Once during bi-weekly inspections
d. Once every week

A

52

How many volts of electricity pass between the taser probes when contact is made with the target? (1.07-III)
a. 500 volts
b. 800 volts
c. 1000 volts
d. 1200 volts

D

53

What is the effective range of the Taser Model X-26? (1.07-V)
a. 0 to 7 feet
b. 0 to 10 feet
c. 0 to 15 feet
d. 0 to 21 feet

D

54

What is the OPTIMAL range of the Taser Model X-26? (1.07-V)
a. 0 to 7 feet
b. 5 to 10 feet
c. 7 to 15 feet
d. 10 to 15 feet

C

55

How long is a full cycle of Taser deployment? (1.07-IV)
a. 2 seconds
b. 3 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 5 seconds

D

56

Tasers may be used more than once on a subject if reasonable to gain control over the subject. (1.07-VI)
a. True
b. False

A

57

Officers shall document the circumstances surrounding the use of the Taser. Where shall reporting officers send a copy of their reports to? (1.07-VII)
a. Internal Affairs Unit
b. Operational Support Administration
c. Research, Analysis and Planning Unit
d. All of the above

B

58

Who maintains a list of certified Taser instructors and certified Taser operators? (1.07-IX)
a. Operational Support Administration
b. Firearms Training Unit
c. Training Division
d. Research, Analysis and Planning Unit

C

59

The carotid restraint may be used on which subjects? (1.08-IV)
a. Passively resisting
b. Actively resisting
c. Assaultive
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above

D

60

Absent exigent circumstances, how many times may the carotid restraint be used on an individual during a 24-hour period? (1.08-IV)
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Three times
d. No limitation - as long as it only lasts 30 seconds each

B

61

Who shall officers notify as soon as practical whenever they render a subject unconscious by means of carotid restraint? (1.08-IV)
a. Supervisor
b. Cover Officer
c. Watch Commander
d. All of the above

A

62

Who shall the supervisor notify when a medical problem or injury has occurred during a carotid restraint application? (1.08-IV)
a. Commanding Officer
b. Field Lieutenant
c. Watch Commander
d. None of the above

C

63

FAA regulations require officers to attend a ____ training course prior to being allowed to fly while armed. (1.09-V)
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hour
c. 4 hour
d. 8 hour

B

64

How long prior to traveling must an officer take the TSA request form to the Teletype Unit so that a properly formatted message can be sent to the TSA? (1.09-V)
a. At least 8 hours
b. At least 10 hours
c. At least 24 hours
d. At least 48 hours

C

65

During the day of travel, along with a Department-issued identification, what else should the officer have with them to identify themselves? (1.09-V)
a. UAI Identifier
b. TSA Identifier
c. LEO Identifier
d. Both a and b

A

66

When flying armed, weapons may be displayed as long as proper badge and credentials are displayed as well. (1.09-V)
a. True
b. False

B

67

When flying armed, officers may carry chemical agents as well. (1.09-V)
a. True
b. False

B

68

When complaint is NOT classified as a Category One complaint? (1.10-IV)
a. Discrimination
b. Force
c. Criminal Conduct
d. Conduct

D

69

Which complaint is NOT classified as a Category Two complaint? (1.10-IV)
a. Service
b. Courtesy
c. Slur
d. Procedure

C

70

When a command accepts a citizen's complaint, the CCF (Complaint Control Form) will be completed and forwarded to whom? (1.10-V)
a. Internal Affairs Unit
b. Commanding Officer
c. Subject Officer's Immediate Supervisor
d. Chief's Office

A

71

The CCF (Complaint Control Form) has how many parts? (1.10-V)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

C

72

An investigation to a citizen's complaint will not be started until Internal Affairs does what? (1.10-V)
a. Speak to the complainant
b. Speak to witnesses
c. Speak to the subject officer's supervisor
d. Assign a case number

D

73

Which office receives citizen complaints as one of their primary responsibilities? (1.10-V)
a. Mayor's Office
b. Citizen's Review Board on Police Practices
c. Chief's Office
d. Internal Affairs Unit
e. All of the above

E

74

When a citizen calls Communications Division expressing concerns regarding the actions of an officer, how will Communications format the call? (1.10-V)
a. CCF
b. PSI
c. INFO
d. DC

B

75

Who is responsible for investigating Category One complaints? (1.10-VI)
a. Internal Affairs Unit
b. The Involved Command
c. Chief's Office
d. None of the above

A

76

Who is responsible for investigating Category Two complaints? (1.10-VI)
a. Internal Affairs Unit
b. The Involved Command
c. Chief's Office
d. None of the above

B

77

Category Two investigations shall be completed within how many calendar days from the date the complaint was received by the Department? (1.10-V)
a. 14 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

C

78

Category One complaints shall be completed within how many days? (1.10-VI)
a. 14 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

D

79

Who conducts criminal investigations of all incidents in which a Department member intentionally shoots at a person? (1.10-VI)
a. Homicide Unit
b. Internal Affairs Unit
c. Field Supervisor
d. Sheriff's Department

A

80

Who is responsible for investigating all shootings involving animals or accidental weapon discharges not resulting in injury? (1.10-VI)
a. Homicide Unit
b. Internal Affairs Unit
c. Field Supervisor
d. Sheriff's Department

C

81

Prior to beginning an interview for administrative investigations, Department supervisors will give a "Miranda Warning" to the Department members who are under investigation. (1.10-VI)
a. True
b. False

B

82

When the Internal Affairs Unit identifies misconduct after completing an investigation, who will review the investigation and determine what disciplinary action, if any, is to be taken? (1.10-VII)
a. Subject officer's immediate supervisor
b. Internal Affairs Unit Lieutenant
c. Subject officer's Commanding Officer
d. Chief's Office

C

83

If a member disagrees with the disposition or finding of the IA investigation, he/she may file a written rebuttal within how many days from the date he/she reviewed the case. (1.10-VIII)
a. 10 days
b. 14 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days

D

84

Who is responsible for maintaining a comprehensive central index of all citizen complaints received by the Department? (1.10-VIII)
a. Watch Commander's Office
b. Internal Affairs Unit
c. Chief's Office
d. Criminal Intelligence Unit

B

85

Who handles Pitchess Motions? (1.10-IX)
a. Internal Affairs Unit
b. City Attorney's Office
c. District Attorney's Office
d. Chief's Office

A

86

When was the Citizen's Review Board (CRB) established? (1.10-X)
a. November 1986
b. November 1987
c. November 1988
d. November 1989

C

87

The CRB was established with the passage of what Proposition in the City of San Diego? (1.10-X)
a. Proposition A
b. Proposition D
c. Proposition F
d. Proposition G

D

88

The CRB has how many members? (1.10-X)
a. 18
b. 23
c. 28
d. 33

B

89

All work related subpoenas will be accepted for service by the command/unit subpoena clerk if received a minimum of how many court days prior to the court appearance date. (1.11-III)
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

C

90

Who is responsible for recording appearance dates and preventing loss of subpoenas? (1.11-III)
a. Department members
b. Subpoena clerks
c. Court Liaison Unit
d. Unit Supervisors

A

91

As a result of a June 2005 court decision, what is needed from any sworn officer or civilian employee requesting an excusal from a subpoena in criminal cases? (1.11-V)
a. Supervisor's permission
b. Physician's note
c. Court Liaison permission
d. Declaration

D

92

Who shall members contact with a conflict when required to appear on separate cases on the same date and time? (1.11-V)
a. Immediate Supervisor
b. Court Liaison Unit
c. District Attorney's Office
d. None of the above

B

93

Regarding pretrial conferences, who should be advised in any cases in which the City might possibly be a party to any civil action? (1.11-VII)
a. City Attorney's Office
b. Court Liaison Unit
c. Police Legal Advisor
d. Chief's Office

C

94

Vehicles with "EXEMPT" license plates are allowed to park in red zones, or areas designated for passenger drop off or loading. (1.11-VIII)
a. True
b. False

B

95

Police Department members, who have become experts in their fields and are called upon to do work or testify for outside or private agencies on their own time, may NOT receive direct payment for such services. (1.11-IX)
a. True
b. False

B

96

Subpoenaed members must notify their supervisors at least how many hours in advance of the out-of-county court appearance for scheduling purposes. (1.11-X)
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours

C

97

A Police Department supervisor subpoenaed to testify about Department Policy and procedures must send a copy of the subpoena to the ______ for review. (1.11-XIII)
a. Police Legal Advisor
b. Court Liaison Unit
c. City Attorney's Office
d. Chief's Office

A

98

In regards to the receipt of Federal Subpoenas, members shall obtain a signed certificate of attendance form from the United States Attorney. (1.11-XIII)
a. True
b. False

A

99

Department vehicles may be left unlocked and unsecured when parked and unattended at a secured police facility. (1.12-IV)
a. True
b. False

B

100

The first duty of any member involved in a police equipment accident: (1.12-VII)
a. Notify the Immediate Supervisor
b. Notify the Watch Commander
c. Check the vehicle for damages
d. Notify the Radio Dispatcher

D