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Flashcards in 8.0 - Critical Incidents Deck (48):

The Department's __________ is tasked with the coordination of critical incident planning, training, response and exercises.
a. Critical Incident Management Unit (CIMU)
b. Incident Command System (ICS)
c. Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
d. Command Staff

A - Critical Incident Management Unit


The __________________ is the individual responsible for the command of all functions at the field level.
a. Officer-in-Charge
b. Incident Commander
c. Watch Commander
d. Field Lieutenant

B - Incident Commander


"Organization functions" refer to a standard set of ______________ major predesignated functions. (8.02V)
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

D - Five


The __________ is responsible for determining the scope of the ICS organization that is required. The organization will often include members of other departments and organizations, depending upon the type of incident. (8.02VI)
a. Chief of Police
c. Incident Commander
d. ICS Specialist

C - Incident Commander


In the Command Staff, The _______________ serves as the point of initial contact assisting agency personnel. (8.02VI)
a. Liaison Officer
b. ICS Specialist
c. Incident Scribe
d. Safety Officer

A - Liaison Officer


Only one Incident Command Post (ICP) should be established per incident. (8.03 - III)
a. True
b. False

A - True


When establishing a site for an ICP, one of the factors to be considered (if possible): (8.03-V)
a. Upwind and Downhill
b. Upwind and Uphill
c. Downwind and Downhill
d. Downwind and Uphill

B - Upwind and Uphill


The initial, critical step in preparing for a pre-emergency Contingency Plan. (8.04-V)
a. Tactical Intelligence gathering
b. Incident evaluation
c. Staffing
d. Assessment of resources

A - Tactical Intelligence gathering


What is the 2nd step in preparing a Contingency plan? (8.04-V)
a. Tactical intelligence gathering
b. Incident evaluation
c. Staffing
d. Assessment of Resources

C - Staffing


What is NOT incorporated into intelligence gathering? (8.04V)
a. Historical background
b. Meetings
c. Site examination
d. Assessment of resources

D - Assessment of resources


The 5th step in a Contingency Plan. (8.04V)
a. Tactical intelligence gathering
b. Staff briefings
c. Incident evaluation
d. Assessment of resources

B - Staff briefings


When an incident occurs spontaneously or does not allow for "pre-planning", a/an ___________ is developed.
a. Incident Command System
b. Incident Action Plan
c. Contingency Plan
d. Mutual Aid

B - Incident Action Plan


The ______ will be called to the scene of all Code-11 or Code-12 incidents dealing with hostages or barricaded subjects. (8.05VI)
a. Primary Response Team (PRT)
b. Special Response Team (SRT)
c. Emergency Negotiations Team (ENT)
d. Sniper Team

C - Emergency Negotiations Team (ENT)


The Department Operations Center (DOC) may be activated by ________. (8.06-IV)
a. The Chief of Police
b. The Duty Chief
c. The Watch Commander
d. All of the above

D - All of the above


Who is responsible for conducting DOC training for assigned personnel? (8.06 - IV)
a. Training Division
c. Operational Support Administration
d. Command supervisors



Who can activate the EOC (Emergency Operations Center)? (8.06-V)
a. The Mayor
b. The City Manager
c. A Department Director
d. Any of the above
e. None of the above

D - Any of the above


In the event of an emergency, who will contact the Watch Commander and request that a call-back be initiated? (8.07-IV)
a. Chief or designee
b. Field Lieutenant
c. Mayor
d. Incident Commander

A - Chief of designee


The _________ will initiate the call-back by sending a text message to all Chief Officers and commanding officers, including both sworn and civilian. (8.07-IV)
a. Operational Support Sergeant
b. Watch Commander
c. Field Lieutenant
d. CIMU Sergeant

B - Watch Commander


The IPCC (Investigative Personnel Control Center) shall be activated by the _________. (8.08-V)
a. Captain of Investigations II
b. Captain of Investigations I
c. Assistant Chief of Centralized Investigations
d. Watch Commander

A - Captain of Investigations II


Where shall the IPCC be located? (8.08-V)
a. Division Investigations Area closest to the incident
b. Mobile 3 - Incident Command Post
c. Room 213 at Headquarters
d. Any location where the Incident Commander establishes

C - Room 213 at Headquarters


Which is NOT a duty of a Public Information Officer? (8.09 - IV)
a. Issue Media Credentials
b. Designate Media staging/briefing areas near the Command Post
c. Escort news media personnel in and out of dangerous areas
d. Receive a general incident briefing from the Incident Commander

C - Escort news media personnel in and out of dangerous areas


The "Proclamation of Emergency" is necessary for requesting Mutual Aid. (8.10-V)
a. True
b. False

B - False


Which of the following is NOT included in the After-Action report? (8.10-IV)
a. Arrests (if any)
b. A synopsis of the events
c. A mission to be performed
d. Expenditures/Reimbursements

C - A mission to be performed


Mutual Aid may be used for labor strikes? (8.10-IV)
a. True
b. False

B - False


A copy of all Incident Reports will be sent to the Assistant Chief of Patrol Operations and ______. (8.11-IV)
a. Operational Support Administration
b. Watch Commander's Office
c. Internal Affairs
d. Fiscal Department

C - Internal Affairs


All police facilities will maintain an emergency plan for general emergencies (i.e., fire, bomb threats, power outages, etc.). Each facility, in coordination with Facilities Management and Development (FM&D), specialized response units and agencies will update their emergency plan how often? (8.12-III)
a. Annually
b. Semi-annually
c. Quarterly
d. Until superseded

A - Annually


CIMU is available to assist with development of individual facility plans. Which is NOT included as one of the sections in the plan? (8.12-V)
a. Evacuation Procedures
b. Disaster Situations
c. Bomb Threat/Found Bombs
d. Hazardous Material Accident/Release

B - Disaster Situations


How many types of "Code 100" are established? (8.12-VII)
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

A - Three


How many OPCON (Operational Conditions) levels are there? (8.12-IX)
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

C - Five


Once an OPCON activation has been initiated, who can cancel or modify the activation? (8.12-IX)
a. Watch Commander
b. Field Lieutenant
c. Incident Commander
d. Chief of Police or designee

D - Chief of Police or designee


Who has access to inner SWAT armory? (8.13-IV)
a. SRT Sergeants
b. SWAT Armorer
c. Assistant SWAT Armorer
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

D - All of the above


What is the initial patrol officer's response when dealing with barricaded suspects, hostage taker or suicidal individual? (8.14-V)
a. Contain the suspect
b. Isolate the scene
c. Establish a command post
d. All of the above

D - All of the above


During a hostage negotiation, what should NOT be done?
a. Encourage the suspect to come out
b. Attempt to establish a rapport
c. Attempt to give the suspect ultimatums or deadlines
d. Avoid calling attention to any hostage

C - Attempt to give the suspect ultimatums or deadlines


What is usually the most dangerous hostage-taker? (8.14-VII)
a. Subject involved in a Domestic Dispute
b. Political Terrorist
c. Criminal Unable to Escape
d. Under the Influence Individual

B - Political Terrorist


What is the absolute minimum distance for a perimeter for bomb incidents? (8.15-III)
a. 500 feet
b. 600 yards
c. 300 feet
d. 300 yards

C - 300 feet


On a radio call of a bomb threat who is responsible for the decision to evacuate an occupied building? (8.15-V)
a. First Officer on scene
b. Second Officer on scene
c. On Scene Supervisor
d. The Owner/Manager of the premises

D - The Owner/Manager of the premises


While on patrol you encounter 1/2 pound of commercially manufactured fireworks and some pyrotechnic material (no evidentiary value). What procedures should be followed? (8.15-IX)
a. Impound at area command property room for disposal
b. Have MAST respond
c. Transport fireworks to nearest fire station for disposal at the Captain's discretion
d. A and B
e. B and C

C - Transport fireworks to nearest fire station for disposal at the Captain's discretion


What is the initial safe distance for a hazardous material incident? (8.16-V)
a. 300 feet
b. 500 feet
c. 700 feet
d. 1000 feet

C - 700 feet


What is the MINIMUM safe distance for a container with a possibility of exploding? (8.16-V)
a. 700 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 2000 feet

D - 2000 feet


WMD can be categorized in five groups: (8.16-III)
a. Biological, Nuclear, Chemical, Daisy Cutter, JDAM
b. Nuclear, Tomahawk, Explosive, Chemical and Napalm
c. Incendiary, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Gasoline
d. Chemical, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Incendiary
e. Explosive, Radioactive, Explosive, Chemical, and Napalm

D - Chemical, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Incendiary


A written report must be submitted after any aircraft accident where there has been an injury or fatality, or in which property damage is sustained in excess of: (8.17-III)
a. $400
b. $1000
c. $2500
d. $4000

A - $400


The evacuation and isolation of a military aircraft crash site should be at least ______ to avoid exposure to fire, explosion, and other hazards or the destruction of evidence. (8.17-VIII)
a. 1000 feet
b. 1200 feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 2000 feet

C - 1500 feet


Paperwork associated with the disposal of hazardous waste (i.e. Hazardous Waste Manifest, Bill of Lading, or Recyclable Waste Transfer Receipt) is required to be kept on site for a MINIMUM of how many years? (8.19-V)
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

C - 3 years


If regulatory reporting is required, the Facility Coordinator should report the chemical release within _____. (8.19-VI)
a. 15 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
c. A reasonable time period

A - 15 minutes


Regarding a closed area during a disaster or other emergency, it is _________for persons to remain in the "closed" area after being told to leave. (8.20-V)
a. Not a crime
b. An infraction
c. A misdemeanor
d. A felony

C - A misdemeanor


What is NOT a method of Public Notification for evacuations? (8.20-VI)
a. PA systems
b. Telephones
c. SigAlerts
d. None of the above - these are all Public Notification Methods

D - None of the above


Where is the Volunteer Control Center (VCC) located? (8.21-V)
a. Headquarters
b. Central Division
c. Western Division
d. Traffic Division

B - Central Division


During Mass distribution of Prophylaxis, accepting medicine is __________. (8.22-VIII)
a. Mandatory
b. Necessary
c. Suggested
d. Voluntary

D - Voluntary