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Flashcards in 8.0 - Critical Incidents Deck (48):
1

The Department's __________ is tasked with the coordination of critical incident planning, training, response and exercises.
a. Critical Incident Management Unit (CIMU)
b. Incident Command System (ICS)
c. Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
d. Command Staff

A - Critical Incident Management Unit

2

The __________________ is the individual responsible for the command of all functions at the field level.
a. Officer-in-Charge
b. Incident Commander
c. Watch Commander
d. Field Lieutenant

B - Incident Commander

3

"Organization functions" refer to a standard set of ______________ major predesignated functions. (8.02V)
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

D - Five

4

The __________ is responsible for determining the scope of the ICS organization that is required. The organization will often include members of other departments and organizations, depending upon the type of incident. (8.02VI)
a. Chief of Police
b. CIMU
c. Incident Commander
d. ICS Specialist

C - Incident Commander

5

In the Command Staff, The _______________ serves as the point of initial contact assisting agency personnel. (8.02VI)
a. Liaison Officer
b. ICS Specialist
c. Incident Scribe
d. Safety Officer

A - Liaison Officer

6

Only one Incident Command Post (ICP) should be established per incident. (8.03 - III)
a. True
b. False

A - True

7

When establishing a site for an ICP, one of the factors to be considered (if possible): (8.03-V)
a. Upwind and Downhill
b. Upwind and Uphill
c. Downwind and Downhill
d. Downwind and Uphill

B - Upwind and Uphill

8

The initial, critical step in preparing for a pre-emergency Contingency Plan. (8.04-V)
a. Tactical Intelligence gathering
b. Incident evaluation
c. Staffing
d. Assessment of resources

A - Tactical Intelligence gathering

9

What is the 2nd step in preparing a Contingency plan? (8.04-V)
a. Tactical intelligence gathering
b. Incident evaluation
c. Staffing
d. Assessment of Resources

C - Staffing

10

What is NOT incorporated into intelligence gathering? (8.04V)
a. Historical background
b. Meetings
c. Site examination
d. Assessment of resources

D - Assessment of resources

11

The 5th step in a Contingency Plan. (8.04V)
a. Tactical intelligence gathering
b. Staff briefings
c. Incident evaluation
d. Assessment of resources

B - Staff briefings

12

When an incident occurs spontaneously or does not allow for "pre-planning", a/an ___________ is developed.
a. Incident Command System
b. Incident Action Plan
c. Contingency Plan
d. Mutual Aid

B - Incident Action Plan

13

The ______ will be called to the scene of all Code-11 or Code-12 incidents dealing with hostages or barricaded subjects. (8.05VI)
a. Primary Response Team (PRT)
b. Special Response Team (SRT)
c. Emergency Negotiations Team (ENT)
d. Sniper Team

C - Emergency Negotiations Team (ENT)

14

The Department Operations Center (DOC) may be activated by ________. (8.06-IV)
a. The Chief of Police
b. The Duty Chief
c. The Watch Commander
d. All of the above

D - All of the above

15

Who is responsible for conducting DOC training for assigned personnel? (8.06 - IV)
a. Training Division
b. CIMU
c. Operational Support Administration
d. Command supervisors

B - CIMU

16

Who can activate the EOC (Emergency Operations Center)? (8.06-V)
a. The Mayor
b. The City Manager
c. A Department Director
d. Any of the above
e. None of the above

D - Any of the above

17

In the event of an emergency, who will contact the Watch Commander and request that a call-back be initiated? (8.07-IV)
a. Chief or designee
b. Field Lieutenant
c. Mayor
d. Incident Commander

A - Chief of designee

18

The _________ will initiate the call-back by sending a text message to all Chief Officers and commanding officers, including both sworn and civilian. (8.07-IV)
a. Operational Support Sergeant
b. Watch Commander
c. Field Lieutenant
d. CIMU Sergeant

B - Watch Commander

19

The IPCC (Investigative Personnel Control Center) shall be activated by the _________. (8.08-V)
a. Captain of Investigations II
b. Captain of Investigations I
c. Assistant Chief of Centralized Investigations
d. Watch Commander

A - Captain of Investigations II

20

Where shall the IPCC be located? (8.08-V)
a. Division Investigations Area closest to the incident
b. Mobile 3 - Incident Command Post
c. Room 213 at Headquarters
d. Any location where the Incident Commander establishes

C - Room 213 at Headquarters

21

Which is NOT a duty of a Public Information Officer? (8.09 - IV)
a. Issue Media Credentials
b. Designate Media staging/briefing areas near the Command Post
c. Escort news media personnel in and out of dangerous areas
d. Receive a general incident briefing from the Incident Commander

C - Escort news media personnel in and out of dangerous areas

22

The "Proclamation of Emergency" is necessary for requesting Mutual Aid. (8.10-V)
a. True
b. False

B - False

23

Which of the following is NOT included in the After-Action report? (8.10-IV)
a. Arrests (if any)
b. A synopsis of the events
c. A mission to be performed
d. Expenditures/Reimbursements

C - A mission to be performed

24

Mutual Aid may be used for labor strikes? (8.10-IV)
a. True
b. False

B - False

25

A copy of all Incident Reports will be sent to the Assistant Chief of Patrol Operations and ______. (8.11-IV)
a. Operational Support Administration
b. Watch Commander's Office
c. Internal Affairs
d. Fiscal Department

C - Internal Affairs

26

All police facilities will maintain an emergency plan for general emergencies (i.e., fire, bomb threats, power outages, etc.). Each facility, in coordination with Facilities Management and Development (FM&D), specialized response units and agencies will update their emergency plan how often? (8.12-III)
a. Annually
b. Semi-annually
c. Quarterly
d. Until superseded

A - Annually

27

CIMU is available to assist with development of individual facility plans. Which is NOT included as one of the sections in the plan? (8.12-V)
a. Evacuation Procedures
b. Disaster Situations
c. Bomb Threat/Found Bombs
d. Hazardous Material Accident/Release

B - Disaster Situations

28

How many types of "Code 100" are established? (8.12-VII)
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

A - Three

29

How many OPCON (Operational Conditions) levels are there? (8.12-IX)
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

C - Five

30

Once an OPCON activation has been initiated, who can cancel or modify the activation? (8.12-IX)
a. Watch Commander
b. Field Lieutenant
c. Incident Commander
d. Chief of Police or designee

D - Chief of Police or designee

31

Who has access to inner SWAT armory? (8.13-IV)
a. SRT Sergeants
b. SWAT Armorer
c. Assistant SWAT Armorer
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

D - All of the above

32

What is the initial patrol officer's response when dealing with barricaded suspects, hostage taker or suicidal individual? (8.14-V)
a. Contain the suspect
b. Isolate the scene
c. Establish a command post
d. All of the above

D - All of the above

33

During a hostage negotiation, what should NOT be done?
a. Encourage the suspect to come out
b. Attempt to establish a rapport
c. Attempt to give the suspect ultimatums or deadlines
d. Avoid calling attention to any hostage

C - Attempt to give the suspect ultimatums or deadlines

34

What is usually the most dangerous hostage-taker? (8.14-VII)
a. Subject involved in a Domestic Dispute
b. Political Terrorist
c. Criminal Unable to Escape
d. Under the Influence Individual

B - Political Terrorist

35

What is the absolute minimum distance for a perimeter for bomb incidents? (8.15-III)
a. 500 feet
b. 600 yards
c. 300 feet
d. 300 yards

C - 300 feet

36

On a radio call of a bomb threat who is responsible for the decision to evacuate an occupied building? (8.15-V)
a. First Officer on scene
b. Second Officer on scene
c. On Scene Supervisor
d. The Owner/Manager of the premises

D - The Owner/Manager of the premises

37

While on patrol you encounter 1/2 pound of commercially manufactured fireworks and some pyrotechnic material (no evidentiary value). What procedures should be followed? (8.15-IX)
a. Impound at area command property room for disposal
b. Have MAST respond
c. Transport fireworks to nearest fire station for disposal at the Captain's discretion
d. A and B
e. B and C

C - Transport fireworks to nearest fire station for disposal at the Captain's discretion

38

What is the initial safe distance for a hazardous material incident? (8.16-V)
a. 300 feet
b. 500 feet
c. 700 feet
d. 1000 feet

C - 700 feet

39

What is the MINIMUM safe distance for a container with a possibility of exploding? (8.16-V)
a. 700 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 2000 feet

D - 2000 feet

40

WMD can be categorized in five groups: (8.16-III)
a. Biological, Nuclear, Chemical, Daisy Cutter, JDAM
b. Nuclear, Tomahawk, Explosive, Chemical and Napalm
c. Incendiary, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Gasoline
d. Chemical, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Incendiary
e. Explosive, Radioactive, Explosive, Chemical, and Napalm

D - Chemical, Biological, Nuclear, Explosive and Incendiary

41

A written report must be submitted after any aircraft accident where there has been an injury or fatality, or in which property damage is sustained in excess of: (8.17-III)
a. $400
b. $1000
c. $2500
d. $4000

A - $400

42

The evacuation and isolation of a military aircraft crash site should be at least ______ to avoid exposure to fire, explosion, and other hazards or the destruction of evidence. (8.17-VIII)
a. 1000 feet
b. 1200 feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 2000 feet

C - 1500 feet

43

Paperwork associated with the disposal of hazardous waste (i.e. Hazardous Waste Manifest, Bill of Lading, or Recyclable Waste Transfer Receipt) is required to be kept on site for a MINIMUM of how many years? (8.19-V)
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

C - 3 years

44

If regulatory reporting is required, the Facility Coordinator should report the chemical release within _____. (8.19-VI)
a. 15 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
c. A reasonable time period

A - 15 minutes

45

Regarding a closed area during a disaster or other emergency, it is _________for persons to remain in the "closed" area after being told to leave. (8.20-V)
a. Not a crime
b. An infraction
c. A misdemeanor
d. A felony

C - A misdemeanor

46

What is NOT a method of Public Notification for evacuations? (8.20-VI)
a. PA systems
b. Telephones
c. SigAlerts
d. None of the above - these are all Public Notification Methods

D - None of the above

47

Where is the Volunteer Control Center (VCC) located? (8.21-V)
a. Headquarters
b. Central Division
c. Western Division
d. Traffic Division

B - Central Division

48

During Mass distribution of Prophylaxis, accepting medicine is __________. (8.22-VIII)
a. Mandatory
b. Necessary
c. Suggested
d. Voluntary

D - Voluntary