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Epidemiology Final > Reo, Birna, Orthomyxo, Orthobunya > Flashcards

Reo, Birna, Orthomyxo, Orthobunya Flashcards

1
Q

Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection

A

False

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2
Q

Orbiviruses can be cultivated in vivo by inoculation of embryonated eggs

A

True

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3
Q

Genetic reassortments may cause significant antigenic changes in reovirus strains

A

True

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4
Q

Orbiviruses are serologically uniform

A

False

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5
Q

Orbiviruses are mainly arboviruses

A

True

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6
Q

Reoviruses are sensitive to lipid solvents and detergents.

A

False

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7
Q

Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses

A

False

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8
Q

Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in calves

A

True

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9
Q

Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in cattle

A

True

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10
Q

Avian orthoreo –and rotaviruses can cause runting sunting syndrome in chickens

A

True

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11
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses cause mainly nephritis and encephalitis

A

False

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12
Q

Infection of adult birds with orthoreoviruses usually remains subclinical

A

True

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13
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses usually transmitted by germinative route

A

True

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14
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses can cause damages in the bursa Fabricii

A

True

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15
Q

Mammalian orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis only in suckling animals

A

False

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16
Q

Orthoreovirus can cause tenosynovitis in pigs

A

False

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17
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses usually cause disease in adult birds

A

False

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18
Q

Tenosynovitis is one of the most frequent manifestations of avian orthoreovirus infections

A

True

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19
Q

Trypsin-sensititive avian orthoreovirus usually cause respiratory disease in birds

A

True

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20
Q

Yolk immunity does not influence the efficacy of vaccination against avian orthoreovirus

A

False

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21
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses may cause necrotic foci in the visceral organs of birds

A

True

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22
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses can cause inapparent infection in poultry

A

True

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23
Q

Orthoreoviruses can be detected by haemagglutination test

A

True

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24
Q

Trypsin resistant strains of Avian orthoreoviruses frequently cause diarrhoea

A

True

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25
Q

Trypsin sensitive strains of avian orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis

A

True

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26
Q

Horses usually develop lethal hemorrhagic enteritis in Orthoreovirus infections

A

False

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27
Q

Infection of adult birds with Orthoreoviruses usually remains subclinical

A

True

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28
Q

Orthoreoviruses can cause encephalitis in cattle

A

False

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29
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses can cause inapparent infections in poultry

A

True

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30
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses can cause poult enteritis-mortality syndrome (PEMS)

A

True

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31
Q

Infectious tenosynovitis can be prevented by vaccination

A

True

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32
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses infect only via inhalation and parenterally

A

False

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33
Q

Avian orthoreoviruses only infect via PO infections

A

False

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34
Q

All Avian orthoreoviruses can spread germinatively

A

True

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35
Q

Helicopter disease causes feather problems

A

True

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36
Q

Orthoreovirus infections cause immunosuppression in birds

A

True

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37
Q

Tenosynovitis is a frequent sign of Avian Orthoreovirus infection

A

True

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38
Q

Orthoreovirus mainly infects younger animals

A

True

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39
Q

Orthoreovirus causes respiratory and GI disease

A

True

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40
Q

Tenosynovitis is caused by only one Orthoreovirus

A

False

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41
Q

Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses

A

False

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42
Q

Rotaviruses are sensitive to environmental conditions

A

False

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43
Q

Rotavirus infection is sporadic within the herd

A

False

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44
Q

Rotavirus only infects mammals

A

False

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45
Q

Clinical signs of rotavirus infection are usually seen in animals older than 2 weeks of age

A

False

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46
Q

Swine is not susceptible to rotavirus infection

A

False

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47
Q

Rotaviruses predispose to E.Coli infection in suckling piglets

A

True

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48
Q

Rotaviruses are shed in the faeces in high titres

A

True

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49
Q

Rotavirus infection results in high mortality

A

False

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50
Q

Avian rotaviruses are transmitted by germinative infection

A

False

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51
Q

Losses due to rotavirus infection of young animals can be prevented by colostrum feeding

A

True

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52
Q

Rotaviruses usually cause enteritis in young (1-2 weeks old) animals

A

True

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53
Q

Clinical signs of rotavirus infection are usually seen in animals older than 2 weeks of age

A

False

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54
Q

Rotaviruses damage the mucosa of the large intestines

A

False

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55
Q

Rotaviruses are serologically uniform

A

False

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56
Q

Rotaviruses are typically transmitted via the faecal oral route

A

True

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57
Q

Swine rotavirus infection is frequently followed by E. coli secondary infection in piglets

A

True

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58
Q

Avian rotaviruses can cause tenosynovitis

A

False

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59
Q

Rotaviral enteritis of calves can be prevented by immunization of pregnant cows

A

True

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60
Q

Rotaviruses can cause chronic enteritis and persistent infection

A

False

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61
Q

Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle

A

False

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62
Q

Rotaviruses mainly cause respiratory disease in older animals

A

False

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63
Q

Rotaviruses typically cause respiratory disease in 3-6 month old calves

A

False

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64
Q

Rotavirus is species specific

A

False

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65
Q

Rotaviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis in birds

A

False

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66
Q

Vaccination of horses in the Americas is used to prevent rotavirus infections

A

True

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67
Q

Bluetongue is present only in tropical areas

A

False

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68
Q

Rodents serve as reservoirs of bluetongue

A

False

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69
Q

Ibaraki disease is clinically very similar to bluetongue

A

True

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70
Q

Ibaraki disease virus can be used to immunize cattle against bluetongue

A

false

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71
Q

Lameness is a frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep

A

True

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72
Q

Bluetongue virus can cause bloody diarrhoea in lambs

A

True

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73
Q

Bluetongue is named after cyanosis of the tongue

A

True

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74
Q

The bluetongue virus is vectored by midges/ gnats

A

True

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75
Q

Cattle can carry the bluetongue virus for years without symptoms

A

True

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76
Q

Wild birds play the most important role in the distribution of bluetongue

A

False

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77
Q

In Europe vaccination of small ruminants against bluetongue is mandatory

A

False

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78
Q

Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic

A

True

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79
Q

Bluetongue virus may cause foetal developmental problems

A

True

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80
Q

Lameness and abortion are signs of bluetongue

A

True

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81
Q

Bluetongue occurs only in Africa and Australia

A

False

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82
Q

Bluetongue is transmitted by ticks

A

False

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83
Q

Bluetongue virus is typically vectored by ticks

A

False

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84
Q

Bluetongue can be transmitted by semen

A

True

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85
Q

Goats are more resistant to the bluetongue than sheep

A

True

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86
Q

Goats are not susceptible to bluetongue virus

A

False

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87
Q

Vaccination against Bluetongue results serotype specific immunity

A

True

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88
Q

Bluetongue disease occurs only in Africa

A

False

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89
Q

Bluetongue virus infects also horses and dogs

A

False

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90
Q

Endothelial damages are the most important causes of the clinical signs of bluetongue

A

True

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91
Q

A serotype 8 of bluetongue virus strain caused severe outbreak in Europe in 2006-2009

A

True

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92
Q

Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur is summer and autumn

A

True

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93
Q

Sheep are less sensitive to Bluetongue than swine

A

False

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94
Q

Bluetongue causes transient infection in cattle

A

False

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95
Q

Bluetongue vaccines induce serotype-specific immunity

A

True

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96
Q

Bluetongue is named after the pseudo-melanosis of the tongue

A

False

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97
Q

Bluetongue also infects horses and dogs

A

False

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98
Q

Ibaraki disease virus immunizes against bluetongue

A

False

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99
Q

Bluetongue disease is present only in tropical and sub-tropical countries

A

False

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100
Q

Wild birds are the natural reservoir host of the Bluetongue virus.

A

False

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101
Q

In utero Bluetongue virus infection may result in immunotolerance

A

True

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102
Q

The most severe clinical manifestation of Bluetongue disease is usually seen in goats

A

False

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103
Q

Bluetongue is an Orbivirus

A

True

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104
Q

Bluetongue primarily spreads with blood sucking insects

A

True

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105
Q

Bluetongue replicates in endothelial cells of blood vessels

A

True

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106
Q

The causative agent of Bluetongue multiplies in endothelium

A

True

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107
Q

Bluetongue has 24 known serotypes

A

False

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108
Q

Bluetongue is an enteral disease of turkeys

A

False

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109
Q

Bluetongue causes symptoms mostly in sheep and goat

A

False

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110
Q

Bluetongue is not present in Europe

A

False

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111
Q

Bluetongue causes skin signs in bovine

A

True

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112
Q

Bluetongue also infects pigs

A

False

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113
Q

Bluetongue infects all hooved animals

A

False

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114
Q

No long-term carrier stage is observed in Bluetongue virus infections

A

False

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115
Q

Ruminants and swine are the most important hosts of the Bluetongue virus

A

False

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116
Q

Lameness is one of the clinical signs of Bluetongue disease in sheep

A

True

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117
Q

Serological cross protection exists between 25 known serotypes of Bluetongue virus

A

False

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118
Q

Ibarki disease is a Bluetongue-like disease in Asia and in America

A

True

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119
Q

The serotype 8 strain of the bluetongue virus, which emerged in Western Europe, does not cause clinical signs in cattle

A

False

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120
Q

The epizootic haemorrhagic fever is observed in the USA in wild deer

A

True

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121
Q

Epizootic haemorrhagic disease was described only in Australia so far

A

False

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122
Q

Epizootic hemorrhage fever is a Bluetongue-like disease of wild ruminants in America

A

True

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123
Q

African horse sickness is mostly a peracute disease

A

False

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124
Q

African horse sickness virus is endemic in Russia since 2008

A

False

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125
Q

The Infectious equine arthritis and the African horse sickness ay have similar clinical signs

A

True

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126
Q

Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in African horse sickness

A

True

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127
Q

African horse sickness is spread by ticks

A

False

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128
Q

African horse sickness is zoonotic

A

False

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129
Q

Frothy nasal discharge is a characteristic sign of African horse sickness

A

True

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130
Q

The subacute form of African horses sickness is causing oedema formation and heart failure

A

True

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131
Q

Encephalitis is the most frequent sign of African horse sickness

A

False

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132
Q

Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses

A

False

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133
Q

Carnivores are susceptible to African horse sickness

A

True

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134
Q

Occasionally carnivores may get infected with African horse sickness virus

A

True

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135
Q

The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly zebras

A

True

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136
Q

Subcutaneous oedema is a frequent symptom of subacute African horse sickness

A

True

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137
Q

Zebras are more resistant to African horse sickness than horses

A

True

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138
Q

Immunized horses may develop a chronic febrile form of the African horse sickness

A

True

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139
Q

Zebras are not susceptible to African horse sickness

A

False

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140
Q

Wild birds play the most important role in the spreading of African horse sickness

A

False

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141
Q

The chronic form of African horse sickness may be similar to EIA

A

True

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142
Q

African horse sickness is a communicable disease

A

True

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143
Q

In the pathogenesis of African horse sickness, viraemia lasts longer in horse than in zebras

A

False

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144
Q

The African horse sickness is endemic in Europe and in the USA

A

False

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145
Q

The signs of chronic African Horse Sickness and Equine Infectious anaemia may be similar

A

True

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146
Q

The natural reservoirs of the African Horse Sickness virus are mainly zebras

A

True

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147
Q

African horse sickness was transported to Europe by migratory birds

A

False

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148
Q

African horse sickness can cause encephalitis

A

False

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149
Q

African horse sickness is a notifiable (communicable) disease in Europe

A

True

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150
Q

African horse sickness can cause lung oedema

A

True

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151
Q

African horse sickness is prevented in Africa by combined vaccines

A

True

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152
Q

African Horse Sickness is a frequent disease, distributed worldwide

A

False

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153
Q

Respiratory signs are the most frequent symptoms in acute African Horse Sickness

A

True

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154
Q

The differential diagnosis of African Horse Sickness and Tetanus is rather complicated

A

False

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155
Q

African Horse Sickness is spread primarily by “small mosquitos”

A

False

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156
Q

Carriers for African Horse Sickness are zebras and donkeys

A

True

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157
Q

African Horse Sickness is not present in Europe today

A

True

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158
Q

African Horse Sickness is caused by an arbovirus

A

True

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159
Q

African Horse Sickness is caused by Orbivirus

A

True

160
Q

The most characteristic post mortem lesion in African Horse Sickness is haemorrhages and oedema

A

False

161
Q

Reservoir for African Horse Sickness is zebras and donkeys

A

False

162
Q

African Horse Sickness is presented mainly per-acutely in donkeys

A

False

163
Q

African Horse Sickness virus only infect horses

A

False

164
Q

Horses are more susceptible than zebra in African Horse Sickness

A

True

165
Q

Haemorrhagic meningoencephalitis is the most frequent sign of the African Horse Sickness

A

False

166
Q

The African Horse Sickness virus may infect dogs too

A

True

167
Q

The African Horse Sickness and the Infectious Equine Arteritis may have similar clinical signs

A

True

168
Q

African horse sickness is a world-wide distributed and frequent disease

A

False

169
Q

The subacute form of the African horse sickness is mainly characterized by oedematisation and cardiac dysfunctions

A

True

170
Q

Horse encephalosis is endemic in Africa

A

True

171
Q

Equine encephalosis can result in abortion

A

True

172
Q

Equine encephalosis is transmitted by mosquitoes

A

True

173
Q

Equine encephalosis causes the most severe clinical signs in Zebras

A

False

174
Q

Horse encephalosis occurs only in America

A

False

175
Q

Equine encephalosis causes high mortality

A

False

176
Q

Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are available against equine encephalosis

A

False

177
Q

Horse encephalosis appeared several times in Europe between 2006 and 2009

A

False

178
Q

Midges are the main vectors of the Equine encephalosis virus

A

True

179
Q

Bursitis virus / Gumboro disease targets the premature B lymphocytes

A

True

180
Q

The bursitis virus causes per os infection

A

True

181
Q

Meat type hybrids are more sensitive to Gumboro disease than layers

A

False

182
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens older than 8 weeks

A

False

183
Q

Some Gumboro disease vaccines can be applied only besides yolk immunity

A

True

184
Q

Watery diarrhoea is typical clinical sign of Gumboro disease

A

True

185
Q

There are several virulence variants of bursitis virus

A

True

186
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 weeks

A

True

187
Q

Bursitis virus is highly contagious

A

True

188
Q

Immunocomplex vaccines can be applied to prevent Gumboro disease

A

True

189
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 days

A

False

190
Q

Before vaccination against Gumboro disease the level of maternal immunity in the flock should be determined

A

True

191
Q

Anaemia and cyanosis can be clinical signs of Gumboro disease

A

True

192
Q

Bursitis virus causes the highest mortality in day old chicks

A

False

193
Q

Vaccines are available to control Gumboro disease

A

True

194
Q

In the prevention of Gumboro disease in ovo vaccinations can be applied

A

True

195
Q

The bursitis virus is very sensitive to the environmental conditions

A

False

196
Q

Bursitis virus causes disease only in chicken

A

False

197
Q

The bursitis virus can retain its infectivity for 1-4 months in the litter

A

True

198
Q

Both serotypes of bursitis virus are pathogenic

A

False

199
Q

Bursitis virus infection can reduce the efficacy of vaccinations

A

True

200
Q

Bursitis virus infection results in immunosuppression

A

True

201
Q

Bursitis virus is shed in the faeces

A

True

202
Q

Infectious bursitis can predispose chicken to Fowl Paratyphoid

A

True

203
Q

In Europe only low virulence strains of infectious bursitis virus can be found

A

False

204
Q

Infectious bursitis is a very contagious disease

A

True

205
Q

Pigeons are the most susceptible to IBDV

A

False

206
Q

Early IBDV infection damages the humoral immunity

A

True

207
Q

Both serotypes of bursitis virus are pathogenic

A

False

208
Q

The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection

A

False

209
Q

IBDV type 2 is used for immunization of chicken against infectious bursal disease

A

False

210
Q

IBDV is a zoonotic virus

A

False

211
Q

The infectious bursal disease virus is transmitted only vertically

A

False

212
Q

Anaemia and depression are frequent signs of infectious bursal disease

A

True

213
Q

Only inactivated vaccines can be used against infectious bursal disease

A

False

214
Q

The infectious bursal disease virus is very sensitive to detergents

A

False

215
Q

In Europe only low virulence strains of Infectious Bursal Disease Virus (IBDV) can be found

A

False

216
Q

The Infectious bursal disease virus (IBDV) is very resistant in the environment

A

True

217
Q

Infection of day-old chicken with IBDV may cause permanent immunosuppression

A

True

218
Q

Pathology lesions of the Infectious Bursal Disease can be similar to the Avian influenza

A

True

219
Q

Young chicken can be immunized only with inactivated IBDV vaccines

A

False

220
Q

Very virulent strains of the Infectious Bursal Disease virus (IBDV) may cause disease in chicken with maternally derived antibodies too

A

True

221
Q

IBDV does not cause disease in adult chicken (over 2 months of age)

A

True

222
Q

Fever, diarrhea and anemia are signs of the Infectious Bursal Disease

A

True

223
Q

Vaccines provide high level of protection against all IBDV strains

A

False

224
Q

IBDV serotype 2 is used for immunization of chicken against Infectious Bursal Disease

A

False

225
Q

Clinical manifestations of infectious bursal disease are seen mainly in chicken between the age of 3 and 6 weeks

A

True

226
Q

Moderately attenuated (“hot”) IBDV vaccines are used for the immunization of young chicken without yolk immunity

A

False

227
Q

The infectious bursitis virus has more than one virulence variants

A

True

228
Q

The infectious bursitis virus causes anaemia

A

True

229
Q

The infectious bursitis virus can be isolated on CAM

A

True

230
Q

There is no vaccine available against infectious bursitis virus

A

False

231
Q

The resistance of infectious bursitis virus is very high

A

True

232
Q

The infectious bursitis virus spreads by mosquitoes

A

False

233
Q

IBDV causes immunosuppression in chicken between 2-8 weeks of age

A

True

234
Q

By disinfection of the eggshell we can prevent IBDV infection

A

True

235
Q

Infectious bursal disease causes severe illness, mainly in waterfowl

A

False

236
Q

The most frequent sign of infectious bursal disease is lameness

A

False

237
Q

Only attenuated live vaccines are effective against infectious bursal disease

A

False

238
Q

Several antigenic and virulence variants of infectious bursal disease virus are known

A

True

239
Q

The infectious bursitis is usually seen in 3 to 8 weeks-old flocks

A

True

240
Q

The most frequent sign of infectious bursal disease is lameness due to the inflammation of the subtendinal bursae

A

False

241
Q

The infectious bursitis virus is inactivated within 1-2 days in the environment

A

False

242
Q

A frequent sign of the infectious bursitis is encephalitis

A

False

243
Q

The infectious bursitis virus does not cause any damage in chickens under the age of two weeks

A

False

244
Q

Influenzaviruses have segmented genome

A

True

245
Q

HPAI and LPAI strains differ in the number of basal amino acids in the HA protein

A

True

246
Q

HA protein of influenza viruses is responsible for the attachment to the cell

A

True

247
Q

The M2 protein of influenza viruses serves as an ion channel important in the decapsidation

A

True

248
Q

Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA genes

A

True

249
Q

The NA protein in the influenza virus is responsible for the release from the infected cells

A

True

250
Q

Enzymatic cleavage of the HA protein is needed for the influenza virus penetration into the cell

A

True

251
Q

Genetic reassortment of human and animal influenza viruses result in the occurrence of new human influenza strains

A

True

252
Q

Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza

A

False

253
Q

Antigenic shift is behind the influenza pandemics

A

True

254
Q

Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins

A

False

255
Q

Influenza causes persistent infection in donkey

A

False

256
Q

The serotype of influenza viruses is determined by their HA and NA proteins

A

True

257
Q

The influenza viruses cause respiratory signs in sea mammals

A

True

258
Q

The host range of influenza virus is determined by the NA protein

A

False

259
Q

The bird to human host switch of influenza virus is mediated by swine

A

True

260
Q

The main host of influenza is the swine

A

False

261
Q

In humans inactivated vaccines are used for the immunisation against influenza

A

True

262
Q

Antigenic drift is behind the seasonal influenza epidemics

A

True

263
Q

Antigenic shift means the reassortment of the influenzavirus genome segments

A

True

264
Q

Influenzaviruses are sensitive to drying out

A

True

265
Q

For the in vitro propagation of influenza viruses embryonated eggs is used

A

True

266
Q

The high virulence of some influenza A viruses is the result of mutations in the HA gene

A

True

267
Q

Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins

A

False

268
Q

Dogs are susceptible to horse origin influenza strains

A

True

269
Q

The HPAI strains can cause CNS Signs

A

True

270
Q

HPAI causes blood vessel damages and generalised infections

A

True

271
Q

The HPAI strains are usually developed from the H5 and H7 influenza viruses

A

True

272
Q

The LPAI causes immunosuppression

A

True

273
Q

Cat is susceptible to human seasonal influenza

A

False

274
Q

HPAI strains are mutations of LPAI strains

A

True

275
Q

HPAI strains belong into a certain haemagglutinin types

A

False

276
Q

Influenzas Causes enteric symptoms in human

A

True

277
Q

Anti-neuraminidase drugs inhibit the decapsidation of influenza viruses

A

False

278
Q

Swine recovered from influenza should not be kept for breeding

A

True

279
Q

Influenza causes high morbidity but low mortality in swine

A

True

280
Q

The HPAI causes skin haemorrhages in swine

A

False

281
Q

Swine influenza outbreaks occur usually during summer

A

False

282
Q

The mortality of swine influenza is high

A

False

283
Q

Swine influenza causes high morbidity rate

A

True

284
Q

To prevent complications of swine influenza penicillin injections are given to sick pigs

A

True

285
Q

Swine influenza is easily transmitted to people

A

False

286
Q

To prevent complications of swine influenza, antibiotics used

A

True

287
Q

In swine all influenza variants can be detected

A

False

288
Q

In a horse influenza outbreak all infected horses must be killed

A

False

289
Q

The generalized symptoms of horse influenza are result of the interferon response

A

True

290
Q

Racehorses should be vaccinated before the influenza season

A

False

291
Q

Breeding mares should be vaccinated before the influenza season

A

False

292
Q

Influenza causes persistent infection in horses

A

False

293
Q

The eggs produced in LPAI infected flock can be hatched

A

True

294
Q

The HPAI infection can be unambiguously differentiated from Newcastle disease by the clinical signs

A

False

295
Q

The HPAI strains can cause clinical signs in waterfowl

A

True

296
Q

In poultry farms LPAI may be endemic without clinical signs

A

True

297
Q

Waterfowl can carry the influenza viruses for long time

A

True

298
Q

Influenza viruses are shed by birds exclusively in the nasal discharge

A

False

299
Q

Avian influenza is zoonotic

A

True

300
Q

The virulence of avian influenza is determined by the i.v. pathogeny index and mortality

A

True

301
Q

Avian influenza can switch directly to human and cause epidemics with high case numbers as result of human to human transmission

A

False

302
Q

In birds all influenza variants can be detected

A

True

303
Q

Avian influenza of high economic impact is caused by HPAI strains

A

True

304
Q

Avian influenza virus is primarily spread through bronchial discharge and aerogenic route

A

False

305
Q

Avian influenza spread by bronchial discharge

A

False(?)

306
Q

All Bunyaviruses are transmitted by mosquitoes

A

False

307
Q

Bunyaviruses cause oral infection

A

False

308
Q

The virus causing severe fever and thrombocytopenia syndrome is transmitted by tick

A

True

309
Q

Several bunyaviruses are zoonotic agents

A

True

310
Q

Serological cross-reactions are frequent between related bunyaviruses

A

True

311
Q

All bunyaviruses are vectored by insects

A

False

312
Q

All bunyaviruses are vectored by ticks

A

False

313
Q

Orthobunyaviruses are transmitted by haematophagous arthropods

A

True

314
Q

Several virus species belong to Bunyaviridae family, many present only in tropical regions

A

True

315
Q

Bunyaviruses are typically arboviruses

A

True

316
Q

Bunyaviriuses has good antigens and good immune reaction

A

True

317
Q

The Aino virus causes foetal development problems and abortion in sheep

A

True

318
Q

Akabane virus is zoonotic

A

False

319
Q

Akabane virus causes foetal damages in dogs

A

False

320
Q

Akabane disease virus causes foetal damages in sheep

A

True

321
Q

Abortions and foetal malformations are the most typical signs of Akabane disease

A

True

322
Q

The Akabane disease is mainly seen in geese

A

False

323
Q

The Akabane disease can cause abortion in sheep

A

True

324
Q

The main symptoms of the akabane disease are foetal development disorders

A

True

325
Q

The main symptoms of akabane disease are the malformation of the fetus

A

True

326
Q

Akabane, Aino and Schmallenberg viruses cause similar disease in ruminants

A

True

327
Q

Akabane occurs in South-West Africa and is a disease of swine

A

False

328
Q

Schmallenberg virus causes disease only in Suffolk sheep breed

A

False

329
Q

Schmallenberg virus causes foetal damages in humans

A

False

330
Q

Schmallenberg virus causes foetal development problems more frequently in cattle than in sheep

A

False

331
Q

Schmallenberg virus is present worldwide

A

False

332
Q

Schmallenberg virus causes foetal damages in pigs

A

False

333
Q

Schmallenberg virus causes foetal damages in sheep

A

True

334
Q

Schmallenberg virius associated disease as 1st observed in 2011 in certain Western European countries

A

True

335
Q

The Schmallenberg virus causes severe disease in humans

A

False

336
Q

The acute signs of Schmallenberg virus infection in cattle are fever and reduced milk
production

A

True

337
Q

Rodents are the reservoir hosts of Schmallenberg virus

A

True

338
Q

In cattle Schmallenberg virus causes transient febrile disease with reduced milk production

A

True

339
Q

The Schmallenberg virus is a zoonotic agent

A

False

340
Q

Ticks are reservoirs and vectors of the Schmallenberg virus

A

False

341
Q

Schmallenberg virus was transported to Europe from South-America

A

False

342
Q

Schmallenberg virus emerged in Western Europe, in 2011, and spread rapidly in ruminants

A

True

343
Q

In sheep the Schmallenberg virus mainly causes foetal malformations

A

True

344
Q

Schmallenberg spread by midges vectors

A

True

345
Q

No human case report on Schmallenberg virus

A

True

346
Q

Pneumonia and abortion are the main signs of Schmallenberg virus infection in sheep

A

False

347
Q

Midges are the main vectors of Schmallenberg virus

A

True

348
Q

Signs of acute Schmallenberg virus infection in cattle are lower and reduced milk production

A

True

349
Q

Human is a competent host of Rift Valley fever virus i.e. the viraemic titre is high enough to infect the vector

A

True

350
Q

The Rift valley fever virus damages the blood vessels thus causes haemorrhages

A

True

351
Q

Wild rabbits are reservoirs of Rift valley fever virus

A

False

352
Q

Rift valley fever is a human only disease

A

False

353
Q

The rift valley fever virus causes foetal damages in sheep

A

False

354
Q

Certain European mosquito species are competent vectors of Rift Valley fever virus

A

True

355
Q

Rift Valley fever may cause high lethality in young ruminants

A

True

356
Q

Rift Valley fever virus is a zoonotic agent

A

True

357
Q

The Rift Valley fever virus can cause reproductive disorders in cattle and sheep

A

True

358
Q

Necrotic hepatitis is a lesion of Rift Valley fever

A

True

359
Q

Certain European mosquito species are competent vectors of Rift Valley fever virus

A

True

360
Q

Rift Valley fever may cause high lethality in young ruminants

A

True

361
Q

Rift-valley fever caused human epidemics in Africa

A

True

362
Q

Rift Valley fever virus caused severe human outbreaks in Africa and in the Arab peninsula

A

True

363
Q

The principle vectors of the rift valley disease are gnats

A

False

364
Q

Rift valley fever outbreaks are most frequently seen in horses

A

False

365
Q

Rift valley fever virus may cause 100% mortality in young susceptible animals

A

True

366
Q

In enzootic regions vaccines are used for the prevention of rift valley fever

A

True

367
Q

Nairobi sheep disease causes generalized infection in the animals

A

True

368
Q

Vaccines are available in endemic regions to prevent Nairobi sheep disease

A

True

369
Q

Nairobi sheep disease leads to abortion in the infected pregnant animals

A

True

370
Q

Nairobi sheep disease causes haemorrhagic enteritis in the infected animals

A

True

371
Q

Nairobi disease virus causes foetal damages in sheep

A

True

372
Q

The Nairobi sheep disease can cause abortion in sheep

A

True

373
Q

The most frequent sign of the Nairobi sheep disease is encephalitis

A

False

374
Q

Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis is a lesion of Nairobi sheep disease

A

True

375
Q

Nairobi sheep disease is zoonotic

A

True

376
Q

Nairobi sheep disease can cause haemorrhagic enteritis among sheep

A

True

377
Q

The most important symptom of the Nairobi sheep disease is nephritis

A

False

378
Q

Nairobi disease occurs mainly in sheep

A

True

379
Q

The leading symptom of Nairobi disease is renal insufficiency

A

False

380
Q

The Nairobi sheep disease is vectored by ticks

A

True

381
Q

Nairobi sheep disease primarily causes pathological changes in the kidney (renal
insufficiency)

A

false

382
Q

Small rodents serve as reservoir hosts of Hantaviruses

A

True

383
Q

Hantaviruses can cause renal failure in human

A

True

384
Q

Hantaviruses may cause respiratory disease in humans

A

True

385
Q

Hantaviruses causes haemorrhagic fever in humans

A

True

386
Q

Hantaviruses cause hemorrhagic fevers in rodents

A

False

387
Q

Hanta viruses can cause renal symptoms in humans

A

True

388
Q

Mainly rodents are the natural reservoir of hanta viruses

A

True

389
Q

Hanta viruses are naturally maintained by rodents

A

True

390
Q

In domestic animals Hanta viruses typically cause liver dystrophy

A

False

391
Q

Hanta virus infected people may develop severe renal failure

A

True

392
Q

Rodents are reservoir for Hanta virus

A

True

393
Q

Hanta virus cause renal disorders in humans

A

True

394
Q

Hanta viruses cause encephalitis in horses

A

False

395
Q

The Crimean-congo haemorrhagic fever is a human disease with headache, muscle pain and skin haemorrhages

A

True

396
Q

Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic fever virus is tick born

A

True

Epidemiology Final (7 decks)

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