10.7 Applicable Requirements Flashcards
(94 cards)
1
Q
What are the 3 types of criteria that maintenance is based on?
A
- Hard time.
- On condition.
- Condition Monitoring.
2
Q
What are the features of the Block System (Pyramid) maintenance schedule?
A
- Uses A, B, C, and D checks.
- Tasks are grouped together.
- Tasks increase with increasing flight hours.
3
Q
Which type of operators are more suited to the Block (Pyramid) system?
A
Long haul operators with older aircraft, which can have longer periods on the ground for downtime.
4
Q
What are the benefits of the block (pyramid) system?
A
Consistency, stable workload, efficient planning.
5
Q
What’s the negative of the block (pyramid) system?
A
Large gaps between checks, and long periods out of service.
6
Q
What are the features of the Equalised (progressive) system?
A
- Uses E checks.
- Contains same tasks as block system, but are shorter, equally sized, more frequent checks.
7
Q
Which operators are more suited to the Equalised (progressive) system?
A
Short-haul operators with newer aircraft, that require the minimum amount of downtime for maintenance.
8
Q
What are the benefits of the Equalised (progressive) system?
A
Balanced resources, more consistent workload.
9
Q
What are the negatives of the equalised (progressive) system?
A
Additional costs from repeated access more frequently.
Discovering large defects becomes an issue for time and money.
10
Q
Roughly how often are A-checks carried out?
A
Every 500-800 hours or 200-400 cycles.
11
Q
Can A-checks be delayed?
A
Yes, if certain predetermined conditions are met.
12
Q
How long do A-Checks normally last?
A
Can be done overnight.
13
Q
How often are B-checks usually carried out?
A
Every 4-6 months.
14
Q
How long do B-checks normally take?
A
Roughly 1-3 days.
15
Q
How can a complete B-check be performed, using only a series of A-checks?
A
By carrying out A-check 1 to A-check 10.
16
Q
How often are C-checks carried out?
A
Every 20-24 months, or by a specified amount of flight hours defined by the operator.
17
Q
How often do C-checks normally last?
A
1-2 weeks.
18
Q
How often are D-checks (heavy maintenance visit) carried out?
A
Every 5 years.
19
Q
How long can D-checks usually take?
A
2 months.
20
Q
Are Service Bulletins (SBs) mandatory?
A
Only if the SB is a result of an AD.
Otherwise, it’s up to the operator.
21
Q
What are the 4 compliance categories of SB?
A
- SB must be accomplished.
- SB recommend to be accomplished.
- SB for improvements.
- SB for Convenience/Option.
22
Q
Can an SB be cancelled once it’s been issued?
A
No.
23
Q
If a new SB is issued, what happens to the previous SB?
A
A revision to the invalidated SB must also be issued to stop its progression.
24
Q
What must SBs not be used for?
A
To cover other inspections, standard repairs, or maintenance practices.
25
What are the 3 main types of SB?
- Alert SB.
- Standard SB.
- Engine Conversion SB.
26
What defines an Alert SB?
Requires urgent attention from the operator, and generally only concern items affecting safety.
27
What sections is an SB broken down into?
1) Title > 2) Chapter keyword > 3) Brief statement of the work involved > 4) Summary.
28
What is an SB summary broken down into?
- Planning info.
- Material info.
- Accomplishment instructions + optional appendices.
29
What’s a SIL?
Service information Letter.
Not mandatory and just for info only.
30
Repairs must be carried out using data obtained from who?
The CAA or Part 21 DO.
31
What’s the recommended worldwide system for organising maintenance manuals?
ATA 100 system.
32
What’s the modern PC version of maintenance manuals widely used, known as?
ATA ispec 2200.
33
Who produces the AMM for an aircraft type?
The aircraft’s design authority.
34
What does ‘effectivity’ of a maintenance manual ensure?
Application to one particular aeroplane only.
35
What system is widely used for transitioning from PC manuals, to manuals on mobile devices?
S100D
36
What is a deactivation/reactivation index?
An index within the AMM that lists all MMEL and CDL items, that require a maintenance action, to their corresponding AMM task number.
37
What are ‘highlights’ in the AMM?
Provide the reasons for revisions and list temporary revisions, within a chapter.
38
What are the 3 preliminary pages to each chapter?
Highlights, List of Effective Pages, and Table of Contents.
39
Who provides the IPC?
The manufacturer.
40
Can the IPC be customised by the Operator?
Yes, but the drawings will show all components, weather they apply to the operator or not.
41
Where on the page would you find effectivity?
Bottom left
42
Where on the page would you find the Revision?
Bottom right.
43
What’s the purpose of the SRM?
Contains info and instructions for repair of primary and secondary structure, and recommended repairs.
44
Can the SRM be customised to a specific aircraft?
No.
45
What is the Wiring Diagram Manual broken down into?
- Aircraft Schematic Manual (ASM).
- Aircraft Wiring Manual (AWM).
- Aircraft Wiring List (AWL).
46
When it comes to troubleshooting, what’s the name of Airbus’ and Boeing’s manuals?
Airbus = TSM (troubleshooting manual)
Boeing = FIM (Fault Isolation manual)
47
Who issues Normal Revisions to maintenance documents?
Manufacturer or DO.
48
How soon must Normal Revisions be transmitted?
Within 10 days of the revision date, and added to the manuals as soon as possible.
49
Why are temporary revisions issued?
The manufacturer releases an amendment at short notice with no time to prepare a compelete revision.
50
Can temporary revisions themselves be revised?
No, they must be replaced by a new temporary revision.
Or they’re usually incorporated into the next normal revision.
51
Each MMEL is specific to what?
An aircraft type.
52
The CAA will only accept an application for MMEL approval from who?
The Type Certificate holder (manufacturer/designer).
53
What is a Cat A MEL rectification interval?
- No standard interval specified.
- Items to be rectified IAW MMEL.
- If in days or flight days, interval excludes day of discovery. If any other time period is used, it starts from when the defect is deferred.
54
What is a Cat B MEL rectification interval?
- Rectified within 3 calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.
55
What is a Cat C MEL rectification interval?
- Rectified within 10 days, excluding the day of discovery.
56
What is a Cat D MEL rectification interval?
- Rectified within 120 days, excluding day of discovery.
57
What is the Remarks/Exceptions column for?
Either prohibits or allows operation with a specific number of items inop, includes notes and symbols.
58
What is the name of the overall document in which the MEL and CDL are contained?
The DDL/DDG.
(Deferred defect list/guide).
59
Where must the DDG be stored/carried?
For large transport aircraft, on the flight deck.
60
What are the MEL and CDL described as?
Relieving documents, and are not to encourage aircraft operation with inop equipment.
61
What’s the definition of a calendar day?
24 hours, midnight to midnight, UTC.
62
What is the definition of commencement of flight?
When an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of preparing for Take off.
63
What is the definition of ‘if installed’?
Either optional or not required to be installed on all aircraft, covered by the MMEL.
64
What is the purpose of a ‘Check Flight’?
To ensure flight characteristics do not differ significantly from the normal characteristics of the type, and check performance against the manual.
65
What’s the purpose of flight testing?
Provides a basis to establish compliance with the CS’s.
66
What must be produced by the pilot, post check flight?
A check flight report, including any defects and a completed schedule.
67
After a check flight, Items requiring rectification must be marked as what?
‘R’.
68
After a check flight, Items requiring rectification and rechecking in flight, must be marked as what?
‘FT’.
69
Where can procedural information for Test flights be found?
FTM (flight test manual).
70
What does the Flight test manual include?
- Flight test instrumentation required.
- Additional safety equipment required (may include parachutes).
71
What does ETOPS stand for?
Extended range twin operations.
72
What’s the distance a non-ETOPS aircraft is allowed to fly from a suitable airfield?
60 mins flight time at cruising speed, with 1 engine inop.
73
In 2012, what term did ICAO replace ETOPS with?
Extended Diversion Time Operation (ETDO).
74
For an aircraft to utilise ETOPS, who needs the approval?
Both the Type AND the Operator.
75
What does ETOPS approval allow for twin engine aircraft?
Follow a route that has a point further than 1 hour flying time at cruise speed with 1 engine inop.
76
What does ETOPS approval allow for quad-engine aircraft?
The same as twin engine, but up to 180 mins.
77
What are the two methods for obtaining ETOPS approval?
Accelerated, or In-service.
78
What’s the ‘accelerated’ method for gaining ETOPS approval?
Does not require prior in-service experience with the candidate airframe/engine combination.
79
What’s the ‘In-Service’ approval method for gaining ETOPS approval?
Based on prior in-service experience with candidate airframe/engine combination.
80
What are the four ETOPS approval diversion categories?
- 90 mins or less.
- Above 90 mins up to 180 mins.
- Above 180 mins.
- Above 180 mins for twin engine aircraft with max pax config of 19 or less, and MTOM less than 45360kg.
81
What is an ETOPS significant system?
A system whose failure could adversely affect the safety of an ETOPS flight, continued or diverting.
82
What is a Group 1 ETOPS significant system?
Significant systems related to the number of engines on the aircraft.
83
What is a Group 2 ETOPS significant system?
A significant system NOT related to the number of engines on the aircraft.
84
What does AWOPS stand for?
All weather operations.
85
What Part does AWOPS fall under?
Air ops Part SPA.
86
What does AWOPS detail?
Requirements for operators that wish to carry out T/O and landings in low visibility, with or without electronic guidance systems.
87
To carry out AWOPS, who requires the approval?
Both the Type and the Operator.
88
What is a CAT I operation?
- Precision instrument approach and landing using ILS/MLS.
- Decision height (DH) not lower than 200ft and a runway visual range (RVR) not less than 550m.
89
What is a CAT II operation?
- Precision instrument approach and landing using ILS/MLS.
- DH below 200ft but not below 100ft.
- RVR of not less than 300m.
90
What is a CAT III (A) operation?
- Precision instrument approach and landing using ILS/MLS.
- DH lower than 100ft.
- RVR not less than 200m.
91
What is a CAT III (B) operation?
- Precision instrument approach and landing using ILS/MLS.
- DH lower than 50ft.
- RVR less than 200m but not lower than 75m.
92
What is a CAT III (C) operation?
- Precision instrument approach and landing using ILS/MLS.
- NO DH or RVR.
93
How can deferring faults in the MEL potentially affect AWOPS?
It may affect the certification status.
94
What’s the definition of Decision Height?
The lowest height at which, if no visual reference to the runway or its environment has been established, a go-around must be made.
