11: Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Which cancer is improved by surgical debulking?

A

Ovarian cancer

[Ovarian cancer is one of the few tumors for which surgical debulking improves chemotherapy (not seen in other tumors).]

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2
Q

What does suspicious lymphadenopathy at the following locations indicate?

  • Supraclavicular nodes
  • Axillary nodes
  • Periumbilical nodes
A
  • Supraclavicular nodes: Neck, breast, lung, stomach (Virchow’s node), or pancreas cancer
  • Axillary nodes: Lymphoma (#1), breast cancer, ;or melanoma
  • Periumbilical nodes: Pancreatic cancer (Sister Mary Joseph’s node)
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3
Q

What do elevations in the following tumor markers suggest?

  • PSA
  • NSE
  • BRCA I & II
  • Chromogranin A
  • Ret oncogene
A
  • PSA: Prostate cancer
  • NSE: Small cell lung cancer, neuroblastoma
  • BRCA I & II: Breast cancer
  • Chromogranin A: Carcinoid tumor
  • Ret oncogene: Thyroid medullary cancer

[PSA is thought to be the tumor marker with the highest sensitivity although specificity is low.]

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4
Q

Which chromosome are the following tumor suppressor genes located on and what process are they involved in?

  • DCC
  • bcl
  • BRCA
A
  • DCC: Chromosome 18, involved in cell adhesion
  • bcl: Chromosome 18 (often gets translocated) Involved in apoptosis
  • BRCA: BRCA-1 is on chromosome 17, BRCA-2 is on chromosome 13, Involved in DNA repair
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5
Q

Which two tumors are particularly susceptible to XRT and which two tumors are not?

A
  • Susceptible: Seminomas, lymphomas
  • Resistant: Epithelial tumors, sarcomas

[Large tumors are less responsive to XRT due to lack of oxygen in the tumor.]

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6
Q

What is the clinical question that one is attempting to answer in each of the following phases of clinical trials?

  • Phase I
  • Phase II
  • Phase III
  • Phase IV
A
  • Phase I: Is it safe and at what dose?
  • Phase II: Is it effective?
  • Phase III: Is it better than existing therapy?
  • Phase IV: Implementation and marketing
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7
Q

What do elevations in the following tumor markers suggest?

  • CEA
  • AFP
  • CA 19-9
  • CA 125
  • Beta-HCG
A
  • CEA: Colon cancer
  • AFP: Liver cancer
  • CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
  • CA 125: Ovarian cancer
  • Beta-HCG: Testicular cancer, choriocarcinoma
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8
Q

What is defective with a mutation in the following proto-oncogenes?

  • ras
  • src
  • sis
  • erb B
  • myc
A
  • ras: G-protein defect
  • src: Tyrosine kinase defect
  • sis: Platelet-derived growth factor receptor defect
  • erb B: Epidermal growth factor receptor defect
  • myc: Transcription factor (mutation leads to constitutive expression)
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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the below chemotherapy agents?

  • Methotrexate
  • 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
  • Doxorubicin
  • Etoposide
A
  • Methotrexate: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis
  • 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU): Inhibits thymidylate synthestase which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis
  • Doxorubicin: DNA intercalator that inhibits the progression of topoisomerase II once it has broken the DNA chain for replication, preventing the DNA double helix from being resealed and therby stopping replication
  • Etoposide: Inhibits topoisomerase by forming a ternary complex with DNA and topoisomerase II, preventing re-ligation of DNA strands and causing DNA strands to break
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10
Q

Which chromosome are the following tumor suppressor genes located on and what process are they involved in?

  • Retinoblastoma
  • p53
  • APC
A
  • Retinoblastoma: Chromosome 13, involved in cell cycle regulation
  • p53: Chromosome 17, normal gene induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis (abnormal gene allows unrestrained cell growth)
  • APC: Chromosome 5, involved with cell cycle regulation and movement
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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the below chemotherapy agents?

  • Taxol
  • Vincristine and Vinblastine
  • Cisplatin and Carboplatin
  • Cyclophosphamide
A
  • Taxol: Promotes microtubule formation and stabilization that cannot be broken down, causing cells to rupture
  • Vincristine and Vinblastine: Microtubule inhibitors that bind tubulin and stop the cell from separating its chromosomes during metaphase, causing the cell to undergo apoptosis
  • Cisplatin and Carboplatin: Platinum alkylating agents that crosslink DNA, inhibiting DNA repair and/or synthesis
  • Cyclophosphamide: Acrolein is the active metabolite. It is an alkylating agent that transfers alkyl groups, forming irreversible covalent bonds to DNA and inducing apoptosis
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12
Q

Mutations in which 4 genes can lead to colon cancer?

A
  • APC (cell cycle regulation and movement)
  • p53 (Cell cycle regulation)
  • DCC (Cell adhesion)
  • K-ras: (G protein signal transduction)

[APC is thought to be the initial step in the evolution of colorectal cancer. Colon cancer usually doesnt go to the bone.]

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13
Q

Which solid tumors are curable with chemotherapy alone?

A

Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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14
Q

What does a PET-scan detect on a chemical level?

A

Fluorodeoxyglucose molecules

[Used to detect metastasis.]

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15
Q

What can be administered for neutrophil recovery after chemotherapy?

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF)

[Pharmaceutical analogs of naturally occuring GCSF are called filgrastim and lenograstim. GCSF is a glycoprotein that stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes and stem cells and release them into the bloodstream. GCSF can cause Sweet’s syndrome (acute febrile neutropenic dermatitis).]

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16
Q

What are the half lives of the following tumor markers?

  • CEA
  • PSA
  • AFP
A
  • CEA: 18 days
  • PSA: 18 days
  • AFP: 5 days
17
Q

What is/are the main side effect(s) of the below chemotherapy agents?

  • Bleomycin and Busulfan
  • Vincristine
  • Vinblastine
  • Cisplatin
A
  • Bleomycin and Busulfan: Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Vincristine: Peripheral neuropathy, Neurotoxicity
  • Vinblastine: Myelosuppression
  • Cisplatin: Nephro/neuro/oto-toxic
18
Q

Which stage of the cell cycle is most vulnerable to radiation therapy (XRT)?

A

M phase

[Most damage is done by formation of oxygen radicals. Maximal effect occurs with high oxygen levels. The main target of XRT is DNA. Higher energy radiation has a skin-preserving effect (maximal ionizing potential not reached until deeper structures).]

19
Q

What is/are the main side effect(s) of the below chemotherapy agents?

  • Carboplatin
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Methotrexate
  • Doxorubicin
A
  • Carboplatin: Myelosuppression
  • Cyclophosphamide: Gonadal dysfunction, SIADH, hemorrhagic cystitis (Mesna can help with hemorrhagic cystitis)
  • Methotrexate: Renal toxicity, radiation recall (inflammation reaction confined to previously irradiated areas)
  • Doxorubicin: Cardiac toxicity secondary to O2 radicals
20
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrom is characterized by childhood sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, leukemia, and adrenal cancer, and is caused by a defect in which gene?

A

p53

21
Q

What are the 3 reasons to fractionate XRT doses?

A
  1. Allows repair of normal cells
  2. Allows re-oxygenation of tumor
  3. Allows redistribution of tumor cells in cell cycle
22
Q

Where is the most likely primary tumor with the following metastases?

  • Ovarian metastases
  • Bone metastases
  • Skin metastases
  • Small bowel metastases
A
  • Ovarian metastases: Stomach (Krukenberg tumor), colon
  • Bone metastases: Breast (#1), prostate
  • Skin metastases: Breast, melanoma
  • Small bowel metastases: Melanoma (#1)
23
Q

What is the 5-year survival of colon cancer metastases to the liver if successfully resected?

A

35%

[Prognostic indicators for survival include disease free interval > 12 months, tumor number < 3, CEA < 200, size < 5cm, negative nodes.]

24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Leucovorin and what effect does it have on methotrexate and 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)?

A
  • Leucovorin (folinic acid) is a 5-formyl derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid that is readily converted to other reduced folic acid derivatives, giving it vitamin activity equivalent to that of folic acid. Since it does not require the action of dihydrofolate reductase for its conversion, its function as a vitamin is unaffected by inhibition of this enzyme by drugs such as methotrexate.
  • Methotrexate: Leucovorin reverses the effects of methotrexate by re-supplying folate
  • 5-FU: Leucovorin increases toxicity of 5-FU
25
Q

Which virus is implicated in the following cancers?

  • Cervical cancer
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Various types of lymphoma
A
  • Cervical cancer: Human papillomavirus
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma: Hepatitis B and C viruses
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma: Epstein Barr virus
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma: Epstein Barr virus
  • Various types of lymphoma: Human immunodeficiency virus

[Helicobacter pylori (not a virus) is implicated in gastric cancer.]

26
Q

What are the two main HIV-related malignancies?

A
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
27
Q

How does Tamoxifen affect the risk developing the the following?

  • 5-year risk of breast cancer
  • Risk of developing a blood clot
  • Risk of developing endometrial cancer
A
  • 5-year risk of breast cancer: 45% risk reduction
  • Risk of developing a blood clot: 1% risk
  • Risk of developing endometrial cancer: 0.1% risk
28
Q

Which two metastatic cancers are most successfully cured with surgery?

A
  • Colon cancer with mets to the liver
  • Sarcoma with mets to the lung

[Overall survival is still low for these.]