Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Absite > 6: Antibiotics > Flashcards

6: Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the appropriate peak and trough level of Gentamicin?

A
  • Peak 6-10 ug/mL
  • Trough Less than 1 ug/mL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main side effect of Carbapenems such as Meropenem or Imipenem?

A

Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antibiotics are effective against Enterococcus?

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Timentin/Zosyn
  3. Ampicillin/Amoxicillin
  4. Genatmicin + Ampicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which bacteria do Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, Tobramycin) treat?

A
  • Gram negative rods
  • Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia
  • Not effective for anearobes
  • Synergistic with Ampicillin for Enterococcus (Beta-lactams facilitate aminoglycoside penetration)

[Resistance due to modifying enzymes leading to decreased active transport. Side effects: reversible nephrotoxicity, irreversible ototoxicitiy]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which class of antibiotics functions as a PABA analogue and inhibits purine synthesis?

A

Sulfonamides

[sulfonamide functions by competitively inhibiting enzymatic reactions involving para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA). PABA is needed in enzymatic reactions that produce folic acid, which acts as a coenzyme in the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. Mammals do not synthesize their own folic acid so are unaffected by PABA inhibitors, which selectively kill bacteria]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which bacteria do third-generation cephalosporins (IE Ceftriaxone, Ceftazidime, and Cefotaxime) treat?

A
  • Gram negative rods (+/- anaerobic coverage)
  • Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia
  • Not effective for Enterococcus

[Side effects: cholestatic jaundice. Ceftriaxone is associated with sludging in the gallbladder]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which bacteria do Ticarcillin and Pipercillin treat?

A
  • Gram negative rods
  • Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia

[Side effects: they inhibit platelets]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Echinocandins such as Anidulafungin (Eraxis)?

A

It inhibits synthesis of cell wall glucan

[This is the go-to drug for candidemia]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance of methicillin-resistant Staph Aureus (MRSA)?

A

Mutation of cell wall-binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mechanism of bacterial resistance to Penicillin?

A

Plasmid carrying gene for beta-lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which bacteria does the Streptogramin: Synercid (Quinupristin/Dalfopristin) treat?

A

Gram positive cocci (Including MRSA and VRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which 5 antibiotics or classes of antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Carbapenems
  4. Monobactams
  5. Vancomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are Iodophors like Betadine effective against?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Gram negative rods

[Poor against fungi]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Amphotericin?

A

Binds sterols in the wall and alters membrane permeability

[This is the go-to drug for fungal sepsis other than candida and aspergillus. Side effects: nephrotoxic, fever, hypokalemia, hypotension, anemia. Liposomal type has fewer side effects.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Voriconazole and Itraconazole?

A

They inhibit ergosterol synthesis, which is needed for the cell membrane

[Voriconazole is the go-to drug for invasive aspergillosis. Itraconazole is the go-to drug for a patient on prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotics.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the frequency of dosing of Zosyn?

A

QID dosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which infections are treated with Acyclovir and which are treated with Ganciclovir?

A
  • Acyclovir: HSV, EBV
  • Ganciclovir: CMV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Acyclovir?

A

It inhibits viral DNA polymerase

[Used for HSV and EBV infections]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which bacteria do first-generation cephalosporins (IE Cefazolin and Cephalexin) treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci (Staph and Strep)
  • Not effective for enterococcus
  • Does not penetrate the CNS

[Ancef (Cefazolin) has the longest half-life, making it best for prophylaxis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bacteria do Unasyn (Ampicillin/Sulbactam) and Augmentin (Amoxicillin/Clavulanic acid) specifically cover?

A
  • Gram positive cocci (staph and strep)
  • Gram negative rods
  • +/- anaerobic coverage
  • Enterococci

[Broad spectrum but is not effective for pseudomonas, acinetobacter, or serratia]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the side effect of Ethambutol?

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which 3 antibiotics or classes of antibiotics work by inhibiting the 50s ribosome and protein synthesis?

A
  1. Erythromycin
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Synercid

[Erythromycin is a macrolide. Synercid is a combination of Quinupristin and Dalfopristin, both of which are streptogramins]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which class of antibiotic works by inhibiting DNA helicase (DNA gyrase)?

A

Quinolones

24
Q

Which bacteria do second-generation cephalosporins (IE Cefoxitin, Cefotetan, and Cefuroxime) treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci (less staph activity)
  • Gram negative rods (effective only for community-acquired GNRs)
  • +/- anaerobic coverage
  • Not effective for Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, or Serratia

[Cefotetan has longest half-life, making it best for prophylaxis]

25
Q

Which bacteria do macrolides (Erythromycin) treat?

A

Gram positive cocci (best for community-acquired pneumonia and atypical pneumonias)

[Binds motilin receptor and is prokinetic for bowel. Side effects: Nausea, cholestasis]

26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Rifampin?

A

It inhibits RNA polymerase

[High rate of resistance. Side effects: hepatoxicity, GI symptoms]

27
Q

Which bacteria does Tetracycline treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Gram negative rods
  • Syphilis

[Side effects: tooth discoloration in children]

28
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance of Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)?

A

Mutation in cell-wall binding protein

29
Q

Which 3 antibiotics or classes of antibiotics work by inhibiting the 30s ribosome and protein synthesis?

A
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Aminoglycosides (Tobramycin, Gentamicin)
  3. Linezolid
30
Q

Which antibiotic works by producing oxygen radicals that breakup DNA?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

31
Q

Which bacteria does Clindamycin treat?

A
  • Anaerobes
  • Some gram positive cocci
  • Clostridium perfringens

[Good for aspiration pneumonia. Side effects: pseudomembranous colitis]

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Isoniazid?

A

It inhibits mycolic acids

[Must be given with Pyridoxine. Side effects: hepatotoxicity, B6 deficiency]

33
Q

Which 4 antibiotics are bacteriostatic?

A
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Bactrim

[Aminoglycosides have irreversible binding to ribosome and are considered bactericidal]

34
Q

What is the appropriate adjustment to drug administration if the trough is too high?

A

Decrease the frequency of the doses (increase the time interval between doses)

35
Q

Which bacteria does Linezolid (Oxazolidinones) treat?

A

Gram positive cocci (including MRSA and VRE)

36
Q

Which bacteria does Bactrim (Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole) treat?

A
  • Gram negative rods
  • +/- Gram positive cocci
  • Not effective for Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia

[Side effects: teratogenic, allergic reactions, renal damage, Stevens-Johnson syndrome (erythema multiforme), hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients]

37
Q

What is the difference between the coverage of Ampicillin and the coverage of penicillin?

A

Ampicillin has the coverage of penicillin plus coverage of enterococci

[Penicillin covers gram positive cocci, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus, syphilis, Neisseria meningitides (GPR), Clostridium perfringens (GPR), and anthrax.]

38
Q

Which bacteria does Monobactam (Aztreonam) treat?

A
  • Gram negative rods
  • Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia
39
Q

Why and when are perioperative antibiotics given?

A

They are given within 1 hour before incision to prevent surgical site infections.

40
Q

Which antibiotic works by inhibiting RNA polymerase?

A

Rifampin

41
Q

Which antibiotics are effective against Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia?

A
  • Ticarcillin/Piperacillin
  • Timentin/Zosyn
  • 3rd-generation Cephalosporins
  • Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin and Tobramycin)
  • Meropenem/Imipenem
  • Fluoroquinolones

[Pseudomonas should be double covered]

42
Q

Which bacteria do Oxacillin and nafcillin specifically treat?

A

Staphylococcus only

[Anti-staph penicillins]

43
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ganciclovir?

A

It inhibits viral DNA polymerase

[Used for CMV infections. Side effects: decreased bone marrow, CNS toxicity.]

44
Q

Which bacteria do Timentin (Ticarcillin/Clavulanic acid) and Zosyn (Piperacillin/Sulbactam) treat??

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Gram negative rods
  • Anaerobes
  • Enterococci, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia

[Side effects: they inhibit platelets]

45
Q

Which type of agent kills and inhibits organisms on inanimate objects?

A

Disinfectant

46
Q

What is the mechanism of bacterial resistance to Gentamicin?

A

Modifying enzymes that lead to a decrease in active transport of gentamicin into the bacteria

47
Q

Which bacteria does Metronidazole (Flagyl) treat?

A

Anaerobes

[Side effects: Disulfuram-like reaction, peripheral neuropathy (long-term use)]

48
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which inhibits purine synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim

49
Q

Which bacteria do Penicillins specifically treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci (beta-hemolytic strep)
  • Syphilis (Treponema pallidum - Spirochete)
  • Neisseria meningitides (GPR)
  • Clostridium perfringens (GPR)
  • Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis - GPR)

[Not effective against staphylococcus or enterococcus]

50
Q

Which bacteria do Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Norfloxacin) treat?

A
  • Some gram positive cocci
  • Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, and Serratia
  • Not effective for Enterococcus
  • 40% of MRSA is sensitive (same efficay PO and IV)

[Ciprofloxacin has BID dosing. Levofloxacin has QD dosing]

51
Q

What is the appropriate adjustment to drug administration if the peak is too high?

A

Decrease the amount of each dose

52
Q

Which bacteria do Carbapenems (Meropenem, Imipenem) treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Gram negative rods
  • Anaerobes
  • Not effective for MEP (MRSA, Enterococcus, and Proteus)

[Must be given with Cilastatin to prevent renal hydrolysis of the drug, thus increasing its half-life. Side effects: Seizures]

53
Q

Which bacteria does Vancomycin treat?

A
  • Gram positive cocci (including MRSA)
  • Enterococcus
  • Clostridium Difficile

[Binds cell wall proteins. Resistance develops from a change in cell wall-binding protein. Side effects: HTN, Redman syndrome (histamine release), nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity]

54
Q

Which type of agent kills and inhibits organisms on the body?

A

Antiseptic

55
Q

What is the appropriate peak and trough level of Vancomycin?

A
  • Peak 20-40 ug/mL
  • Trough 5-10 ug/mL
56
Q

What is the most common method of antibiotic resistance?

A

Transfer of plasmids

57
Q

What is chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens) effective against?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Gram negative rods
  • Fungi

Absite (47 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions