19: Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

What are the boundaries of the anterior neck triangle?

A
  1. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
  2. Sternal notch
  3. Inferior border of the digastric muscle

[Contains the carotid sheath.]

[UpToDate: The anterior triangle is bordered anteriorly by the midline, posteriorly by the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and superiorly by the lower edge of the mandible. Most vital structures are located in the anterior triangle. Trauma to the posterior triangle, excluding the spine, carries a much lower likelihood of significant injury.]

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2
Q

What diagnosis is suggested by the following symptoms and what is the treatment?

  • Stridor
  • Drooling
  • Leaning forward
  • High fever
  • Throat pain
A
  • Epiglottitis
  • Treatment: early control of the airway and antibiotics

[Often will present with thumbprint sign on lateral neck film. Rare since immunization against H. influenzae type B. Mainly occurs in children age 3-5 years.]

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3
Q

What is the treatment for laryngeal cancer?

A
  • XRT if only vocal cord
  • Chemo-XRT if beyond vocal cord
  • Modified radical neck dissection (MRND) is needed if nodes are clinically positive

[Surgery is not the primary treatment because the goal is to preserve the larynx. Take ipsilateral thyroid lobe with a modified radical neck dissection.]

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4
Q

Where do the following nerves lie in the neck?

  • Vagus nerve
  • Phrenic nerve
  • Long thoracic nerve
A
  • Vagus nerve: Runs between the internal jugular vein and the carotid artery
  • Phrenic nerve: Runs on top of the anterior scalene muscle
  • Long thoracic nerve: Runs posterior to the middle scalene muscle
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5
Q

What is the treatment for squamous cell carcinoma of the ear?

A
  • Resection and parotidectomy
  • Modified radical neck dissection for positive nodes or large tumors

[20% metastasize to the parotid gland.]

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6
Q

What is the treatment for the following infections?

  • Peritonsillar abscess
  • Retropharyngeal abscess
  • Pharyngeal abscess
A
  • Peritonsillar abscess: Needle aspiration 1st, then drainage through tonsillar bed if no relief in 24 hours, may need to intubate to drain (will self-drain with swallowing once opened)
  • Retropharyngeal abscess: Intubate the patient in a calm setting, drainage through posterior pharyngeal wall (will self-drain with swallowing once opened)
  • Pharyngeal abscess: Drain through lateral neck to avoid damaging internal carotid and internal jugular veins (need to leave a drain in place)
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7
Q

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) and what is its function?

A
  • Ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular branches
  • Gives sensation to most of the face
  • Mandibular branch provides taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, floor of the mouth, and gingiva
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8
Q
  • What percent of salivary tumors are in the parotid?
  • What percent of parotid tumors are benign?
  • What percent of benign parotid tumors are pleomorphic adnomas?
A
  • What percent of salivary tumors are in the parotid? 80%
  • What percent of parotid tumors are benign? 80%
  • What percent of benign parotid tumors are pleomorphic adnomas? 80%
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9
Q

What are the following characteristics of the nasopharynx?

  • Most common tumor of nasopharynx in children
  • Most common benign neoplasm of nose/paranasal sinuses
A
  • Most common tumor of nasopharynx in children: Lymphoma (Tx: chemotherapy)
  • Most common benign neoplasm of nose/paranasal sinuses: Papilloma
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10
Q

What are the 4 branches of the thyrocervical trunk?

A
  1. Suprascapular artery
  2. Transverse cervical artery
  3. Ascending cervical artery
  4. Inferior thyroid artery

[Image-Guided Interventions, Second Edition: The thyrocervical trunk is the second branch of the subclavian artery, and it arises just distal to the vertebral artery from the superior surface of the first segment of the subclavian artery. Near the medial border of the anterior scalene muscle, the thyrocervical trunk classically divides into the inferior thyroid, transverse cervical, and suprascapular arteries. Only slightly more than 50% of individuals have this classic anatomy. Independent origins of one or more of these vessels from the subclavian artery are common.

The inferior thyroid artery is the superior continuation of the thyrocervical trunk. It ascends anterior to the anterior scalene muscle and turns medially just below the sixth cervical transverse process. Here it passes anterior to the vertebral vessels and posterior to the carotid sheath and its contents. It finally descends on the longus colli muscle to the inferior pole of the lateral lobe of the thyroid gland.

Branches of the inferior thyroid artery include muscular branches supplying the infrahyoid muscles, longus colli muscle, anterior scalene muscle, and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as pharyngeal branches supplying the lower pharynx, thyroid, and parathyroid glands. An important muscular branch is the ascending cervical artery, which arises as the inferior thyroid artery turns medially behind the carotid sheath; it ascends on the anterior surface of the prevertebral muscles, which it supplies, and sends branches to the spinal cord.

The middle branch of the thyrocervical trunk is the transverse cervical artery. This branch passes laterally and slightly posteriorly, anterior to the brachial plexus and the anterior scalene muscle, and enters and crosses the base of the posterior triangle. As it reaches the deep surface of the trapezius muscle, it divides into superficial and deep branches. The superficial branch continues on the deep surface of the trapezius muscle, and the deep branch continues on the deep surface of the rhomboid muscles near the medial border of the scapula. Alternatively, these branches may not arise in common as a transverse cervical artery. The superficial branch frequently arises directly from the thyrocervical trunk as a superficial cervical artery, and the deep branch may arise from the third or, less commonly, from the second part of the subclavian artery as the dorsal scapular artery.

The most inferior branch of the thyrocervical trunk is the suprascapular artery. It descends laterally and crosses anterior to the anterior scalene muscle, phrenic nerve, third part of the subclavian artery, and trunks of the brachial plexus. It reaches the superior scapular border, passes above the superior transverse scapular ligament, which separates it from the suprascapular nerve, and enters the supraspinatus fossa. In addition to supplying the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, the suprascapular artery contributes branches to numerous structures along its course. Other alternative origins of the suprascapular artery include a direct origin from the third part of the subclavian artery or as a branch of the internal thoracic artery.]

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11
Q

What is the treatment for persistent posterior nose bleeding despite packing/balloon tamponade?

A

Consider internal maxillary artery or ethmoid artery embolization

[90% of nose bleeds are anterior and can be controlled with packing.]

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12
Q
  • What is Ludwig’s angina?
  • What is the most common cause of Ludwig’s angina?
  • What is the treatment for Ludwig’s angina?
A
  • What is Ludwig’s angina? Acute infection of the floor of the mouth, involving the mylohyoid muscle
  • What is the most common cause of Ludwig’s angina? Dental infection of the mandibular teeth
  • What is the treatment for Ludwig’s angina? Airway control, surgical drainage, and antibiotics

[Ludwig’s angina may rapidly spread to deeper structures and cause airway obstruction.]

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13
Q

What does a modified radical neck dissection (MRND) include and how does it differ from a radical neck dissection (RND)?

A
  • MRND: Takes omohyoid, submandibular gland, sensory nerves C2-C5, cervical branch of facial nerve, and ipsilateral thyroid
  • RND: Same as MRND pluss accessory nerve (CN XI), sternocleidomastoid, and internal jugular resection

[Most morbidity occurs from the accessory nerve resection in an RND. RND is rarely ever performed any more.]

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14
Q

What is the treatment for the following neck and jaw injuries?

  • Maxillary jaw fracture
  • TMJ dislocation
  • Stensen’s duct laceration
A
  • Maxillary jaw fracture: Most treated with wire fixation
  • TMJ dislocation: Treated with closed reduction
  • Stensen’s duct laceration: Repair over a catheter stent (Ligation can cause painful parotid atrophy and facial asymmetry)

[UpToDate: Stensen’s duct arises from the anterior border of the parotid gland and is 4 to 7 cm long, narrows to 1.2 mm at an isthmus, and the os is 0.5 mm and is opposite the upper second molar.]

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15
Q

Patients anticipated to require intubation for what period of time should be considered for tracheostomy?

A

7-14 days

[Tracheostomy decreases secretions, provides easier ventilation, and decreases pneumonia risk.]

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16
Q

What presents in older kids (>10 years old) with trismus (lock jaw) and odynophagia (pain when swallowing) but does not typically cause airway obstruction?

A

Peritonsillary abscess

[Not to be confused with a retropharyngeal abscess which typically presents in younger kids (<10 years old) and is an airway emergency.]

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17
Q

What presents in younger kids (<10 years old) with fever, drool, and odynophagia (pain when swallowing), is an airway emergency?

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

[Not to be confused with a peritonsillar abscess which is seen in older kids (>10 years old) and does not obstruct the airway.]

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18
Q

To which lymph nodes does squamous cell carcinoma in the following locations spread?

  • Nasopharynx
  • Oropharynx
  • Hypopharynx
A
  • Nasopharynx: Posterior cervical neck nodes
  • Oropharynx: Posterior cervical neck nodes
  • Hypopharynx: Anterior cervical nodes
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19
Q

What is the most common cancer of the oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx and what are the 2 biggest risk factors?

A
  • Most common cancer: Squamous cell cancer
  • Biggest risk factors: Tobacco and alcohol

[Most common site for oral cavity cancer is the lower lip (due to sun exposure). Cancers of the hard palate have the lowest survival rate because they are harder to resect]

20
Q

Which nerve is most commonly injured with parotid surgery and what symptom does this injury cause?

A
  • Nerve: Great auricular nerve
  • Symptom: Numbness over lower portion of ear

[Wikipedia: The great auricular nerve (or greater auricular nerve) originates from the cervical plexus, composed of branches of spinal nerves C2 and C3. It provides sensory innervation for the skin over parotid gland and mastoid process, and both surfaces of the outer ear.]

21
Q

How does squamous cell carcinoma in the below regions present?

  • Nasopharynx
  • Oropharynx
  • Hypopharynx
A
  • Nasopharynx: Nose bleeding or obstruction
  • Oropharynx: Neck mass, sore throat
  • Hypopharynx: Hoarseness
22
Q

What is the function of the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

A

Motor to all of the tongue except the palatoglossus

[Tongue deviates to the same side of a hypoglossal nerve injury.]

23
Q

What is Frey’s syndrome?

A

Injury (following parotidectomy) of the auriculotemporal nerve that then cross-innervates with sympathetic fibers to sweat glands of the skin, resulting in gustatory sweating

[UpToDate: Frey syndrome, also known as auriculotemporal syndrome or gustatory sweating, is characterized by sweating and flushing of the facial skin over the parotid bed and neck during mastication. Frey syndrome is thought to be due to aberrant regeneration of cut parasympathetic fibers between the otic ganglion and salivary tissue, which leads to innervation of sweat glands and subcutaneous vessels.

Frey syndrome is reported by approximately 10% of patients, although rigorous testing may detect gustatory sweating in as many as 95% of patients after parotidectomy. Frey syndrome may occur from two weeks to two years after surgery due to a latency in the regeneration of parasympathetic nerve fibers; the area of involved skin may increase over time.

The incidence of Frey syndrome is reduced by minimizing the parotid wound bed, reconstructive techniques such as thick skin flaps, and postoperative RT. Intracutaneous injection of botulinum toxin A is an effective, well-tolerated, and long-lasting treatment for symptomatic patients; it may be repeated for recurrent symptoms. Some authors recommend the use of a sternocleidomastoid flap to decrease the incidence of symptomatic Frey’s syndrome; however, the data are inconclusive.]

24
Q

What is the best surgical solution for sleep apnea?

A

Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

[UpToDate: Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) and UPPP variants are the most common surgical procedures for OSA, based on the fact that upper pharyngeal obstruction is the most common anatomic airway abnormality. UPPP frequently improves the physiologic abnormality of OSA as well as clinical symptoms, but the degree of polysomnographic benefit is variable, and cures are rare. Important adverse effects include chronic mild dysphagia in up to one-third of patients. Simple tonsillectomy in selected patients with tonsillar hypertrophy and otherwise favorable anatomy (eg, small tongue) is associated with a high rate of success.]

25
Q

What is the appropriate approach to a patient with fever and pain after EGD for foreign body?

A

Gastrograffin followed by barium swallow to rule out perforation

26
Q

What is the function of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)?

A
  • Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
  • Motor to the stylopharyngeus

[Injury affects swallowing.]

27
Q

In the larynx, where are the false vocal cords located in relation to the true vocal cords?

A

The false vocal cords are superior to the true vocal cords

[UpToDate: The false (or “ventricular”) vocal folds are situated superior to the true vocal folds and are separated from them by a lateral recess termed the laryngeal ventricle. The ventricle contains mucus-producing glands that provide lubrication for the true vocal folds, which are themselves devoid of glandular elements. The false vocal folds are adducted only during effortful closure, as with Valsalva and reflex laryngeal closure due to noxious stimuli. They do not normally approximate during phonation; however, this may be observed in pathologic conditions, such as in patients with incompetent true vocal fold closure due to vocal fold paralysis, mass lesion, or presbyphonia (vocal fold changes due to aging of the larynx).

The larynx is subdivided into three regions: the supraglottis, glottis, and subglottis. The supraglottis encompasses the area above the true vocal folds and includes the epiglottis, false vocal folds, aryepiglottic folds, and arytenoids. The glottis consists of the true vocal folds and the immediate subjacent area extending 1 cm inferiorly. The subglottis refers to the region beginning at the inferior edge of the glottis and extending down to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage.]

28
Q

What is the treatment for CSF rhinorrhea (usually from a cribriform plate fracture)?

A
  • Conservative measures for 2-3 weeks
  • Try epidural catheter drainage of CSF
  • May need transethmoidal repair

[Repair of facial fractures may help the leak (may need a contrast study to find the leak).]

29
Q

When should a cleft lip be repaired?

A
  • 10 weeks of age
  • Weight is 10 lbs
  • Hgb > 10

[Nasal deformities should be repaired at the same time. Cleft lip may be associated with poor feeding.]

30
Q

What are the following characteristics of sialoadenitis (acute inflammation of a salivary gland related to a stone in the duct):

  • 80% of cases involves one of which 2 glands?
  • What causes recurrent sialoadenitis?
  • What is the treatment?
A
  • 80% of cases involves one of which 2 glands? Submandibular or sublingual glands
  • What causes recurrent sialoadenitis? Ascending infection from the oral cavity
  • What is the treatment? Incise duct and remove stone

[Gland excision may eventually be necessary for recurrent disease.]

31
Q

What kind of fluid is secreted by the following glands?

  • Parotid gland
  • Sublingual gland
  • Submandibular gland
A
  • Parotid gland: Mostly serous fluid
  • Sublingual gland: Mostly mucin
  • Submandibular gland: 50% mucin and 50% serous fluid
32
Q

What is the first branch of the external carotid artery?

A

Superior thyroid artery

33
Q

What do the following nerves innervate?

  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve
  • Superior laryngeal nerve
A
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve: Innervation to all of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle
  • Superior laryngeal nerve: Innervation to the cricothyroid muscle
34
Q

All lumps near the ear are what until proven otherwise?

A

Parotid tumors

[Diagnosis is usually made after superficial lobectomy.]

35
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve (CN VII) and what is its function?

A
  • Temporal, sygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches
  • Motor function to the face
36
Q

What is the #1 and #2 most common benign tumors of the salivary glands and what is the treatment for both?

A
  • Pleomorphic adenoma is #1 (malignant degeneration occurs in 5%)
  • Warthin’s tumor is #2 (bilateral in 10% of cases)
  • Treatment: Superficial parotidectomy (usually occur in the parotid gland)
37
Q

What is the most common location for distant metastases from head and neck tumors?

A

Lung

38
Q

Which extremely vascular, benign, pharyngeal tumor presents with obstruction or epistaxis in males before the age of 20 years, and is treated with angiography, embolization (internal maxillary artery), followed by resection?

A

Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

[UpToDate: Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibromas (JNA) are rare tumors exclusively seen in adolescent males, presenting with epistaxis. The lesion is locally invasive but morphologically deceptively bland, showing thin-walled vessels, devoid of smooth muscle, often exhibiting staghorn shapes, and set in a fibrous to myxoid stroma. Local involvement of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses may be extensive, with occasional invasion of the skull base. Intraoperative bleeding may be marked and potentially life threatening. Preoperative measures to diminish blood loss, eg, tumor embolization, may be clinically useful.]

39
Q

What is the treatment for squamous cell carcinoma in the following locations?

  • Nasopharynx
  • Oropharynx
  • Hypopharynx
A
  • Nasopharynx: XRT is primary therapy (it is very sensitive to XRT), give chemo-XRT for advanced disease (surgery is not part of the treatment for this cancer)
  • Oropharynx: XRT for tumors < 4cm and no nodal or bone invasion, combined surgery/MRND/XRT for advanced tumors (> 4cm, bone/nodal invasion)
  • Hypopharynx: XRT for tumors < 4cm and no nodal or bone invasion, combined surgery/MRND/XRT for advanced tumors (> 4cm, bone/nodal invasion)
40
Q

What is the treatment for oral cavity cancer?

A
  • Wide resection (1 cm margins)
  • Modified radical neck dissection for tumors > 4cm, clinically positive nodes, or bone invasion
  • Postoperative XRT for advanced lesions (> 4cm, positive margins, or nodal/bone involvement)

[UpToDate: Locally advanced oral cavity cancer typically requires multimodality treatment due to the relatively high risk of locoregional recurrence and disease-related mortality. All patients should be seen preoperatively by the surgeon, radiation oncologist, and medical oncologist for preoperative treatment planning.

For most patients with locoregionally advanced oral cavity cancer, we suggest surgical resection of the primary tumor as the initial treatment rather than radiation therapy or chemotherapy (Grade 2B).

For most patients with locoregionally advanced oral cavity cancer, we recommend a modified radical neck dissection and postoperative RT (Grade 1B).

  • The optimal extent of the neck dissection is controversial, and is influenced by the extent of the primary tumor. Tumors that approach or cross the midline and oral tongue and floor of mouth cancers are treated with bilateral neck treatment. For patients receiving definitive RT, irradiation of the neck should follow the same indications as for neck dissection.

Most patients with locoregionally advanced oral cavity cancer remain at significant risk for local recurrence after surgery. We recommend postoperative RT, with or without concurrent chemotherapy (Grade 1B). We recommend postoperative concurrent chemoradiotherapy over postoperative RT alone for patients with positive surgical margins and extracapsular extension (Grade 1B).

Definitive radiation therapy (RT) or chemotherapy plus RT are options for patients who are medically inoperable, who have unresectable disease, or who have resectable disease where surgical resection cannot be accomplished with acceptable long-term functional consequences.]

41
Q

What blood supply are the following muscle flaps reliant on?

  • Trapezius flap
  • Pectoralis flap
A
  • Trapezius flap: Based on the transverse cervical artery
  • Pectoralis flap: Based on either the thoracoacromial artery or the internal mammary artery

[Plastic Surgery, Third Edition: The trapezius flap is useful for high cervical wounds because the paraspinous musculature is of limited mobility and size at that level. The dissection begins with identification of the distal and inferior triangular aspect of the trapezius where it just overlaps the latissimus muscle, because the crossing muscle fiber directions of the two muscles are quite distinct in this area. A skin paddle overlying this inferior muscle can be taken to help with the inset. The more cephalad and larger the skin paddle, the better in terms of reliability ( Fig. 11.16 ) . The inclusion of the superficial dorsal scapular artery on the lateral border of the trapezius also helps skin flap viability.4 Further cephalad and lateral to the elevated skin paddle, the upper back skin is elevated off the trapezius. The main pedicle is the transverse cervical artery and it enters the muscle approximately 7–8 cm lateral to the midline and at the level of the spinous process of C7 on its deep aspect. Its approximate location can be ascertained with a hand-held Doppler. The deep dissection is then performed, with the muscle elevated off the paraspinous musculature and the rhomboids. The medial attachments are thickest, and then a plane between the two muscle groups is reached where dissection is easy. The main pedicle is encountered, and with this vessel under direct view, the lateral aspect of the muscle is divided. Movement of the flap is tested, and the lateral muscle division is extended if greater mobility is required for wound coverage. The higher the dissection continues, the higher the morbidity due to shoulder drop, but the greater the arc of rotation of the muscle.

Because of its sizeable donor site morbidity to the shoulder, the indication for the trapezius flap is in a nonfused patient with a radiated deep back wound where the erector spinae have been involved in the field of radiation. There simply do not exist other simple means for coverage. As the muscle is typically turned 90° for inset, the length of midline coverage of the trapezius is typically short, and so either a combination of two trapezius flaps, or else the trapezius flap with erector spinae flaps, should be planned for long wounds.]

42
Q

What are the boundaries of the posterior neck triangle?

A
  1. Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
  2. Trapezius muscle
  3. Clavicle

[Contains the brachial plexus and the accessory nerve (innervates the SCM, trapezius, and platysma).]

[UpToDate: The posterior triangle is located within the boundaries of the sternocleidomastoid muscle anteriorly, the clavicle inferiorly, and the anterior border of the trapezius muscle posteriorly. Most vital structures are located in the anterior triangle. Trauma to the posterior triangle, excluding the spine, carries a much lower likelihood of significant injury.]

43
Q

What is the most common organism responsible for suppurative parotitis and what is the treatment?

A
  • Organism: Staph aureus
  • Treatment: Fluids, salivation, antibiotics (drainage if abscess develops or patient does not improve)

[Occurs in elderly patients often in the setting of dehydration. It can be life-threatening.]

[UpToDate: Acute infection of the parotid gland can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses. Acute bacterial suppurative parotitis is caused most commonly by Staphylococcus aureus and mixed oral aerobes and/or anaerobes. It often occurs in the setting of debilitation, dehydration, and poor oral hygiene, particularly among elderly postoperative patients.

ANATOMY AND PATHOGENESIS — The parotid glands are located on the sides of the face anterior to the external auditory canal, superior to the angle of the mandible, and inferior to the zygomatic arch. Most of the parotid gland is superficial to the masseter muscle. The salivary gland consists of 20 to 30 intraparotid and periparotid lymph nodes with lymphatic drainage from the ipsilateral side of the face and forehead, including the auricular region and the external auditory canal. Stensen’s duct arises from the anterior border of the parotid gland and is 4 to 7 cm long, narrows to 1.2 mm at an isthmus, and the os is 0.5 mm and is opposite the upper second molar.

Acute bacterial suppurative parotitis may occur when salivary stasis permits retrograde seeding of the Stensen’s duct by a mixed oral flora. Ductal obstruction by calculi or tumor may predispose to suppuration. Abscess formation may also arise by contiguous infection or hematogenous seeding to the intraparotid or periparotid lymph nodes.

EPIDEMIOLOGY AND RISK FACTORS — Suppurative parotitis typically occurs in elderly postoperative patients who are dehydrated or intubated, although it may also be seen in outpatients. Other predisposing factors include recent intensive teeth cleaning, use of anticholinergic drugs and other drugs that reduce salivary flow, malnutrition, salivary calculi with obstruction, and neoplasm of the oral cavity. Infection of embryogenic cysts, such as the first branchial cleft, may result in frequent suppuration of the parotid gland.

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS — Suppurative parotitis is characterized by the sudden onset of firm, erythematous swelling of the pre- and postauricular areas that extends to the angle of the mandible. This is associated with exquisite local pain and tenderness with complaints of trismus and dysphagia. Systemic findings of high fevers, chills, and marked toxicity are generally present.

On examination, a fluctuant quality is generally not appreciated because of the dense parotid fascia that overlies the gland. Purulent material may be expressed from the orifice of the Stensen’s duct in over one-half of the cases.

TREATMENT — Treatment of suppurative parotitis includes hydration and intravenous antibiotics. Since suppurative parotitis may potentially spread to deep fascial spaces of the head and neck and is potentially life-threatening, outpatient management with oral antibiotics is not advised. Surgical incision and drainage should be implemented if there is no clinical response after 48 hours of treatment with empiric intravenous antibiotics.]

44
Q

What is the #1 and #2 most common malignant tumors of the salivary glands and what is the treatment for both?

A
  • Mucoepidermoid cancer is #1 (wide range of aggressiveness)
  • Adenoid cystic cancer is #2 (Long, indolent course; propensity to invade nerve roots)
  • Treatment: Resection of salivary gland, prophylactic modified radical neck dissection, and postop XRT (if high grade or advanced disease)

[If located in the parotid gland, the whole lobe must be removed (taking care to preserve the facial nerve).]

45
Q

What are the following:

  • Most common salivary gland tumor in children
  • Most common aural malignancy in children
  • Most common benign head and neck tumor in adults
A
  • Most common salivary gland tumor in children: Hemangioma
  • Most common aural malignancy in children: Rhabdomyosarcoma (although rare)
  • Most common benign head and neck tumor in adults: Hemangioma (UpToDate says hemangiomas are almost exclusively in infants)
46
Q

When should a cleft palate be repaired?

A

12 months of age

[May affect maxillofacial growth if closed to soon. May affect speech and swallowing if not closed soon enough.]