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PNCE > Random Q > Flashcards

Random Q Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions have increased JVP?

A

CHF, tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, tension pneumothorax

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2
Q

Abx for gram positive cocci

A

Nafcillin (Vanco if MRSA)

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3
Q

Abx for gram negative cocci or gonococcus

A

Ceftriaxone (Ciprofloxacin if penicillin allergy)

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4
Q

MCC of viral meningitis, CSF?

A

Enterovirus. Lymphocytes, increased protein, normal glucose

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5
Q

MCC of bacterial meningitis. CSF?

A

S. pneumoniae. neutrophils, increased protein, low glucose

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6
Q

MCC of meningococcal meningitis

A

Neisseria Meningitis (Gram negative diplococcus)

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7
Q

Tx for bacterial meningitis

A

<1mo: cefoxtamine + ampicillin
1mo-5oyo: cefoxtamine/ceftriaxone + Vanco
>50yo: ampicillin + cefoxtamine/ceftriaxone + Vanco

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8
Q

Meningitis post exposure prophylaxis

A

Ciprofloxacin/ Rifampin

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9
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome labs + Tx

A

Hyperuricemia, low Ca, high K, high P, acute renal dz
Tx w/ allopurinol and fluids

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10
Q

PSVT tx

A

Vagal –> carotid massage –> adenosine –> radio frequency ablation

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11
Q

Cryptococcus meningitis common in?

A

HIV

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12
Q

Arterial embolism definitive tx

A

Embolectomy

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13
Q

Prophylaxis dental/respiratory procedures w/ high risk of heart conditions

A

Amoxicillin 30-60m before procedure

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14
Q

Tx for hypoparathyroidism tetany

A

IV calcium gluconate

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15
Q

Octreotide is tx for?

A

Carcinoid syndrome, acromegaly, gigantism

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16
Q

Lithium AE

A

Nephrogenic DI

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17
Q

Addisons Dz gold standard

A

Cosyntropic stimulation test

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18
Q

Radioactive iodine used for:

A

Tx graves dz, detecting metastatic thyroid cancer

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19
Q

Gout x-ray

A

Osteophytes w/ rat bite appearance

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20
Q

TTP Tx

A

Plasmaphoresis w/ IV CS

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21
Q

Von Willebrands dz tx

A

Desmopressin acetate

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22
Q

Molluscum contagiosum etiology

A

Poxvirus

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23
Q

Optic neuritis definitive dx

A

MRI of brain and orbit

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24
Q

Bacterial meningitis neonate MCC

A

Group B strep

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25
Q

URI MCC

A

Rhinovirus

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26
Q

COPD blood gas

A

Respiratory acidosis

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27
Q

Systemic fungal meds AE

A

Liver damage (jaundice), monitor LFT

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28
Q

Sarcoidosis labs

A

high ACE, non-caseating granulomas, high calcium

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29
Q

Myesthinia gravis dx test + tx

A

Tensilon test, tx with pyridostigmine

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30
Q

Achilles tendon rupture test

A

Thompson test

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31
Q

Epididymitis Tx

A

Nonsexual: ciprofloxacin
STI: ceftriaxone + doxy

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32
Q

MCC hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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33
Q

Superior pulmonary sulcus (pancoast) tumor sx

A

Shoulder pain, tumor @ apex of lung, Horner’s syndrome (ipsilateral ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis)

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34
Q

Sarcoidosis Tx

A

Prednisone

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35
Q

Carcinoid tumor of lung bronchoscopy

A

Vascularized pink/purple central lesion

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36
Q

Colon cancer barium contrast Xray

A

Apple core lesion

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37
Q

Cholecystitis US

A

Gallbladder wall thickening

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38
Q

MCC viral gastroenteritis <2yo

A

Rotavirus

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39
Q

HIV positive CD4 count for pneumocystis jirovecci + Tx

A

CD4 <250, Tx w/ bactrim

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40
Q

Post Op fever days 1 to 7

A

1-2d: (wind) atelectasis
3-5d: (water) UTI
5-7d: (wound) infection/ abscess
>7d: (walk) DVT/PE

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41
Q

Wegener granulomatosis xray

A

Caseating granulomas

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42
Q

Hepatitis C Tx

A

Ribavirin w/ alpha interferon

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43
Q

ZES Dx test

A

Gastrin > 150

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44
Q

Pancreatic cancer sign

A

Courvoisier sign (palpable nontender gallbladder)

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45
Q

Postprandial diarrhea tx

A

Questran (cholestyramine)

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46
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Weber: lateralized to affected ear
Rinne: BC > AC

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47
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

Weber: Lateralized to normal ear
Rinne: AC>BC

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48
Q

Orbital cellulitis MCC

A

Bacterial rhinosinusitis

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49
Q

Viral conjunctivitis MCC

A

Adenovirus

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50
Q

Acoustic neuroma MCC (vestibular schwannoma)

A

CN VIII tumor

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51
Q

HSV infx test

A

Tzank smear: multinucleated giant cell

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52
Q

Orbital blowout fx test + PE

A

CT: teardrop shape, restricted upward gaze

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53
Q

MCC myocarditis

A

Coxsackie virus

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54
Q

Infectious endocarditis echo

A

Vegetations

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55
Q

Pyloric stenosis upper GI series

A

String sign

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56
Q

Nursemaid elbow tx

A

Hyperpronation + supination/flexion

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57
Q

Erythema infectiosum MCC

A

Parvovirus B12

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58
Q

Erythema infectiousum sx

A

Fifth disease: URI sx. “slapped cheek”, “lacy”

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59
Q

Brown recluse bite

A

blue-gray center, white ring, erythema outer border

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60
Q

Erythema multiforme sx

A

target lesion

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61
Q

Androgenic alopecia tx

A

5 alpha reductase (finasteride)

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62
Q

Pityriasis versicolor rash

A

Salmon colored oval papules

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63
Q

MCC condyloma accuminata (genital warts)

A

HPV 6 & 11

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64
Q

Verruca Plantaris (plantar warts) MCC

A

HPV 1

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65
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth dz MCC

A

Coxsackie virus A

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66
Q

Hydroxychloriquine AE

A

Macular damage

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67
Q

Spondylosis xray

A

“Scotty dog” - pars interarticularis

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68
Q

Spondylolisthesis xray

A

Anterior displacement of vertebrae

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69
Q

Polymyositis definitive test

A

Muscle bx

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70
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis definitive test

A

Osmotic fragility test

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71
Q

high MCHC

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

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72
Q

Lead poisoning PBS

A

Basophilic stippling

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73
Q

Clozapine AE

A

Agranulocytosis

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74
Q

Benzo OD tx

A

Flumazenil

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75
Q

Opioid OD tx

A

Naloxone

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76
Q

Absence seizure tx

A

Ethosuximide

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77
Q

Partial seizures tx

A

Carbamazepine

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78
Q

Alzheimer MRI

A

Neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles

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79
Q

Myesthinia gravis tx

A

Pyridostigmine

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80
Q

MC uterine cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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81
Q

MC cervical cancer

A

SCC

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82
Q

Mastitis tx

A

Dicloxacillin

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83
Q

Ovarian cancer tumor marker

A

CA-125

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84
Q

Prostatitis E. coli tx

A

Ciprofloxacin/ bactrim

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85
Q

MCC viral orchitis

A

Mumps

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86
Q

Cervical cancer HPV

A

16, 18

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87
Q

Genital warts HPV

A

6, 11

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88
Q

Mycobacterium avium intracellular CD4

A

CD4 <50

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89
Q

Roseola etiology

A

HHV-6

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90
Q

Kaposki sarcoma etiology

A

HHV-8

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91
Q

Malaria dx gold standard

A

PBS w/ giemsa stain

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92
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia test

A

Positive direct Coombs test

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93
Q

Radial nerve innervation

A

Posterior upper arm, dorsum of hand

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94
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth dz MCC

A

Coxsackie virus

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95
Q

Scleroderma sx

A

Calcinosis of skin, Raynauds, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia

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96
Q

Reactive arthritis sx

A

Cant see (conjunctivitis). can’t pee (urethritis), can’t climb a tree (arthritis)

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97
Q

Gram positive cocci in cluster

A

S. aureus

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98
Q

Gram negative rods

A

Klebsiella, H. flu, E. coli, pseudomonas

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99
Q

Gram positive rods

A

Bacillus, listeria, clostridium, corynebacterium

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100
Q

Gram negative diplococcus

A

Neisseria, morexella, brucella, acinetobactor

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101
Q

Causes of bloody diarrhea

A

Salmonella, shigellosis, UC, campylobacter, HUS, amebic liver abscess, yersinia

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102
Q

DMT1 vs DMT2

A

C. peptide absent in DMT1

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103
Q

Prostatitis tx

A

<35yo: ceftriaxone + doxycycline
>35yo: ciprofloxacin/ bactrim

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104
Q

Tinea versicolor etiology

A

Malassezia furfur

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105
Q

Gout CI medications

A

Loop, thiazides, aspirin, niacin, BB

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106
Q

HTN meds that decrease gout

A

Losartan, CCB

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107
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa tx

A

Topical clindamycin

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108
Q

Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) muscles

A

Extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum/ digiti minimi/ carpi ulnaris

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109
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Asthma, nasal polyps, aspirin/ NSAID hypersensitivity

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110
Q

Allopurinol lab monitor

A

Creatine

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111
Q

PID tx

A

Doxycycline + cefotetan or cefoxitin

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112
Q

Mastoiditis MCC

A

S. pneumoniae

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113
Q

Cholesteatoma sx

A

Painless hearing loss, yellow/ white mass behind TM

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114
Q

Metronidazole indications

A

Rosacea, amebic liver abscess, giardia, trichomoniasis, BV

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115
Q

Azithromycin indications

A

Atypical pneumonia, pertussis, travelers diarrhea (pregnant/child), chlamydia

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116
Q

Doxycycline indications

A

RMSF, lyme (not pregnant/child), chlamydia

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117
Q

Amoxicillin indications

A

Acute OM, lyme (pregnant/child), mastitis

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118
Q

Ciprofloxacin indications

A

Corneal ulcer, OE, shigellosis, prostatitis, epidydimitis, travelers diarrhea

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119
Q

Pneumonia
Streptococcus
H. Flu
Klebsiella
S. aureus
Legionella

A

Streptococcus: Rusty sputum
H. Flu: COPD
Klebsiella: currant jelly sputum. alcohol, cavitary lesion
S. aureus: Post flu
Legionella: contaminated water, increased LFT

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120
Q

Pneumonia tx (outpatient, inpatient, ICU)

A

Outpatient: Macrolide/ doxycycline
Inpatient: FQ
ICU: Beta lactam and doxycycline/ macrolide

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121
Q

Myerson sign

A

Sustained blink when bridge of nose is tapped repetitively (Parkinson’s)

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122
Q

Cholera tx

A

Doxycycline, azithromycin (child/pregnancy)

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123
Q

Endometritis tx

A

Post vaginal delivery: Ampicillin + gentamycin
C-section: clindamycin + gentamycin

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124
Q

human bite etiology

A

Eikenella

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125
Q

Ehlers-danlos syndrome sx

A

MVP, smooth doughy skin, easy bruising, positive meteniers sign

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126
Q

Endocarditis post GU procedures etiology

A

Enterococcus

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127
Q

Endocarditis poor dentition/ gingivitis etiology

A

Streptococcus viridans

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128
Q

Lacunar infarct CT

A

Small punched out hypodense lesion near pons and basal ganglion

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129
Q

Acute angle closure glaucoma 1st line

A

IV acetazolamide

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130
Q

Vulvular carcinoma sx

A

Vaginal pruritus, crusted white red ulcerative lesion

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131
Q

Methotrexate CI

A

BHcg > 5000, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, fluid/blood in peritoneal cavity, Hx TB, presence of fetal heart sound

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132
Q

Hepatitis C dermatologic association

A

lichen planus

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133
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum 1st line

A

Doxylamine + pyridoxine

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134
Q

CHF xray

A

kerley B lines

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135
Q

Testicular torsion PE

A

“blue dot sign”, negative cremasteric reflex, negative prehn sign

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136
Q

Meds that increase risk of Myesthinia gravis

A

FQ, aminoglycosides

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137
Q

status epilepticus tx

A

benzo –> phenytoin –> phenobarbital

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138
Q

Carcinoid syndrome bronchoscopy

A

Well vascularized purple mass in central airway

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139
Q

Screening for DI

A

Water deprivation test

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140
Q

Syphilis screening + confirmation

A

Screen: RPR, VDRL
Confirm: FTA-BS, TP-PA

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141
Q

Aminoglycoside AE

A

nephrotoxic, ototoxic

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142
Q

Morton neuroma PE

A

pain, localized numbness 2nd and 3rd toes. palpable mass

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143
Q

Multiple myeloma urine electrophoresis

A

Bence jones protein. “lambda kappa light chain”

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144
Q

Osgood schlatter PE

A

Tenderness to the tibial tubercle

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145
Q

Cholera Tx

A

Doxycycline, azithromycin (child/pregnancy)

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146
Q

MC childhood murmur

A

Stills murmur

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147
Q

Iron deficiency anemia PBS

A

Poikilocytosis

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148
Q

Diptheria pathology

A

Cornebacteria diphtheria

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149
Q

Acute diverticulitis tx

A

Clear liquid diet, augmente. metronidazole w/ ciprofloxacin

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150
Q

Acetaminophen antidote

A

N- acetylcystine

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151
Q

Naloxone antidote for:

A

opioid/ narcotic toxicity

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152
Q

Benzo antidote

A

Flumazenil

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153
Q

Heparin sulfate antidote

A

Protamine sulfate

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154
Q

UMN lesion sx

A

Spastic paralysis, increased DTR, upward babinski

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155
Q

Rabies (rhabdovirus) CNS

A

Negri bodies

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156
Q

Organophosphate poisoning tx

A

Atropine, pralidoxime

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157
Q

Acute Hep B labs

A

+ HBsAg
IgM

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158
Q

Chronic Hep B labs

A

+ HBsAG
IgG

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159
Q

Hep B recovery labs

A

+ Anti-HBs
IgG

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160
Q

Hep B immunity labs

A

anti-HBs

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161
Q

MCC aortic stenosis worldwide

A

rheumatic heart dz

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162
Q

MCC aortic stenosis in USA

A

calcified aortic stenosis due to aging

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163
Q

MCC mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic heart dz

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164
Q

MC problem with prosthetic valves

A

thrombosis

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165
Q

MCC afib

A

CAD
HTN

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166
Q

MCC vit B1 deficiency

A

alcoholism

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167
Q

MC tumor causing SIADH

A

small cell lung tumor

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168
Q

initial sx of sickle cell

A

dactylitis

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169
Q

MC type of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

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170
Q

MC med for nightmares

A

prozosin

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171
Q

Which hormone dominant during luteal phase

A

progesterone

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172
Q

1st line tx for performance anxiety

A

propranolol

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173
Q

med that ca. be used for depression and neuropathy

A

duloxetine

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174
Q

inferior wall MI presentation

A

bradycardia
chest pain

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175
Q

Tx for neonatal bacterial meningitis

A

Ampicillin

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176
Q

Tx for bacterial meningitis 1m-18yo

A

ceftriaxone + vanco

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177
Q

Orbital cellulitis tx

A

IV Vance/clinda

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178
Q

Lab monitor warfarin

A

PT/PTT

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179
Q

lab monitor heparin

A

aPTT

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180
Q

hold nitroglycerin if pt taking

A

PDE5 (viagra)

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181
Q

pertussis TOC

A

azithromycin

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182
Q

MC risk of increased triglycerides

A

acute pancreatitis

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183
Q

schizoaffective d/o best med

A

risperidone
haloperidol

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184
Q

Refeeding syndrome labs

A

hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypophosphatemia

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185
Q

ALL lab

A

lymphoblasts

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186
Q

AML lab

A

myeloblasts

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187
Q

herald patch is in

A

pityriasis rosea

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188
Q

Prinzmetal angina tx

A

CCB (nifedipine)

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189
Q

PID tx

A

ceftriaxone and doxy

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190
Q

what type of intoxication causes hyperactivity

A

lead

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191
Q

electrical alternans is hallmark of

A

pericardial effusion

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192
Q

impetigo etiology

A

S. aureus

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193
Q

adenosine AE

A

bronchospasm in pts w/ asthma or COPD

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194
Q

Ablation can cure

A

SVT, a flutter, WPW

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195
Q

Meds to avoid giving in WPW

A

ABCD: adenosine, BB, CCB, digoxin

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196
Q

1st line PSVT

A

adenosine

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197
Q

pericardial tamponade xray

A

bottle shaped heart

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198
Q

MC anaerobic organism

A

E. coli

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199
Q

MC aerobic organism.

A

B. fragilis

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200
Q

MC AE of statin

A

liver issues

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201
Q

heart med with ED AE

A

BB

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202
Q

childhood viral exanthem rash starts on the trunk and spreads to the face

A

roseola (6th dz)

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203
Q

MCC jaundice

A

Gilbert syndrome

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204
Q

1st line tx WPW

A

procainamide

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205
Q

mumps etiology

A

paramyxovirus

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206
Q

rubella etiology

A

togavirus

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207
Q

tx epiglottitis

A

ceftriaxone + vanco/clinda

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208
Q

perioral dermatitis tx

A

topical metronidazole or erythromycin

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209
Q

croup tx

A

dexamethasone oral
nebulized epi

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210
Q

PE CXR

A

westermarks sign
Hampton hump

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211
Q

Etiology of diarrhea after consuming fried rice

A

bacillus cereus

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212
Q

C diff tx

A

metronidazole 1st
vanco 2nd or 1st if severe

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213
Q

HOCM Tx

A

BB
myomectomy

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214
Q

MC bugs for infectious diarrhea

A

shigella
Y. enterococolitica
salmonella
enterohemorrhagic e.coli
c. enteritis

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215
Q

campylobacter enteritis tx

A

erythromycin

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216
Q

shigella tx

A

fluids
bactrim

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217
Q

prosthetic valve endocarditis bug

A

staph epidermidis

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218
Q

endocarditis tx

A

amoxicillin 1st line
clindamycin- PCN allergies
vanco works for most patients

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219
Q

pea soup stools

A

salmonella

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220
Q

backpackers diarrhea

A

giardia lambia

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221
Q

giardia tx

A

metronidazole

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222
Q

frothy greasy diarrhea

A

giardia

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223
Q

giardia dx

A

trophozites in stool

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224
Q

rheumatic fever etiology

A

S. pyogenes

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225
Q

tinea capitus tx

A

griseofulvin

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226
Q

rheumatic fever labs

A

ASO ab
high ESR/CRP
leukocytosis

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227
Q

rheumatic fever tx

A

Pen G and ASA

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228
Q

sister Mary and Joseph node for which OBGyn cancer

A

ovarian

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229
Q

cervical cancer MC type

A

SCC

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230
Q

erysipelas bug

A

GAS group A strep

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231
Q

only murmur associated with hemoptysis

A

mitral stenosis

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232
Q

syphilis associated w/ what murmur

A

aortic regurgitation

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233
Q

DeMusset sign

A

head bobbing
aortic regurgitation

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234
Q

water hammer pulse murmur

A

aortic regurgitation

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235
Q

peritonsilar abscess bug

A

strep pyogenes

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236
Q

MVP tx

A

BB

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237
Q

pericardial knock

A

constrictive pericarditis

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238
Q

Tx for dresslers syndrome

A

ASA or colchicine

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239
Q

vaginal cancer type

A

SCC

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240
Q

tx for PAD

A

cilostazol

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241
Q

vulvular cancer type

A

SCC

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242
Q

1st line tx status epilepticus

A

benzo

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243
Q

BB for aortic dissection

A

labetalol
esmolol

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244
Q

what drugs can cause aortic dissection

A

cocaine

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245
Q

PCOS US

A

string of pearls
wagon wheel

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246
Q

congenital hip dysplasia tests

A

Barlow
ortolani

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247
Q

venous ulcer location

A

medial malleolus

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248
Q

GBS tx

A

airway
IVIG
plasmapheresis

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249
Q

cluster HA tx

A

sumatriptan + 100% O2

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250
Q

osteochondroma vs osteosarcoma

A

osteochondroma: painless mass
osteosarcoma: bone pain

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251
Q

PAD ulcer location

A

lateral malleolus

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252
Q

peripheral vertigo test

A

dix hall pike

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253
Q

peripheral vertigo tx

A

epley maneuver
meclizine

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254
Q

Ewing sarcoma xray

A

onion skin

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255
Q

fixed split S2

A

ASD

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256
Q

MC ASD

A

ostium secundum

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257
Q

VSD murmur

A

LLSB harsh high pitched holosystolic murmur

258
Q

MC AE CCB

A

constipation

259
Q

BV etiology

A

garnerella vaginalis

260
Q

coarctation of aorta CXR

A

rib notching
figure 3 sign

261
Q

PDA Tx

A

indomethacin

262
Q

tetralogy of fallot xray

A

boot shaped heart

263
Q

pancreatitis xray

A

sentinel loop
colon cut off sign

264
Q

MC type of pancreatic cancer

A

adenocarcinoma of head

265
Q

cardiac tamponade EKG

A

electrical alternans

266
Q

valve associated w/ rheumatic fever

A

mitral

267
Q

HOCM murmur increases w/

A

valsalva

268
Q

1st line med for HOCM

A

BB

269
Q

pancreatic cancer sx

A

painless jaundice

270
Q

cancer of pancreatic head surgery

A

Whipple procedure

271
Q

vaginal candidiasis tx in first trimester pregnancy

A

itraconazole

272
Q

MC valve affected by IVDU and endocarditis

A

Tricuspid

273
Q

congenital long QT syndrome tx

A

BB

274
Q

MCC acute bronchiolitis

A

RSV

275
Q

abx given pre-op for appendicitis

A

cefotetan IV

276
Q

emphysema ABG

A

respiratory alkalosis

277
Q

chronic bronchitis ABG

A

respiratory acidosis

278
Q

emphysema sx

A

pink puffer
barrel chest
pursed lips

279
Q

chronic bronchitis sx

A

blue bloater

280
Q

painless monocular vision loss

A

CRAO

281
Q

tumor marker for testicular cancer

A

AFP

282
Q

hypertensive emergency tx

A

sodium nitroprusside

283
Q

hypertensive urgency tx

A

clonidine

284
Q

Narcolepsy tx

A

modafinil
planned naps during the day

285
Q

UC barium swallow

A

stovepipe sign

286
Q
  • PANCA
    + ASCA
A

Crohns

287
Q

+ PANCA
- ASCA

A

UC

288
Q

Maintenance tx for crohns

A

mesalamine

289
Q

anticholinergics CI

A

BPH
glaucoma

290
Q

TB xray

A

Gohn complex

291
Q

SBO xray

A

air fluid levels
multiple dilated loops of bowel

292
Q

bronchiectasis CT

A

tram track appearance

293
Q

LBO xray

A

“northern exposure” sign
coffee bean sign
pneumoperitoneum

294
Q

Which antigen is increased in colorectal cancer

A

CEA- carcinoembryonic antigen

295
Q

pancreatic cancer marker

A

CA 19-9

296
Q

honeycombing lung on xray/CT

A

interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
ground glass opacities

297
Q

monotherapy for diverticulitis

A

moxifloxacin

298
Q

chocolate cyst

A

endometrioma

299
Q

powder burn
mulberry lesion

A

endometriosis

300
Q

asbestosis xray

A

pleural plaques
shaggy heart sign

301
Q

hyponatremia is seen with which type of pneumonia

A

legionella

302
Q

intussusception buzzword

A

currant jelly stool
sausage shaped mass

303
Q

hep c screening

A

serum AFP
US

304
Q

Urge incontinence tx

A

bladder training
Detrol or oxybutinin

305
Q

double bubble on xray

A

duodenal atresia

306
Q

3Ds of niacin deficiency

A

dermatitis
dementia
diarrhea

307
Q

bird/bat dropping exposure

A

histoplasmosis

308
Q

CAP outpatient tx

A

macrolide
doxycycline

309
Q

CAP inpatient tx

A

macrolide + beta lactam
augmentin

310
Q

CAP ICU tx

A

B lactam + macrolide or B lactam + BS FQ

311
Q

aspiration pneumonia tx

A

clindamycin
metronidazole

312
Q

anti-pseudomonas b lactam

A

pep/tazo
cefepime
imipenem
ceftazadime

313
Q

female infertility tx

A

clomid (clomiphene)

314
Q

pinworm parasite

A

enterobius vermicularis

315
Q

pinworm tx

A

albendazole

316
Q

posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

EBV (MONO)

317
Q

carcinoid tumor dx

A

elevated urinary 5-HIAA levels

318
Q

when is glucose tolerance tested

A

24-28w

319
Q

when do you test GBS during pregnancy

A

32-37w

320
Q

tx VWD

A

desmopressin

321
Q

adenocarcinoma lung location

A

peripheral (SCC is central)

322
Q

which cancer where surgery is not a choice

A

small cell lung cancer

323
Q

small cell lung cancer associated w/

A

SVC super vena cava syndrome
(JVD, facial plethora, prominent chest veins)

324
Q

when QUAD screen done

A

15-22 wk
try at 16w for best results

325
Q

Fibromyalgia criteria

A

diffuse pain 11/18 trigger points for >3m

326
Q

fibromyalgia dx

A

muscle bx: moth eaten appearance

327
Q

Tx for fetal lung development

A

betamethasone at 26-30w

328
Q

worst HA of my life

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

329
Q

hyperthyroidism labs

A

increased PTH, Ca
decreased P

330
Q

test of choice for hyperparathyroidism

A

US

331
Q

HLA-DR4

A

DMT1
rheumatoid arthritis
Addison dz

332
Q

MCC reactive arthritis

A

chlamydia

333
Q

sjogren associated with increase chance of getting

A

non-hodgkins lymphoma

334
Q

tx to suppress uterine contractions

A

tocolytics (terbutaline, mg sulfate)

335
Q

MC small vasculitis in childhood

A

Henoch Schonlein Purpura

336
Q

MC childhood bleeding disorder

A

ITP

337
Q

MCC thrombocytopenia

A

ITP

338
Q

Dx pheochromocytoma

A

24h urinary catecholamines

339
Q

tx pheochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine 10-14d pre-op then propranolol

340
Q

uterine atony tx

A

oxytocin IV
misopristol

341
Q

MCC endometritis

A

GABHS
S. aureus

342
Q

MC type of hip dislocation

A

posterior

343
Q

hip dislocation sx

A

leg shortened
internally rotated
adducted

344
Q

diphtheria tx

A

antitoxin
erythromycin/PCN

345
Q

strep pneumonia tx

A

amoxicillin

346
Q

Addisons tx

A

hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid) +
fludrocortisone (mineralcorticoid)
glucocorticoid only in secondary

347
Q

cushings test

A

low dose dexamethasone suppression test
normal- suppression of cortisol
Cushings: cortisol increasing in 24h urine

348
Q

Cushings tx

A

surgical resection of tumor

349
Q

DI test

A

fluid deprivation test
DI: continues to make diluted urine
Central: desmopressen will have response with ADH
nephrogenic: still make dilute urine.

350
Q

central DI tx

A

desmopressin
carbamazepine

351
Q

MC congenital heart defect

A

VSD

352
Q

how to close patent ductus arteriosis

A

prostaglandin inhibitor (IV indomethacin)

353
Q

how to keep open PDA

A

prostaglandin E1 analog (alprostadil)

354
Q

small kidney on US

A

CKD
if large: DM

355
Q

which drug can cause hyperparathyroidism

A

lithium

356
Q

hyperparathyroid test

A

24h urine calcium level

357
Q

MC CSF findings

A

high IgG oligoclonal bands

358
Q

Guillian barre CSF

A

high protein
normal WBC

359
Q

gout tx

A

NSAIDS: indomethacin

360
Q

L4 disk issue

A

anterior thigh pain
loss of knee jerk reflex

361
Q

L5 disk issue

A

lateral thigh pain

362
Q

S1 disk issue

A

posterior thigh
loss of ankle jerk reflex

363
Q

cluster HA prophylaxis

A

CCB

364
Q

CSF shows increased RBF

A

herpes encephalitis
MRI temporal lobe edema

365
Q

triptans CI

A

HTN
cardiovascular disease

366
Q

blood in stool + diarrhea

A

salmonella
shigella

367
Q

myasthenia gravis tx

A

Beta interferon

368
Q

what nerve foot drop

A

common peroneal nerve
tx w/ ankle splint

369
Q

HTN + hematuria + periorbital edema

A

post streptococcal glomerulonephritis AKI

370
Q

MC prostate cancer

A

adenocarcimoma

371
Q

polycystic kidney tx

A

ACE correct BP

372
Q

AML PE

A

hepatosplenomegaly
FEVER

373
Q

greasy stool

A

giargia

374
Q

ITP PE

A

normal coag factors
child 2-6yo
recent viral infx
red spots on skin
low plt count

375
Q

posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

EBV MONO

376
Q

histoplasmosis tx

A

itraconazole if severe
amphotericin B

377
Q

histoplasmosis CD4

A

<150

378
Q

HIV caused by

A

retrovirus

379
Q

toxoplasmosis tx

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

380
Q

what drugs can be added to statin to improve CV issues

A

ezetimibe

381
Q

C diff infx tx

A

metronidazole
(alternative is oral Vanco)

382
Q

giardia tx

A

metronidazole

383
Q

SIADH what electrolytes increased

A

K

384
Q

reactive arthritis tx

A

NSAIDs

385
Q

Which med is neuropcrotecive in dementia

A

memantine

386
Q

campylobacter enteritis tx

A

erythromycin

387
Q

pea soup stools

A

salmonella

388
Q

3 drugs that can cause myocarditis

A

clozapine
thiazide
PCN

389
Q

schistocytes seen with

A

TTP
HUS
DIC

390
Q

recurrent venous/arterial thrombosis at early age

A

antiphospholipid syndrome: assoc w/ lupus
labs show: thrombocytopenia
tx: anticoags

391
Q

acute onset hematuria and facial edema in a child

A

post GAS glomerulonephritis

392
Q

fibromyalgia tx

A

amitriptyline

393
Q

BB OD tx

A

insulin and glucagon

394
Q

lead toxicity tx

A

succimer
EDTA

395
Q

iron OD tx

A

deferoxamine

396
Q

amphetamine ingestion OD tx

A

benzos

397
Q

ASA OD sx

A

ringing of ears

398
Q

Which OD affects vision

A

methanol

399
Q

methanol OD vision changes

A

snowfield vision

400
Q

ethylene glycol OD tx

A

fomepizole

401
Q

tamoxifen RF

A

DVT
endometrial cancer

402
Q

pt can’t take metformin, give

A

glipizide

403
Q

If statins cause myalgia, add

A

Co Q10

404
Q

smokers pneumonia bug

A

H. flu

405
Q

atypical pneumonia tx

A

azithromycin

406
Q

blowing murmurs

A

Regurg (aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation)

407
Q

rumble murmurs

A

Stenosis (aortic stenosis, mitral stenosis)

408
Q

cromolyn sodium is

A

mast cell stabilizer
used for allergic rhinitis in children and pregnancy

409
Q

absent patellar reflex is what nerve root

A

L4

410
Q

Tau proteins think

A

alzheimer dz
EPO-E4 apolipoprotein on chromosome 19 assoc w/ increased risk of Alzheimers

411
Q

poly arthritis nodosa tx

A

cyclophosphamide
CS

412
Q

3 drugs that can cause lupus

A

PIQ
procainamide
isoniazid
quinidine

413
Q

G6PD PBS

A

Heinz bodies
bite cells

414
Q

Howell jolly bodies

A

sickle cell

415
Q

first line abx epiglottis

A

IV ceftriaxone

416
Q

topiramate MC AE

A

paresthesias

417
Q

tx trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

418
Q

slit lamp reveals “cell and flare” in anterior chamber

A

iritis

419
Q

CA19-9

A

pancreatic cancer
gallbladder cancer
bile duct cancer
gastric cancer

420
Q

CA-125

A

ovarian cancer

421
Q

CEA

A

colorectal cancer

422
Q

recent URI may cause hematuria in patient w/

A

IgA neuropathy (Bergers dz)

423
Q

hemoptysis w/ hematuria sx of

A

goodpasture syndrome

424
Q

aphthous ulcer associated w/ which HHV

A

HHV6

425
Q

aphthous ulcer tx

A

topical oral steroids (triamcinolone)

426
Q

cholesteatoma causes what kind of hearing loss

A

conductive

427
Q

MCC corneal ulcers

A

bacterial- pseudomonas

428
Q

HSV keratitis tx

A

topical antiviral ganciclovir
PO acyclovir

429
Q

MC bug causes dacrycystitis

A

S. aureus

430
Q

MCC hordeolum

A

S. aureus

431
Q

drusen spots

A

dry macular degeneration

432
Q

which nystagmus seen with Meniere’s disease

A

horizontal

433
Q

swollen optic disk w/ blurred margins

A

papilledema

434
Q

papilledema tx

A

diuretics (acetazolamide)

435
Q

bilateral swollen parotids, indication of

A

mumps

436
Q

MCC parotitis

A

paramyxovirus

437
Q

retinal detachment sx

A

curtain coming down
photopsia, floaters
progressive unilateral vision loss
not painful

438
Q

retinal detachment tx

A

optho emergency
keep supine

439
Q

blood and thunder on fundoscopy

A

CRVO

440
Q

MCC new permanent vision loss in 25-74yo

A

retinopathy

441
Q

cotton wool patches and blot and dot hemorrhages

A

nonproliferation retinopathy

442
Q

MC bug causing sialadenitis

A

A. aureus

443
Q

CI to OCP

A

women >35 smokers
Hx blood clots
breast cancer
migraine w/ aura

444
Q

which OCP safe in lactation

A

mini pill progestin only

445
Q

risk of starting hormonal therapy several years after onset of menopause

A

MI in 1st 12mo

446
Q

vaginal candiasis tx

A

single dose fluconazole

447
Q

vaginal candidiasis in 1st trimester tx

A

itraconazole

448
Q

tennis elbow tx

A

splint forearm
PT
injection/surgery

449
Q

heberden node at DIP and Bouchard node at PIP

A

OA

450
Q

OA tx

A

Tylenol first line
NSAIDS
joint injections

451
Q

tx severe acne

A

isotrentinoin

452
Q

only childhood exanthema that starts on trunk and spread to face

A

roseola, 6th disease

453
Q

roseola caused by which HHV

A

HHV 6 and 7

454
Q

MC virus causes hand foot mouth dz

A

coxsackie A virus

455
Q

harold patch

A

pityriasis rosea

456
Q

tx tinea capitus

A

griseofulvin

457
Q

which SSRI reduce binge-purge cycle

A

fluoxetine

458
Q

balanitis tx fungal cause

A

clotrimazole 1%

459
Q

teardrop pupil

A

ruptured globe w/ iris prolapse (optho emergency)

460
Q

drugs that can cause macular degeneration

A

chloroquine
phenothiazine

461
Q

nerve that causes wrist drop

A

radial

462
Q

fracture of which bone causes wrist drop

A

mid shaft humerus fx

463
Q

MC elbow dislocation

A

posterior

464
Q

elbow xray in child shows posterior fat pad and sail sign

A

supracondylar fx

465
Q

elevated cold agglutinin titer seen in

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

466
Q

Pt on PTU for graves, monitor

A

liver failure
leukopenia

467
Q

amiodarone FDA box warning

A

irreversible pulmonary fibrosis

468
Q

prinzmetal test

A

IV ergonovine test

469
Q

drug that can cause myocarditis

A

clozapine

470
Q

which murmurs are seen with dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Mitral regurgitation
tricuspid regurgitation

471
Q

HOCM avoid these meds

A

digoxin
diuretics
nitrates

472
Q

erythema marginatum distribution

A

bathing suit distribution

473
Q

which murmur doesn’t radiate

A

mitral stenosis

474
Q

severe aortic stenosis avoid these meds

A

BB
CCB
nitrates

475
Q

HCTZ AE

A

HyperGLUC (glycemia, lipidemia, uricemia, calcemia)

476
Q

CCB AE

A

gingival hyperplasia
constipation
edema
flushing, dizziness
cardiac depression

477
Q

niacin may precipitate

A

gout

478
Q

aortic dissection vs AAA

A

aortic dissection: MCC HTN
AAA: MCC atherosclerosis

479
Q

drugs that cause AV blocks

A

ABCD (amiodarone, BB, CCB, digoxin)

480
Q

which cholesterol med can cause constipation and metabolic acidosis

A

bile sequestrant

481
Q

lithium use in pregnancy can lead to

A

epstein anomoly (tricuspid valve issue)

482
Q

dont use amiodarone for

A

torsades de pointes

483
Q

which type of lung cancer is centrally located

A

squamous cell carcinoma

484
Q

1st line tx keloids

A

CS inj

485
Q

dacrocystitis tx

A

clindamycin + 3rd gen cephalosporin

486
Q

perioral dermatitis tx

A

topical metronidazole

487
Q

anticholinergics antidote

A

physostigmine

488
Q

folliculitis tx

A

mupirocin ointment and topical benzoyl peroxide cream first line
oral abx: dicloxicillin and cephalexin

489
Q

androgenic alopecia tx

A

topical minoxidil and oral finasteride

490
Q

trichophpyton rubrum

A

athletes foot
onychomycosis

491
Q

hx of anaphylaxis to eggs or penicillin are relative CI to which vaccine

A

MMR

492
Q

sulfonylureas AE

A

hypoglycemia

493
Q

toxoplasmosis tx in pregnancy

A

spiramycin

494
Q

head tilt away from side of lesion, cranial nerve

A

trochlear nerve CN IV

495
Q

jaw deviation toward side of lesion CN

A

mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve CN V3

496
Q

tongue deviation towards side of lesion CN

A

hypoglossal nerve CN XII

497
Q

Which eye muscle does CNVI (abducens nerve) innervate

A

lateral rectus

498
Q

Bells palsy forehead

A

forehead is not spared

499
Q

bilateral palsy is linked to which conditions

A

lyme disease
infectious mononucleosis

500
Q

wernicke encephalopathy caused by

A

thiamine (B1) deficiency

501
Q

wernicke encephalopathy sx

A

ataxia
confusion
nystagmus

502
Q

cluster HA sx

A

unilateral pain localized behind 1 eye
brief yet repetitive
lasts 15-180min

503
Q

Tx for West Nile

A

supportive

504
Q

rabies sx

A

diplopia, neuritis
excessive salivation
respiratory paralysis

505
Q

west nile sx

A

flu like sx
URI sx
maculopapular rash
fever
sx last 3-6d

506
Q

herpes encephalitis CSF

A

elevated RBC

507
Q

herpes encephalitis sx

A

rapid onset fever
HA, seizure
focal neurologic signs
impaired consciousness
personality changes

508
Q

meningococcemia etiology

A

neisseria meningitidis (gram negative diplococcus, aerobic)

509
Q

meningococcemia sx

A

military recruit or student
F, HA, arthralgia, rash
petechiae
skin lesions w/ gray necrotic centers

510
Q

meningococcemia tx

A

ceftriaxone and vancomycin

511
Q

meningococcemia complication

A

waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome: bilateral adrenal hemorrhage w/ meningococcus

512
Q

meningioma arises from

A

arachnoid

513
Q

meningioma prognosis

A

usually benign

514
Q

glioblastoma multiforme presentation

A

rapid presentation

515
Q

MC malignant primary brain tumor

A

glioblastoma multiforme

516
Q

glioblastoma multiforme prognosis

A

poor
<1yr from time of dx

517
Q

MC malignant brain tumor in adults

A

glioblastoma

518
Q

MC malignant brain tumor in children

A

medulloblastoma

519
Q

Medulloblastoma sx

A

increased ICP
CN VI palsy
HA, vomiting, ataxia

520
Q

pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial hypertension) presentation

A

young obese female w/ hx of vitamin A toxicity
use of steroids or tetracyclines

521
Q

pseudotumor cerebri PE

A

CN VI palsy
vpapilledema
visual sx
elevated opening pressure on LP

522
Q

tx pseudotumor cerebri

A

aacetazolamide
serial LP
weight loss

523
Q

GBS sx

A

symmetric progressive ascending muscle weakness
lack of DTF

524
Q

tx absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

525
Q

tx urge incontinence

A

oxybutynin

526
Q

tx overflow incontinence

A

alpha blockers

527
Q

tx peyronie’s dz

A

pentoxifylline

528
Q

MC penile cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

529
Q

Mitral Regurgitation murmur

A

Holosystolic @ apex
Radiate to axilla
wide split S2

530
Q

Aortic stenosis murmur

A

Crescendo Decrescendo
Systolic
RUSB
Rad to carotids
Louder w/ squatting

531
Q

Tricuspid regurgitation murmur

A

high pitched holosystolic
increase w/ inspiration
LLSB

532
Q

Pulmonic stenosis murmur

A

Systolic crescendo decrescendo
LUSB
JVD and RVH

533
Q

Aortic regurgitation murmur

A

blowing decrescendo diastolic
LUSB
louder when leaning forward w/ breath held

534
Q

Mitral Stenosis murmur

A

diastolic rumble
opening snap

535
Q

HOCM vs Aortic stenosis

A

HOCM murmur increase w/ valsalva, lessened with handgrip/squatting

536
Q

MVP murmur

A

mid-late systolic click
inc w/ standing/valsalva

537
Q

Pericarditis hallmark

A

friction rub
EKG: Everything up

538
Q

Buerger disease

A

Vasculitis of small-medium arteries of extremities
tobacco use
Men <45yo
Tx: stop smoking

539
Q

Optic neuritis tx

A

IV CS

540
Q

mastoiditis tx

A

Admit
IV vanco
oral abx
surgery

541
Q

Vestibular neuritis vs acute labyrinthitis

A

Vestibular neuritis: no hearing loss
Labyrinthitis: hearing loss

542
Q

Vestibular schwannoma/ acoustic neuroma dx

A

MRI of head/brain w/ contrast

543
Q

anterior epistaxis tx

A

intranasal oxymetazoline

544
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia seen in which patient

A

HIV and EBV induced patients

545
Q

SIADH tx

A

fluid restriction mainstay

546
Q

Adrenal insufficiency dx

A

serum cortisol
ACTH stimulation testing

547
Q

Addisons tx

A

replacement therapy: hydrocortisone, frudrocortisone
DHEA

548
Q

TOC pheochromocytoma

A

surgical resection

549
Q

MEN1

A

tumors of anterior pituitary, parathyroid, and endocrine pancreas

550
Q

MEN2A

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
primary hyperparathyroidism

551
Q

Men2B

A

Medullary thyroid cancer
pheochromocytoma
mucosa neuromas
intestinal ganglioneuromas
marfanoid habitus

552
Q

choledocholithiasis tx

A

ERCP TOC

553
Q

hemochromatosis lab hallmark

A

increased % transferrin
increased saturation
increased ferritin

554
Q

Wilsons disease sx

A

Kaiser Fleischer ring

555
Q

Wilsons disease tx

A

penicillamine copper chelation

556
Q

hepatitis B prophylaxis

A

Preventative: HBV vaccine: if not allergic to yeast
Post exposure: hepatitis B immunoglobulin + HBV vaccine

557
Q

hepatocellular cancer marker

A

AFP

558
Q

Celiac dz labs

A

tTG (tissue transglutaminase) IgA
EMA (endomysial IgA antibody) IgA

559
Q

Smoking for IBD

A

Protective in UC
Harmful in crohns

560
Q

IBD tx

A

mesalamine 1st line

561
Q

colorectal cancer screen

A

45-75yo
>85yo should not get screened

562
Q

niacin deficiency

A

B3
pellagra (3Ds): dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea

563
Q

thiamine deficiency

A

B1
from alcohol
BeriBeri
high output CHF/ wernickes encephalopathy

564
Q

beta thalassemia PBS

A

target cell
basophilic stippling

565
Q

Sideroblastic anemia diagnostic test

A

bone marrow: ringed sideroblast w/ Prussian blue stain

566
Q

vitamin B12 deficiency PBS

A

hypersegmented neutrophils

567
Q

folate deficiency PBS

A

Howell jolly bodies

568
Q

G6PD PBS

A

bite cells, blister cells
hemighosts
Heinz bodies

569
Q

essential thrombocytosis sx

A

HA
redness and burning of palms and soles
splenomegaly

570
Q

essential thrombocytosis tx

A

hydroxyurea

571
Q

CML tx

A

imitinib mesylate (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)
bone marrow transplant- curative

572
Q

CLL PBS

A

smudge cells

573
Q

CLL tx

A

watch and wait
chemo/stem cell transplant

574
Q

AML PBS

A

auer rods

575
Q

AML tx

A

chemo
stem cell transplant

576
Q

pediatric leukemia

A

ALL

577
Q

ALL tx

A

chemo

578
Q

hodgkin lymphoma bx

A

reed Sternberg cells

579
Q

TTP PBS, labs

A

schistocytes
normal coag panel

580
Q

TTP tx

A

plasmapheresis

581
Q

von willebrand dz tx

A

avoid aspirin
desmopressin

582
Q

hemophilia sx

A

hemarthrosis
bleeding

583
Q

hemophilia A tx

A

desmopressin
factor 8

584
Q

hemophilia b tx

A

factor 9
FFP
avoid aspirin

585
Q

pnemocystosis etiology

A

pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP)

586
Q

pneumocystosis tx

A

bactrim + prednisone

587
Q

RMSF rash

A

red macular rash on wrists and ankles
spreads centrally
turns petechial

588
Q

gonorrhea tx

A

ceftriaxone
azithromycin

589
Q

chlamydia tx

A

azithromycin or doxycycline

590
Q

syphilis tx

A

penicillin G

591
Q

infective endocarditis tx

A

vancomycin + ceftriaxone
vancomycin + gentamicin

592
Q

campylobacter jejeni tx

A

azithromycin

593
Q

FeNa Pre/Intra/Post renal

A

Pre: <1%
Intrinsic: >1%
Post: >4%

594
Q

ATN pathognomonic

A

muddy brown casts

595
Q

AIN sx

A

fever, rash, arthralgia
WBC casts

596
Q

glomerulonephritis pathognomonic

A

RBC casts

597
Q

Cranial nerves

A

Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A Girls Vagina And Hymen
Olfactory
optic
oculomotor
trochlear
trigeminal
abducens
facial
vestibulocochlear
glossopharyngeal
vagus
accessory
hypoglossal

598
Q

Cranial nerves (Motor/sensory)

A

Some Say Marry Money But My Brothers Says Big Brain Matter More

599
Q

status epilepticus tx

A

ABC
rectal diazepam
IV lorazepam + IV phenytoin

600
Q

Cervical myotomes (C5-C8)

A

C5: deltoid, arm abduction
C6: biceps, arm flexion
C7: triceps, arm extension
C8: interossei, palmar adduct and dorsal adduct

601
Q

lumbar myotomes (L4-S1)

A

L4: quadriceps, extension of knee
L5: anterior tibialis, heel walking
S1: gastrocnemius, toe walking

602
Q

Unhappy triad

A

ACL
MCL
Medial meniscus

603
Q

Meniscal injury testing

A

McMurrays
Apley’s

604
Q

pertussis tx

A

azithromycin

605
Q

erythema infectiousum etiology

A

fifth disease
Parvovirus B19

606
Q

scarlet fever sx

A

sore throat
sandpaper rash
strawberry tongue w/ white coating

607
Q

ASD murmur

A

systolic ejection murmur
LUSB
widely split and fixed S2

608
Q

VSD murmur

A

loud harsh blowing
holosystolic murmur
LLSB

609
Q

LMWH antidote

A

protamine

610
Q

Class I antiarrhythmics

A

Block Na channels
IA: quinidine, disopyramide, procainamide
IB: lidocaine
IC: flecainide

611
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics

A

BB

612
Q

class III antiarrhythmics

A

blocks K channels
sotolol, dronedarone
amiodarone

613
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmics

A

block Ca channels and slows conduction thru AV node
verapamil, diltiazem (non-dihydro CCB)

614
Q

digoxin AE

A

delirium/hallucinations
visual disturbances (yellow/green, blur)

615
Q

Nonselective BB

A

propranolol
timolol
sotalol

616
Q

selective BB

A

metoprolol, atenolol, esmolol

617
Q

BB w/ alpha 1 blocking activity

A

labetalol, carvedilol

618
Q

alpha blockers and AE

A

prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin
AE: sedation, priapism, hypotension

619
Q

opioid AE

A

somnolence
constipation
flushing/itching
respiratory depression

620
Q

metformin AE

A

metallic taste
lactic acidosis
hepatotoxicity

621
Q

hydroxychloroquine AE

A

retinal toxicity- regular dilated eye exams needed

622
Q

SLE criteria

A

Need 4
malar rash, discoid skin lesions, photosensitivity
oral ulcers, arthritis, serositis (pericarditis/pleuritis)
renal dz (proteinuria), neurological dz (seizures, psychosis),
anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
anti-DNA or false pos VDRL, abnormal ANA titer

623
Q

Positive HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathies

A

ankylosing spondylitis
reactive arthritis
psoriatic arthritis
GI (colic) arthritis

624
Q

ankylosing spondylitis tx

A

SAID
glucocorticoid
DMARD
physiotherapy

625
Q

phenytoin AE

A

hirsutism
diplopia
gingival hyperplasia

626
Q

granulomatosis w/ polyangitis sx

A

triad: upper respiratory sx, lower respiratory sx, focal segmental glomerulonephritis

627
Q

polymyositis sx

A

proximal symmetric muscle weakness: shoulder girdle (deltoid), pelvic girdle (hip flexors), neck flexors

628
Q

dermatomyositis sx

A

heliotrope rash
grotton’s papules
shawl sign/ V sign
calcinassi cutis

629
Q

polymyalgia rheumatica sx

A

SECRET
symmetric proximal stiffness/pain
elderly
constitutional sx/ caucasian
rheumatism (arthritis)
ESR elevated
temporal arteritis

630
Q

MCC pneumonia in alcoholics

A

klebsiella

631
Q

aortic stenosis triad

A

ASH
angina
syncope
heart failure

632
Q

MC fx in pagets dz

A

vertebral crush fx

633
Q

Vit B12 deficiency at risk for what

A

gastric cancer`

634
Q

pertussis tx

A

azithromycin

635
Q

meds that improve mortality for HF

A

ACE
BB
spironolactone
hydralazine

636
Q

1st line acute pericarditis

A

NSAIDS (indomethacin)

637
Q

Coarctation of aorta CXR

A

rib notching
figure 3 sign

638
Q

pericardial effusion ekg

A

electrical alternans
low voltage QRS

639
Q

endocarditis sx

A

Roth spots

640
Q

MC heart malformation

A

VSD

PNCE (33 decks)

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