11.5 Avionic Systems Flashcards by Dylan Sinclair

What are the five types of aircraft instrumentation?
A) Pressure instruments, Hydraulic systems, Electrical controls, Radar, Manual inputs
B) Pressure instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Compasses, Mechanical indicators, Electronic instruments
C) Gyroscopes, GPS, Radios, Compasses, Electrical instruments

B) Pressure instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Compasses, Mechanical indicators, Electronic instruments

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Which instruments make up the ‘Basic T’ configuration?
A) Altimeter, Turn Coordinator, Compass, Airspeed Indicator
B) Airspeed Indicator, Attitude Director Indicator, Altimeter, Horizontal Situation Indicator
C) Attitude Indicator, Compass, VSI, Altimeter

B) Airspeed Indicator, Attitude Director Indicator, Altimeter, Horizontal Situation Indicator

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What is the function of the static port?
A) Measures dynamic pressure in flight
B) Measures static electricity on the outside surfaces of the aircraft
C) Measures static pressure from undisturbed airflow

C) Measures static pressure from undisturbed airflow

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What is the Static Source Error (SSE)?
A) Error in dynamic pressure due to aircraft pitch
B) The difference between measured and real static pressure
C) Misalignment in the altimeter reading

B) The difference between measured and real static pressure

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Why are static ports installed on both sides of the aircraft?
A) To allow redundancy in case one fails
B) To balance the weight of the aircraft
C) To counteract sideslip manoeuvres and reduce SSE

C) To counteract sideslip manoeuvres and reduce SSE

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What is the formula for dynamic pressure in the pitot system?
A) Total Pressure + Static Pressure
B) Static Pressure - Total Pressure
C) Total Pressure - Static Pressure

C) Total Pressure - Static Pressure

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Why is a baffle plate included in the pitot tube?
A) To warm the air entering the tube
B) To allow airflow only during cruise
C) To prevent dirt and debris from entering

C) To prevent dirt and debris from entering

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What is the purpose of drain points in the pitot-static system?
A) To increase air pressure
B) To remove accumulated water
C) To reset the altimeter

B) To remove accumulated water

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What does the Alternate Static Source Selector allow?
A) Swaps between digital and analogue readings
B) Switches to the alternate pilot’s static system
C) Enables manual recalibration of pitot tubes

B) Switches to the alternate pilot’s static system

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What is done during a static leak test?
A) Add pressure to the system
B) Remove pressure from the system
C) Apply vacuum to the pitot tube

B) Remove pressure from the system

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What altimeter setting provides altitude above sea level?
A) QNE
B) QFE
C) QNH

C) QNH

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At what pressure is standard atmosphere set?
A) 1013.25 mmHg
B) 1013.25 HPa
C) 1000 HPa

B) 1013.25 HPa

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What happens to pressure as altitude increases?
A) It increases exponentially
B) It remains the same
C) It decreases

C) It decreases

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How much pressure remains at 36,000 feet compared to sea level?
A) 12.5%
B) 25%
C) 50%

B) 25%

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What causes the capsule in the altimeter to expand?
A) Increase in static pressure
B) Decrease in static pressure
C) Increase in temperature

B) Decrease in static pressure

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What does the IVSI include to show rapid changes in altitude?
A) Heated probe
B) Electronic filter
C) Dashpot (vertical acceleration pump)

C) Dashpot (vertical acceleration pump)

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What is the airspeed indicator primarily using to determine speed?
A) GPS and inertial data
B) Static and dynamic pressure
C) Temperature sensors

B) Static and dynamic pressure

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What is VNE?
A) Stall speed with the flaps extended and landing gear down
B) Never exceed this speed
C) Vertical Navigation Estimate

B) Never exceed this speed

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What is True Airspeed (TAS)?
A) Corrected for instrument and static source error
B) Speed relative to the surface of the Earth
C) Computed airspeed corrected for air density

C) Computed airspeed corrected for air density

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What does the machmeter measure?
A) Ground speed over time
B) Ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound
C) Engine speed in Mach units

B) Ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound

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What does the Air Data Computer (ADC) do?
A) Measures weight and balance
B) Replaces GPS and inertial navigation
C) Uses pitot-static and temperature inputs to send air data to instruments

C) Uses pitot-static and temperature inputs to send air data to instruments

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What distinguishes a Digital ADC from an Analogue ADC?
A) It uses liquid sensors
B) It uses piezo sensors for digital signals
C) It sends signals to the engine only

B) It uses piezo sensors for digital signals

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What is the function of the Air Data Module?
A) Converts electric signals to air pressure
B) Measures engine temperature
C) Converts air pressures into electrical signals

C) Converts air pressures into electrical signals

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What does ADIRU stand for and do? A) Automated Directional Input and Relay Unit – manages engine data B) Air Data Inertial Reference Unit – provides air and inertial reference data C) Air Dynamics Integrated Receiver Unit – monitors weather systems

B) Air Data Inertial Reference Unit – provides air and inertial reference data

Why are standby instruments important? A) They improve engine performance B) They are used to test autopilot C) They provide altitude and airspeed when main instruments fail

C) They provide altitude and airspeed when main instruments fail

What causes a gyroscope to maintain a constant axis direction unless acted on by a force? A) Electrical input B) Its ability to sense gravity C) Rigidity in space

C) Rigidity in space

What are the three factors that affect the stability of a gyroscope? A) Weight, altitude, and temperature B) Mass, rotational speed, and distance from the axis to the center of mass C) Speed, gimbal resistance, and air pressure

B) Mass, rotational speed, and distance from the axis to the center of mass

To achieve sufficient stability, aircraft gyroscopes must spin at speeds up to: A) 5,000 RPM B) 12,000 RPM C) 22,000 RPM

C) 22,000 RPM

A Rate Gyro has how many degrees of freedom? A) One B) Two C) Three

A) One

What classification types apply to gyroscopes? A) Manual vs. Automatic B) Degrees of Freedom, Spin Axis Orientation, and Type of Use C) Mechanical, Optical, and Hydraulic

B) Degrees of Freedom, Spin Axis Orientation, and Type of Use

What is true about an Earth Gyro? A) It is affected only by dynamic pressure B) It has one degree of freedom C) It has two degrees of freedom and its spin axis is constrained by Earth's gravity

C) It has two degrees of freedom and its spin axis is constrained by Earth's gravity

Gyroscopic precession causes a gyro to respond to an applied force by moving: A) In the opposite direction B) 180 degrees around the axis C) 90 degrees in the direction of rotation

C) 90 degrees in the direction of rotation

What is "wander" in relation to gyroscopic behavior? A) The motion of gyros in unstable weather B) A combination of drift and topple C) A sudden change in aircraft heading

B) A combination of drift and topple

At which location is gyroscopic drift the greatest? A) Equator B) Tropic of Cancer C) Poles

C) Poles

What is the maximum apparent drift rate due to Earth rotation? A) 10 degrees per hour B) 15 degrees per hour C) 20 degrees per hour

B) 15 degrees per hour

Which instrument uses a vertical gyro as its reference? A) Directional Gyro B) Artificial Horizon C) Machmeter

B) Artificial Horizon

What type of erection system is used in an air-driven vertical gyro? A) Spring-loaded axis alignment B) Pendulum system using airflow C) Inertial dampers

B) Pendulum system using airflow

Electrically driven gyros use what method to maintain vertical alignment? A) Manual calibration B) Gimbal springs C) Level switches with conductive fluid and a torque motor

C) Level switches with conductive fluid and a torque motor

What is an advantage of electric gyros over pneumatic ones in large aircraft? A) Lower cost B) Manual input is required C) They maintain a stable speed in all flight conditions

C) They maintain a stable speed in all flight conditions

What happens when two light beams travel in opposite directions on a spinning platform and are recombined? A) One beam vanishes B) They exhibit interference effects C) They cancel each other out

B) They exhibit interference effects

What precaution should be taken when handling aircraft gyros during maintenance? A) Rotate them manually to check function B) Disconnect them immediately C) Allow them to spin down before handling

C) Allow them to spin down before handling

The Directional Gyro (DG) is best described as: A) A vertical gyro inside a sealed unit with a horizontal spin axis B) A laser-based device for measuring altitude C) A backup for a compass

A) A vertical gyro inside a sealed unit with a horizontal spin axis

How is drift in an air-driven DG corrected? A) It self-aligns with magnetic north B) It is corrected manually by the pilot C) It uses GPS updates

B) It is corrected manually by the pilot

What does the Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) display? A) Aircraft's altitude B) Aircraft’s location relative to the selected course or radial C) Rate of climb or descent

B) Aircraft’s location relative to the selected course or radial

The Turn and Slip Indicator provides information about: A) True airspeed and wind drift B) Turn rate and bank coordination C) Roll and pitch only

B) Turn rate and bank coordination

What distinguishes a turn coordinator from a turn and slip indicator? A) Turn coordinator also shows pitch B) Turn coordinator is mounted at a 30° angle to detect roll C) Turn and slip indicator includes a compass

B) Turn coordinator is mounted at a 30° angle to detect roll

What type of gyros are used in rate-of-turn instruments? A) Earth gyros B) Rate gyros with 1.5 degrees of freedom C) Vertical gyros with 3 degrees of freedom

B) Rate gyros with 1.5 degrees of freedom

What is true of a roll rate gyro? A) It has lateral gimbal bearings and a vertical spin axis B) It uses pendulums to detect changes C) It only functions in level flight

A) It has lateral gimbal bearings and a vertical spin axis

What is the function of a pitch rate gyro? A) Measures rate of pitch around the lateral axis B) Measures yaw rate C) Measures rate of pitch around the longitudinal axis

C) Measures rate of pitch around the longitudinal axis

The spin axis of a yaw rate gyro is aligned with the aircraft’s: A) Vertical axis B) Longitudinal axis C) Lateral axis

C) Lateral axis

What is the term for the difference between True North and Magnetic North? A) Deviation B) Drift C) Variation

C) Variation

What is the primary purpose of a direct reading compass in an aircraft? A) Provide backup attitude reference B) Operate when GPS fails C) Serve as a standby compass after total electrical failure

C) Serve as a standby compass after total electrical failure

What is used to compensate for the fluid expansion in a direct reading compass? A) Spring chamber B) Expansion unit C) Cooling fan

B) Expansion unit

What is compass deviation? A) The change in heading due to wind B) The angular difference between true and magnetic north C) The difference between magnetic north and the direction shown by the compass due to internal aircraft magnetic interference

C) The difference between magnetic north and the direction shown by the compass due to internal aircraft magnetic interference

What causes compass deviation in an aircraft? A) Atmospheric pressure changes B) Solar radiation C) Magnetic fields generated by the aircraft's electrical equipment and magnetic materials

C) Magnetic fields generated by the aircraft's electrical equipment and magnetic materials

How is the remaining compass error measured and documented? A) By GPS tracking B) During a turn every 30 degrees on the ground, then recorded on a compass deviation card C) Automatically by the ADC

B) During a turn every 30 degrees on the ground, then recorded on a compass deviation card

Why must a special type of filament be used for compass lighting? A) To match voltage with the rest of the cockpit instruments B) To reduce weight C) To prevent compass deviation caused by magnetic fields

C) To prevent compass deviation caused by magnetic fields

Why are two filaments used in compass lighting, and how are they arranged? A) For backup purposes, installed in parallel B) To reduce heat output, installed in series C) They are contra-wound so that opposing magnetic fields cancel each other out

C) They are contra-wound so that opposing magnetic fields cancel each other out

What can happen if an incorrect lamp is used to replace a compass light? A) The compass will overheat B) The compass will become unreadable C) The compass may experience deviation when the light is turned on

C) The compass may experience deviation when the light is turned on

What must a pilot do to keep the directional gyro aligned in older or smaller aircraft? A) Manually calibrate using GPS B) Adjust it manually using the direct reading compass during straight and level flight C) Replace it every flight

B) Adjust it manually using the direct reading compass during straight and level flight

What does a flux valve do in a modern aircraft compass system? A) Filters out false signals from magnetic storms B) Measures wind direction C) Automatically measures the direction of Earth’s magnetic field

C) Automatically measures the direction of Earth’s magnetic field

Where is a flux valve typically installed? A) Near the cockpit for easy access B) In the avionics bay C) In magnetically clean areas like wing tips, wing leading edges, or vertical fin

C) In magnetically clean areas like wing tips, wing leading edges, or vertical fin

What is a compass swing and why is it performed? A) A test of compass damping during flight B) A procedure to check and correct compass accuracy on the ground C) A maintenance procedure to check flux valve voltage

B) A procedure to check and correct compass accuracy on the ground

What is a Compass Swing Base Rose used for? A) To store compass swing data B) To guide aircraft during landing C) A designated area to perform accurate compass swings

C) A designated area to perform accurate compass swings

What must happen to maintain constant lift as airspeed decreases? A) Decrease the angle of attack B) Increase the angle of attack or change wing geometry C) Retract the flaps and slats

B) Increase the angle of attack or change wing geometry

What happens when the critical angle of attack is reached? A) The aircraft enters a spin B) The autopilot disengages C) The stick shaker activates to simulate a stall

C) The stick shaker activates to simulate a stall

What is the purpose of the stick shaker in the stall warning system? A) To recover the aircraft from a stall B) To alert the pilot before a stall occurs C) To decrease the aircraft’s speed

B) To alert the pilot before a stall occurs

What does the stall warning system compare to determine if a stall is imminent? A) Airspeed and altitude B) Angle of attack vane and alpha max, considering flap and slat positions C) Air density and Mach number

B) Angle of attack vane and alpha max, considering flap and slat positions

What is the function of a stick pusher in some stall warning systems? A) To activate slats automatically B) To physically push the control column forward, reducing AoA C) To increase engine thrust during a stall

B) To physically push the control column forward, reducing AoA

What is the purpose of stall strips on the wing’s leading edge? A) Delay the stall by increasing lift B) Promote uniform stalling across the wing C) Trigger an early stall warning by causing turbulent airflow

C) Trigger an early stall warning by causing turbulent airflow

What does a reed switch do in a stall warning system? A) Sends a visual alert to the pilot B) Activates a tone indicating increasing AoA C) Deploys the speed brakes

B) Activates a tone indicating increasing AoA

Where is the reed located in relation to the wing? A) On the trailing edge B) Beneath the wingtip C) In a cavity just aft of the leading edge

C) In a cavity just aft of the leading edge

How does the slotted probe detect changes in angle of attack? A) Measures temperature and pressure differences B) Uses a vane that protrudes into the airflow C) Directs airflow through slots to a paddle in a chamber

C) Directs airflow through slots to a paddle in a chamber

What is a key advantage of the slotted probe design? A) It has no external moving parts B) It doubles as a pitot tube C) It extends during takeoff and landing only

A) It has no external moving parts

What alerts the flight crew to a non-normal or unreliable operational state of certain flight parameters? A) Check engine light B) PFD Failure Flags C) Error message on Captain's iPad

B) PFD Failure Flags

What is the purpose of the Eye Reference Indicator? A) To help adjust headsets for noise cancellation B) To align the pilot's eyes to the correct seating position C) To adjust seat distance from rudder pedals

B) To align the pilot's eyes to the correct seating position

When using the Eye Reference Indicator correctly, what should be visible? A) Both the red and white balls side by side B) Only the red ball, with the white ball hidden C) Only the white ball, with the red ball behind it

B) Only the red ball, with the white ball hidden

What is another term for Outside Air Temperature (OAT)? A) Total Air Temperature (TAT) B) Ram Rise C) Static Air Temperature (SAT)

C) Static Air Temperature (SAT)

What causes Ram Rise in an aircraft? A) Sunlight hitting the temperature sensor B) Heating due to skin friction as the aircraft moves through the air C) Engine exhaust being measured by mistake

B) Heating due to skin friction as the aircraft moves through the air

At what speed does Ram Rise become effective? A) Above 100 knots B) Below 200 knots C) Above 200 knots

C) Above 200 knots

What is required for standby flight instruments in terms of power? A) They must be powered by the main AC bus B) They must have a manual crank backup C) They must be powered independently of normal systems

C) They must be powered independently of normal systems

What is a discrete signal in aircraft systems? A) A signal that varies in amplitude B) A signal that is processed through the autopilot C) A simple on/off signal not routed through a computer

C) A simple on/off signal not routed through a computer

What does the Central Warning Panel (CWP) contain? A) Back-up manual controls B) Various system warnings with colour-coded light boxes C) Screens for navigation settings

B) Various system warnings with colour-coded light boxes

What colour are Master Warning Lights on the Central Warning Panel? A) Amber B) Green C) Red

C) Red

What type of issues do Amber lights on the CWP indicate? A) Status indicators B) Cautions requiring immediate crew attention C) Normal operating conditions

B) Cautions requiring immediate crew attention

What do Cyan lights on the Central Warning Panel indicate? A) A non-urgent advisory B) A serious system failure C) Navigation system alignment

A) A non-urgent advisory

What is a benefit of using electronic panels over traditional ones? A) They eliminate the need for pilot training B) They reduce battery usage C) They allow more information in less space and eliminate parallax error

C) They allow more information in less space and eliminate parallax error

What happens to the colours of numbers and dials on electronic panels as values change? A) They dim to save power B) They rotate like analog dials C) They change colour to reflect changing values

C) They change colour to reflect changing values

What are the three possible light states in landing gear indication systems? A) Blue, Amber, Off B) Green, Red, Not Illuminated C) Red, White, Flashing

B) Green, Red, Not Illuminated

What does PBA stand for in aircraft system panels? A) Pilot Balance Adjustment B) Pressure Balance Application C) Push Button Annunciator

C) Push Button Annunciator

What does the Flight Director System (FDS) compute and display? A) Optimal engine performance parameters B) Proper pitch and bank angles for selected flight paths C) Fuel consumption trends

B) Proper pitch and bank angles for selected flight paths

What is the function of the auto-trim system in an aircraft? A) Enhances yaw damping B) Ensures pitch stability during all flight phases C) Manages flap extension

B) Ensures pitch stability during all flight phases

What does the yaw damper help prevent? A) Pilot fatigue B) Engine failure C) Dutch roll

C) Dutch roll

In an autopilot system, what controls the Power Control Actuators (PCAs)? A) Manual rudder inputs B) Hydraulic systems only C) Servos that receive electrical commands

C) Servos that receive electrical commands

Which of the following channels are primarily used by the autopilot to control the aircraft? A) Pitch and yaw B) Pitch and roll C) Roll and yaw

B) Pitch and roll

What provides heading information for autopilot systems? A) Vertical gyro B) Accelerometers C) Remote compass

C) Remote compass

Which source provides the autopilot system with altitude and speed data? A) Rate gyros B) Vertical gyro C) Central Air Data Computer (CADC)

C) Central Air Data Computer (CADC)

What are the two general types of computations in the autopilot system? A) Direct and indirect B) Initial and secondary C) Inner loop and outer loop

C) Inner loop and outer loop

What is the purpose of the inner loop in an autopilot system? A) Flight planning B) Stabilisation response C) Communication routing

B) Stabilisation response

What systems are integrated into an autoflight system? A) Weather radar and GPS B) Auto-trim, yaw damper, flight director C) Air conditioning and fuel management

B) Auto-trim, yaw damper, flight director

What does the "Flight Level Change" mode control? A) Autobrake settings B) A new flight level through pitch adjustment C) Rudder input

B) A new flight level through pitch adjustment

What must be established before engaging the Vertical Speed mode on the autopilot? A) Fuel balance B) Navigation route C) Vertical speed reference signal

C) Vertical speed reference signal

What does the IAS/Mach Hold mode do? A) Holds the aircraft on a glide slope B) Maintains current indicated airspeed or Mach C) Engages the autobrake system

B) Maintains current indicated airspeed or Mach

What sub-modes does VNAV include? A) Take-off, cruise, and taxi B) Cruise, climb, and descent C) Weather, terrain, and altitude

B) Cruise, climb, and descent

What does the VOR mode allow the autopilot to do? A) Track engine temperature B) Detect crosswinds C) Use VOR signals for steering during airway navigation

C) Use VOR signals for steering during airway navigation

What is the function of the autopilot yaw channel during landing? A) Increase vertical speed B) Align the aircraft to remove crab angle C) Reduce flap drag

B) Align the aircraft to remove crab angle

What triggers the autopilot disengage warning? A) Fuel imbalance B) Pilot seatbelt unfastened C) Engage lever dropping to ‘off’ position

C) Engage lever dropping to ‘off’ position

What does the autothrottle system control? A) Engine temperature B) Cabin pressure C) Thrust of the engines

C) Thrust of the engines

What does the FADEC do in Airbus fly-by-wire aircraft? A) Manages autopilot yaw input B) Converts manual commands to mechanical outputs C) Receives autothrottle digital signals

C) Receives autothrottle digital signals

When can autothrottle be used? A) Only during cruise B) Only during landing C) During all flight phases

C) During all flight phases

Which autothrottle mode is engaged via take-off/go-around switches? A) Speed Control Mode B) Flare and Touchdown C) Take-off mode

C) Take-off mode

What happens to thrust levers during a VNAV descent? A) They stay in take-off position B) They advance to cruise power C) They retard to idle

C) They retard to idle

What is the purpose of the “RETARD” or “IDLE” annunciation during VNAV descent? A) To warn of turbulence B) To indicate fuel crossfeed C) To show thrust levers are being retarded

C) To show thrust levers are being retarded

What defines a Fail Operational autoflight system? A) It shuts down with any fault B) It ignores sensor inputs C) It can function despite one failure and still perform autoland

C) It can function despite one failure and still perform autoland

What happens in a Fail Passive system? A) It shuts off automatically after descent B) It withstands failure without danger or major deviation C) It disengages without warning

B) It withstands failure without danger or major deviation

What type of communication is primarily used for long-range transmission? A) VHF B) HF and satellite communication C) ADS-B

B) HF and satellite communication

What type of communication is limited to line-of-sight and therefore used for short-range communication? A) HF B) Satellite C) VHF

C) VHF

What does ACARS stand for and what does it provide? A) Aircraft Communication and Radar Service – weather data B) ARINC Communication and Reporting System – data in/out C) Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System – data in/out

C) Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System – data in/out

What does ADS-B provide? A) Voice communications B) Long-range satellite internet C) Data and telemetry

C) Data and telemetry

In an electromagnetic wave, what does one cycle represent? A) One full wave of increasing amplitude B) One complete series of values C) One second of transmission

B) One complete series of values

What is the amplitude of a wave? A) The time it takes for one cycle B) The width of the wave C) The maximum displacement from zero

C) The maximum displacement from zero

What happens to the wavelength as frequency increases? A) It increases B) It decreases C) It stays the same

B) It decreases

How fast do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? A) Speed of sound B) Speed of aircraft C) Speed of light

C) Speed of light

What is the function of the transmitting antenna? A) To stabilize wave amplitude B) To accelerate charges and emit electromagnetic waves C) To receive and decode data signals

B) To accelerate charges and emit electromagnetic waves

What does the receiving antenna do when a radio wave hits it? A) Amplifies sound B) Sends data to satellites C) Induces an AC voltage

C) Induces an AC voltage

What component does a radio transmitter use to generate the carrier wave? A) Amplifier B) Resonator C) Oscillator

C) Oscillator

What component in a radio receiver is used to tune into a station? A) Capacitor B) Resonator C) Filter

B) Resonator

What is the frequency range for High Frequency (HF) communication? A) 30-300 MHz B) 2-29.999 MHz C) 108.000-111.95 MHz

B) 2-29.999 MHz

What is the wavelength range for HF communication? A) 1m–10m B) 10m–100m C) 100m–1000m

B) 10m–100m

What is the frequency range for VHF communication? A) 30-300 MHz B) 2-29.999 MHz C) 3-30 MHz

A) 30-300 MHz

What is the specific VHF communication band used in aviation? A) 2.000 MHz to 10.000 MHz B) 118.000 MHz to 111.95 MHz C) 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz

C) 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz

What are radio waves that travel via the ionosphere called? A) Ground waves B) Surface waves C) Sky waves

C) Sky waves

What type of radio wave travels through the troposphere? A) Sky wave B) Ground wave C) Sun wave

B) Ground wave

What are the two classifications of ground waves? A) Surface waves and space waves B) Sky waves and space waves C) Ionospheric waves and ground waves

A) Surface waves and space waves

How do surface waves travel from transmitter to receiver? A) Through the ionosphere B) In a straight line C) Along the Earth's contour by diffraction

C) Along the Earth's contour by diffraction

Which type of wave travels in line-of-sight or may reflect off surfaces or obstacles? A) Surface waves B) Space waves C) Sky waves

B) Space waves

Which of the following factors affects the amount of refraction in the ionosphere? A) Electrical conductivity of the Earth B) Sunlight intensity C) Density of ionisation, frequency, and angle of incidence

C) Density of ionisation, frequency, and angle of incidence

What is the skip zone? A) A zone of heavy interference from the Sun B) The area beyond the ground wave and before the returning sky wave C) The area where surface and space waves cancel each other out

B) The area beyond the ground wave and before the returning sky wave

What causes ground reflection loss? A) Changes in altitude B) Each time the wave is reflected from the Earth’s surface C) Changes in temperature

B) Each time the wave is reflected from the Earth’s surface

What factors influence the amount of energy lost due to ground reflection? A) Angle of the sun and cloud cover B) Wave frequency, angle of incidence, surface irregularities, and conductivity C) Ionospheric density and signal modulation

B) Wave frequency, angle of incidence, surface irregularities, and conductivity

What is free space loss in radio wave propagation? A) Loss due to thunderstorms B) Loss from wave interference near water C) Loss from the spreading of the wavefront over distance

C) Loss from the spreading of the wavefront over distance

What causes man-made electromagnetic interference (EMI)? A) Sunspot activity B) Proximity to natural geographic features C) Industrial activity and is worse during daylight

C) Industrial activity and is worse during daylight

What is a source of natural electromagnetic interference? A) High-voltage power lines B) Satellites C) Thunderstorms and the Sun

C) Thunderstorms and the Sun

Which of the following are classes of regular variations that affect ionisation in the ionosphere? A) Hourly and weekly B) Daily, seasonal, 11-year, and 27-day C) Monthly and yearly only

B) Daily, seasonal, 11-year, and 27-day

What are sunspots associated with? A) Lightning and static interference B) GPS signal distortion C) Solar flares and coronal mass ejections

C) Solar flares and coronal mass ejections

What component in the transmitter generates the basic radio frequency? A) Antenna B) Amplifier C) Oscillator

C) Oscillator

What is the function of RF and AF amplifiers in a transmitter? A) To convert electrical signals into sound waves B) To increase the strength of radio and audio frequencies C) To generate electromagnetic waves

B) To increase the strength of radio and audio frequencies

What is the role of an antenna in radio communication? A) To store electrical energy B) To convert electromagnetic waves into mechanical energy C) To act as a transducer converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and vice versa

C) To act as a transducer converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and vice versa

What type of antenna is commonly used for VHF communication on aircraft? A) 1/2 wavelength antenna B) 1/4 wavelength antenna C) Full wavelength antenna

B) 1/4 wavelength antenna

What is a modulated signal? A) A signal that only contains noise and distortion B) A signal that combines the modulating and carrier signals C) A signal that has constant frequency and amplitude

B) A signal that combines the modulating and carrier signals

In Amplitude Modulation (AM), what part of the carrier signal is changed? A) Frequency B) Phase C) Amplitude

C) Amplitude

What is altered in Frequency Modulation (FM)? A) Frequency of the carrier signal B) Amplitude of the message signal C) Phase of the message signal

A) Frequency of the carrier signal

In Phase Modulation (PM), which characteristic of the carrier signal is varied? A) Amplitude B) Phase C) Frequency

B) Phase

What type of signal is used as a carrier wave in pulse modulation? A) Sinusoidal wave B) Rectangular pulses C) Triangular pulses

B) Rectangular pulses

Which type of analogue pulse modulation varies the amplitude of each pulse according to the signal at the sampling instant? A) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) B) Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) C) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)

C) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)

In Pulse Width Modulation (PWM), what is varied? A) Amplitude of the pulse B) Width of the pulse C) Position of the pulse

B) Width of the pulse

In Pulse Position Modulation (PPM), which of the following remains constant? A) Pulse position B) Pulse amplitude and width C) Pulse amplitude only

B) Pulse amplitude and width

Which of the following is a type of digital modulation? A) Pulse Amplitude Modulation B) Frequency Shift Keying C) Pulse Width Modulation

B) Frequency Shift Keying

Which digital modulation technique involves shifting the phase of the signal based on binary data? A) Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) B) Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) C) Binary Phase Shift Keying (BPSK)

C) Binary Phase Shift Keying (BPSK)

1. What are the four essential components of an AM transmitter? A) RF Oscillator, RF AMP, Modulator, Power Supply B) Modulator, Antenna, Receiver, Power Supply C) RF Oscillator, Frequency Filter, Antenna, Microphone

A) RF Oscillator, RF AMP, Modulator, Power Supply

What is the primary function of the RF Oscillator in an AM transmitter? A) To amplify the audio signal B) To generate RF oscillations C) To convert RF into AF

B) To generate RF oscillations

What is the purpose of the RF Amplifier (RF AMP) in an AM transmitter? A) To convert audio to digital B) To amplify or multiply RF oscillation frequencies C) To demodulate the received signal

B) To amplify or multiply RF oscillation frequencies

What does the Modulator in an AM transmitter do? A) Detects the RF signal B) Amplifies the RF carrier C) Modulates the RF carrier with audio intelligence

C) Modulates the RF carrier with audio intelligence

What component provides electrical power to the other parts of an AM transmitter? A) Modulator B) Power Supply C) RF Oscillator

B) Power Supply

Which of the following is NOT one of the four common types of microphones? A) Laser B) Carbon C) Crystal

A) Laser

Which microphone type uses carbon granules to vary resistance with sound pressure? A) Carbon B) Capacitor C) Crystal

A) Carbon

What microphone type operates on electromagnetic induction and is commonly durable? A) Dynamic B) Crystal C) Capacitor

A) Dynamic

Which microphone operates by varying capacitance between two plates? A) Carbon B) Crystal C) Capacitor

C) Capacitor

What kind of microphone generates voltage through piezoelectric materials? A) Crystal B) Capacitor C) Dynamic

A) Crystal

1. How does the bandwidth of FM signals compare to that of AM signals? A) FM has a narrower bandwidth than AM B) FM has a similar bandwidth to AM C) FM has a much greater bandwidth than AM

C) FM has a much greater bandwidth than AM

Due to its large bandwidth, where is FM primarily suitable for use? A) Low frequency (LF) bands B) Very High Frequency (VHF) and above C) Medium Wave (MW) bands

B) Very High Frequency (VHF) and above

What is a limitation of FM caused by its transmission characteristics? A) Long-range global communication B) Line-of-sight range restriction C) Excessive atmospheric absorption

B) Line-of-sight range restriction

What is one advantage FM has over AM in terms of signal quality? A) FM has less fidelity than AM B) FM provides lower audio clarity than AM C) FM covers a wider frequency spectrum, offering higher fidelity

C) FM covers a wider frequency spectrum, offering higher fidelity

What is the primary purpose of a receiver in radio communication? A) To amplify the signal B) To convert electromagnetic waves into electrical voltages and recover the low-frequency information signal C) To generate the carrier frequency

B) To convert electromagnetic waves into electrical voltages and recover the low-frequency information signal

What does selectivity refer to in a receiver? A) The ability to amplify the selected signal B) The ability to select the desired signal and reject all other frequencies C) The ability to produce stable amplification

B) The ability to select the desired signal and reject all other frequencies

What does sensitivity in a receiver describe? A) The ability to amplify the selected signal to a usable level B) The ability to reject all other frequencies C) The ability to reproduce the original modulation without distortion

A) The ability to amplify the selected signal to a usable level

What is meant by fidelity in a receiver? A) The ability to select the required signal B) The ability to reproduce the original modulation without distortion C) The ability to amplify the selected signal

B) The ability to reproduce the original modulation without distortion

What does stability in a receiver refer to? A) The ability to select the desired frequency B) The ability to produce stable amplification and frequency sources throughout the frequency band C) The ability to reject interference from other signals

B) The ability to produce stable amplification and frequency sources throughout the frequency band

What are the two main types of interference in aviation systems? A) Electrical and magnetic B) Man made and naturally occurring C) Mechanical and thermal

B) Man made and naturally occurring

How does naturally occurring interference commonly arise in aircraft? A) From engine vibration B) From antenna misalignment C) From electrical charges due to friction when flying through clouds

C) From electrical charges due to friction when flying through clouds

What causes precipitation static on an aircraft? A) Friction between the landing gear and runway B) Accumulated moisture in fuel tanks C) Contact with rain, hail, snow, dust, or friction with the air

C) Contact with rain, hail, snow, dust, or friction with the air

What is the primary function of static dischargers on aircraft? A) To boost radio signal range B) To improve aerodynamic performance C) To provide a controlled discharge path for static electricity

C) To provide a controlled discharge path for static electricity

Where are static dischargers typically installed on an aircraft? A) On the fuselage and landing gear B) On engine nacelles and cabin windows C) On the trailing edges and tips of wings, tailplane, and fin

C) On the trailing edges and tips of wings, tailplane, and fin

What is the benefit of placing static dischargers on the trailing edges of control surfaces? A) It minimizes aerodynamic drag B) It reduces RF interference by positioning the discharge point away from sensitive areas C) It improves engine performance during flight

B) It reduces RF interference by positioning the discharge point away from sensitive areas

Approximately how many static dischargers are found on a large wide-bodied aircraft? A) Up to 10 B) Up to 20 C) Up to 40 or more

C) Up to 40 or more

What is one of the primary functions of the Audio Integrating System? A) Control of environmental lighting B) Radio transmission and navigation reception C) Automatic flight path control

B) Radio transmission and navigation reception

Which of the following is not part of the complete audio system? A) Passenger address system B) Engine fire detection system C) Ground crew call system

B) Engine fire detection system

What does each Audio Control Panel (ACP) allow crew members to do? A) Access maintenance logs B) Transmit and receive audio signals and use interphone systems C) Control cabin temperature

B) Transmit and receive audio signals and use interphone systems

Why can only one transmission channel be selected at a time on the ACP? A) To prevent static buildup B) Due to system cooling limitations C) Because the buttons are mechanically interlocked

C) Because the buttons are mechanically interlocked

How many pushbutton knobs are used on the ACP to select reception and adjust volume? A) Ten B) Fifteen C) Twenty

B) Fifteen

What does the INT position on the Interphone/Radio selector switch allow? A) Interphone transmission regardless of transmission key B) Simultaneous intercom and PA use C) Automatic volume adjustment

A) Interphone transmission regardless of transmission key

What is the purpose of the RAD position on the selector switch? A) Adjust receiver sensitivity B) Provide power to the speaker C) Act as a push-to-talk switch when a transmission key is selected

C) Act as a push-to-talk switch when a transmission key is selected

What is the function of the REST key on the ACP? A) Adjust radio frequency B) Cancel all lighted call indications C) Reboot the system

B) Cancel all lighted call indications

What does the SELCAL system do? A) Adjusts volume levels automatically B) Provides aural and visual alerts from ground stations C) Enables satellite communication

B) Provides aural and visual alerts from ground stations

The Flight Interphone System is used for communication between: A) Passengers and cabin crew B) Cabin crew and ATC C) Cockpit crew members and sometimes ground crew

C) Cockpit crew members and sometimes ground crew

How is the oxygen mask microphone activated? A) By pressing the INT key B) When a transmission channel is selected C) When the mask stowage door is opened

C) When the mask stowage door is opened

What does a high chime from the PA system typically indicate? A) A crew rest break B) An engine fire warning C) A passenger or lavatory attendant call

C) A passenger or lavatory attendant call

What does a high/low chime indicate in the cabin? A) Cabin door opened B) Call from cabin interphone system C) Fire detected in lavatory

B) Call from cabin interphone system

What does a low chime in the cabin typically signal? A) Cabin turbulence warning B) Change in ordinance signs like “No Smoking” or “Fasten Seatbelts” C) Communication with ATC

B) Change in ordinance signs like “No Smoking” or “Fasten Seatbelts”

What determines the order of announcement priorities in all PA systems? A) Cabin crew manual input B) Passenger request system C) PA amplifier(s)

C) PA amplifier(s)

What is considered Priority 1 in PA announcements? A) Pre-recorded announcements B) Announcements from the flight deck C) Boarding music

B) Announcements from the flight deck

Which of the following is Priority 2 in the PA system hierarchy? A) Announcements from cabin handsets or interphone B) Safety video C) Boarding music

A) Announcements from cabin handsets or interphone

How is Priority 2 typically subdivided? A) Manual and automatic modes B) 2A Direct Access and 2B Cabin Handsets C) Flight and cabin announcements

B) 2A Direct Access and 2B Cabin Handsets

What category does a Pre-Recorded Announcement fall under in the PA priority system? A) Priority 1 B) Priority 2B C) Priority 3A

C) Priority 3A

What is the lowest priority in the PA announcement system? A) Pre-Recorded Announcements B) Direct cabin announcements C) Boarding Music

C) Boarding Music

What device typically determines Priority 3 and 4 in PA announcements? A) Interphone system B) PA amplifier C) Tape Player/Streamed Audio

C) Tape Player/Streamed Audio

Where do Video PA announcements fall in the PA priority system? A) 3B B) 2A C) 4

A) 3B

1. What is the primary function of the VHF system on an aircraft? A) Navigation guidance B) Principal air-to-air and air-to-ground voice and data communication C) Engine performance monitoring

B) Principal air-to-air and air-to-ground voice and data communication

What is the frequency range of the VHF communication system? A) 3 - 30 MHz B) 30 - 300 MHz C) 118.00 MHz - 136.975 MHz

C) 118.00 MHz - 136.975 MHz

What bandwidth is used by modern VHF systems to enable three times as many channels as the original sets? A) 25 KHz B) 12.5 KHz C) 8.33 KHz

C) 8.33 KHz

What type of propagation does the VHF system use? A) Skywave B) Ground and space wave (Line-of-Sight) C) Surface wave

B) Ground and space wave (Line-of-Sight)

What is a 'transceiver' (TR) in the context of VHF communication? A) A signal booster B) A dual function radio that transmits and receives C) A power supply unit

B) A dual function radio that transmits and receives

How far can satisfactory two-way VHF communication typically be maintained? A) 50 miles B) 100 miles C) 200 miles

C) 200 miles

What type of data communication systems can use the VHF system? A) TCAS and GPWS B) ACARS and CPDLC C) ADS-B and ELT

B) ACARS and CPDLC

How many VHF communication radios are typically found on an aircraft? A) One B) Two C) Three

C) Three

What is the function of the third VHF communication radio? A) Backup for weather radar B) GPS communication C) Operation with ACARS, if fitted

C) Operation with ACARS, if fitted

How many VHF frequencies can be selected at one time on the control panel? A) One B) Two (active and standby) C) Three

B) Two (active and standby)

What happens when the transfer button is pressed in the VHF system? A) The system switches to emergency mode B) The standby and active channels exchange places C) The system resets the frequencies

B) The standby and active channels exchange places

What is the typical transmitter power of a VHF radio on an aircraft? A) 10 watts B) 20 watts C) 30 watts

C) 30 watts

Where are VHF antennas typically mounted on an aircraft? A) Only on the wingtips B) On the top or bottom of the fuselage C) Inside the cockpit

B) On the top or bottom of the fuselage

What is the typical size of a VHF aerial in relation to the wavelength? A) Half the wavelength B) A full wavelength C) A quarter of the wavelength

C) A quarter of the wavelength

What is the main advantage of the HF Communication System in aviation? A) It enables short-range high-speed communication. B) It enables long-range, multi-hop, worldwide air-ground voice communication. C) It is used primarily for in-flight entertainment.

B) It enables long-range, multi-hop, worldwide air-ground voice communication.

What type of modulation does the HF Communication System typically use? A) FM B) AM C) SSB-SC USB

C) SSB-SC USB

What is the frequency range of the HF Communication System? A) 3–30 MHz B) 2–29.999 MHz C) 118.00–136.975 MHz

B) 2–29.999 MHz

What component is used in the HF system to tune the antenna? A) RF Oscillator B) ATU or Coupler C) Bandpass Filter

B) ATU or Coupler

The choice of HF communication frequencies is based on which of the following? A) Passenger count B) Fuel level C) Time, date of flight, and predictability charts

C) Time, date of flight, and predictability charts

Why is HF communication essential for transoceanic or transpolar flights? A) Because satellite communication is unavailable B) Because VHF communication is lost C) Because it offers faster speeds

B) Because VHF communication is lost

Approximately how long is a quarter wave 3 MHz HF antenna? A) 10 meters B) 25 meters C) 50 meters

B) 25 meters

What are the two functions associated with HF tuning? A) Volume and frequency control B) Power adjustment and modulation C) Tuning the transceiver and tuning the ATU

C) Tuning the transceiver and tuning the ATU

How long does the ATU typically take to tune? A) 1–2 seconds B) 5–8 seconds C) 10–12 seconds

B) 5–8 seconds

What indicates HF tuning is in progress when HF is selected on the ASP/ACP? A) A flashing light B) A tone heard in the headset C) A red warning message

B) A tone heard in the headset

What type of HF aerials are found on older, classic aircraft? A) Panel antennas B) Notch antennas C) Rod or wire antennas

C) Rod or wire antennas

What is a common HF antenna type on modern aircraft? A) Notch aerials B) Blade aerials C) Dipole wires

A) Notch aerials

What does a typical dual HF installation include? A) Two HF antennas per system B) One control panel, one transceiver, one coupler per system, and a shared antenna C) One HF system with dual couplers

B) One control panel, one transceiver, one coupler per system, and a shared antenna

What is a key safety precaution before operating an HF transmitter? A) Ensure the aircraft is at cruising altitude B) Ensure no personnel are near the aerials C) Make sure the VHF system is turned off

B) Ensure no personnel are near the aerials

When is it prohibited to operate the HF communication system? A) During cruise flight B) During cabin announcements C) During refuelling, defuelling, or oxygen charging

C) During refuelling, defuelling, or oxygen charging

Why are HF couplers often pressurized to 5 lbs/in² with dry air or nitrogen? A) To prevent overheating B) To keep out moisture and prevent arcing C) To assist signal transmission

B) To keep out moisture and prevent arcing

What is the primary purpose of the SELCAL system? A) To automatically tune radios to the correct frequency B) To notify the flight crew when a ground station wants to contact them C) To improve radio transmission range

B) To notify the flight crew when a ground station wants to contact them

What benefit does SELCAL provide to the flight crew? A) Allows the crew to avoid tuning radios manually B) Removes the need for continuous radio monitoring C) Automatically records all communications

B) Removes the need for continuous radio monitoring

What is the audio alert provided by the SELCAL system? A) A buzzer tone B) A continuous tone C) A single or ringing chime

C) A single or ringing chime

What is the visual alert provided by the SELCAL system? A) A blinking message on the display screen B) A steady or flashing light C) A pop-up warning

B) A steady or flashing light

What is the primary advantage of Satcom over other communication systems? A) It requires no onboard equipment B) It is unaffected by atmospheric interference or bandwidth limitations C) It operates only at low altitudes

B) It is unaffected by atmospheric interference or bandwidth limitations

How many operational Inmarsat Series 3 satellites are currently in use? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6

B) 4

What does the abbreviation GES stand for in Satcom systems? A) General Electronic System B) Global Equipment Satellite C) Ground Earth Station

C) Ground Earth Station

What are the three main components of a satellite communication system? A) Satellite, Radio Tower, GPS B) Ground Earth Station, Aircraft Earth Station, Satellites C) Control Tower, Aircraft Antenna, Radar

B) Ground Earth Station, Aircraft Earth Station, Satellites

What is the typical total Earth coverage provided by Satcom satellites? A) 100% B) 50% C) 75%

C) 75%

What must the Aircraft Earth Station (AES) know for initialization? A) Weather conditions at destination B) Aircraft’s position, altitude, and heading C) Radio frequency used by ATC

B) Aircraft’s position, altitude, and heading

Why must the AES know the aircraft's heading during initialization? A) To avoid satellite interference B) To tune the onboard GPS C) To point the SATCOM aerial toward the logged-on satellite

C) To point the SATCOM aerial toward the logged-on satellite

How is the Satcom antenna on the aircraft directed toward the satellite? A) Manually by the pilot B) Automatically using magnetic compasses C) Electronically steered

C) Electronically steered

What does ACARS stand for? A) Aircraft Communication and Radar System B) Aircraft Communication, Addressing and Reporting System C) Airborne Communication and Routing Service

B) Aircraft Communication, Addressing and Reporting System

What are messages sent from the aircraft in the ACARS system called? A) Uplink messages B) Command messages C) Downlink messages

C) Downlink messages

What is the purpose of downlink messages in the ACARS system? A) To request maintenance operations only B) To send flight plans to ATC C) To communicate aircraft data either automatically or manually

C) To communicate aircraft data either automatically or manually

What are messages sent from the ground to the aircraft in ACARS called? A) Uplink messages B) Uploads C) Broadcasts

A) Uplink messages

Which of the following is part of the ACARS airborne system? A) ADS-B Unit B) Management Unit (MU) C) Transponder

B) Management Unit (MU)

What is the function of the flight deck printer in the ACARS system? A) To scan pilot credentials B) To print uplink messages and MCDU/IDU display data C) To record audio communications

B) To print uplink messages and MCDU/IDU display data

What is the primary function of the Airborne Data Loader? A) To back up flight data B) To load entertainment software C) To update ACARS software using a 3.5" floppy disk

C) To update ACARS software using a 3.5" floppy disk

In the OOOI time stamp, what does "OUT" represent? A) Aircraft on the runway B) Doors closed and parking brake released C) Engines started

B) Doors closed and parking brake released

When is the "ETA" report automatically transmitted by ACARS? A) 90, 30, and 5 minutes before arrival B) 100, 50, and 10 minutes before landing C) 120, 20, and 7 minutes before arrival

C) 120, 20, and 7 minutes before arrival

What type of data can be automatically transmitted for maintenance purposes via ACARS? A) Fuel prices B) Cabin temperature trends C) Detailed engine reports

C) Detailed engine reports

Why is Satcom used in ACARS systems? A) It is faster than VHF over land B) VHF is not available worldwide C) It is required by law

B) VHF is not available worldwide

Where does Satcom not provide coverage for ACARS communications? A) Over the equator B) Mountainous regions C) Polar regions

C) Polar regions

What is the main purpose of the Flight Data Recorder (FDR)? A) To record entertainment system usage B) To collect and store aircraft sensor data for post-accident investigation C) To display navigation charts to pilots

B) To collect and store aircraft sensor data for post-accident investigation

What does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) preserve? A) Weather data throughout the flight B) Cabin announcements C) Recent cockpit sounds and pilot conversations

C) Recent cockpit sounds and pilot conversations

Where are the FDR and CVR typically installed? A) Under the cockpit floor B) In the landing gear bay C) In the tail section of the aircraft

C) In the tail section of the aircraft

What is the minimum impact resistance requirement for FDR and CVR installations? A) 1200G B) 2000G C) 3400G

C) 3400G

What temperature must the FDR and CVR be able to withstand? A) 500°C B) 1000°C C) 800°C

B) 1000°C

What type of signal does the Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) emit? A) Infrared burst B) Acoustic 10ms pulse at 37.5 kHz C) Radio pulse at 120 MHz

B) Acoustic 10ms pulse at 37.5 kHz

When does the ULB begin transmitting? A) When air pressure drops B) When it detects movement C) When the battery contacts water

C) When the battery contacts water

For how long does the ULB typically transmit once activated? A) 30 days B) 60 days C) At least 90 days

C) At least 90 days

What is the maximum depth the FDR and ULB can withstand? A) 1000 metres B) 2000 metres C) Over 3000 metres

C) Over 3000 metres

What is the role of the Flight Data Acquisition Unit (FDAU)? A) To record weather radar signals B) To monitor aircraft fuel use C) To gather and format sensor data for the FDR

C) To gather and format sensor data for the FDR

What two things are recorded by the FDR aside from sensor data? A) Passenger count and seatbelt status B) Flight number and date C) Airspeed and fuel load only

B) Flight number and date

Where is the cockpit area microphone typically located? A) On the side console near the pilot B) Between the seats C) On the overhead instrument panel

C) On the overhead instrument panel

What are the two types of power sources for the FDR/CVR? A) DC Generator and APU battery B) Emergency Bus and Recorder Independent Power Supply (RIPS) C) Ground power and solar backup

C) Ground power and solar backup

What are the two types of FDR storage devices used? A) USB and EPROM B) Hard Disk and RAM C) Magnetic tape and Solid-State (CMOS/EPROM)

C) Magnetic tape and Solid-State (CMOS/EPROM)

1. Where is a fixed ELT typically mounted in an aircraft? A) In the cockpit side panel B) In the forward cargo compartment C) In the upper aft section of the fuselage

C) In the upper aft section of the fuselage

What is a characteristic of a fixed/portable ELT? A) It can only be used once B) It is manually deployable and not fixed to the aircraft C) It is mounted semi-fixed but can be removed and activates automatically or manually

C) It is mounted semi-fixed but can be removed and activates automatically or manually

What type of ELT is designed to be removed to the life raft and is buoyant? A) Fixed B) Fixed/Portable C) Portable

C) Portable

What information does the ELT’s encoded digital message contain? A) Crew ID, weather data, and engine performance B) Serial number, aircraft ID, country code, COSPAS-SARSAT ID, and position C) Airspeed, altitude, and fuel quantity

B) Serial number, aircraft ID, country code, COSPAS-SARSAT ID, and position

What is the COSPAS-SARSAT operating frequency for digital ELT signals? A) 121.5 MHz B) 406 MHz C) 243 MHz

B) 406 MHz

When is it permitted to test an ELT signal? A) Anytime the aircraft is parked B) Only during daylight hours C) At the top of the hour and up to five minutes after, with ATC permission

C) At the top of the hour and up to five minutes after, with ATC permission

What frequencies are used for ELT homing signals in addition to the 406 MHz digital signal? A) 108.0 and 118.5 MHz B) 121.5 and 243 MHz C) 225.0 and 400.0 MHz

B) 121.5 and 243 MHz

How is the digitally encoded ELT message transmitted? A) Frequency modulated at 121.5 MHz B) Amplitude modulated with Morse code C) Phase shift modulated onto a 406 MHz carrier

C) Phase shift modulated onto a 406 MHz carrier

What does the ELT RCU (Remote Control Unit) include? A) A battery status indicator and volume knob B) A TEST/RESET button, ELT ON light, and ON/ARMED switch with cover C) A distress signal selector and speaker

B) A TEST/RESET button, ELT ON light, and ON/ARMED switch with cover

In what position should the ELT switch always be kept under normal operation? A) OFF B) TEST C) ARMED

C) ARMED

How can an ELT be activated? A) Only by pressing the TEST button B) Automatically by a G switch or manually C) Only by ground control remotely

B) Automatically by a G switch or manually

What should be done if the ELT is inadvertently activated? A) Ignore it as it resets automatically B) Notify the cabin crew C) It must be shut down

C) It must be shut down

What does “heading” refer to in aviation? A) The aircraft’s movement over the ground B) The nose direction of the aircraft, measured from a reference north C) The deviation caused by crosswinds

B) The nose direction of the aircraft, measured from a reference north

Which best defines "track"? A) The aircraft’s intended route B) The direction of crosswind flow C) The aircraft’s actual movement over Earth's surface

C) The aircraft’s actual movement over Earth's surface

Drift is defined as: A) Difference in altitude due to temperature B) Angle between heading and track due to crosswind C) Compass error from magnetic fields

B) Angle between heading and track due to crosswind

What frequency range does the ADF operate on? A) 30 MHz - 300 MHz B) 190 kHz - 1750 kHz C) 118 MHz - 137 MHz

B) 190 kHz - 1750 kHz

What is an NDB? A) Non-directional beacon B) Navigation-driven beacon C) Night detection beacon

A) Non-directional beacon

Relative bearing is measured from: A) True North B) Aircraft’s tail C) Aircraft’s nose

C) Aircraft’s nose

What are the two antenna types used in ADF systems? A) Dipole and vertical B) Omni-directional (Sense) and directional (Loop) C) FM and AM

B) Omni-directional (Sense) and directional (Loop)

In ANT mode, the ADF system: A) Operates normally B) Processes both loop and sense signals C) Processes only the sense antenna signal, no bearing generated

C) Processes only the sense antenna signal, no bearing generated

What does the ADF test mode typically display? A) Frequency calibration B) Relative bearing of 135 or 315 C) Distance to NDB

B) Relative bearing of 135 or 315

What type of signal modulation does DVOR use for the directional signal? A) AM B) FM C) PWM

B) FM

How many frequency windows are usually present on a VOR control panel? A) One for active frequency only B) Two, one for active and one for standby C) Three, for triple redundancy

B) Two, one for active and one for standby

What is the function of DME? A) Displays aircraft heading B) Determines slant range from aircraft to ground station C) Controls engine data

B) Determines slant range from aircraft to ground station

What indicates a DME interrogator malfunction? A) Flashing altitude readout B) Blank display or failure flag C) Red bearing pointer

B) Blank display or failure flag

How is the glide slope signal modulated? A) 90Hz upper and 150Hz lower B) FM for both directions C) AM both 90Hz and 150Hz

A) 90Hz upper and 150Hz lower

Marker beacon carriers operate at: A) 75 MHz B) 108.00 MHz C) 121.5 MHz

A) 75 MHz

The middle marker transmits an ID tone of: A) 400 Hz B) 1300 Hz C) 3000 Hz

B) 1300 Hz

Primary radar calculates distance by measuring: A) Reflection amplitude B) Transponder code C) Time delay between pulse and echo

C) Time delay between pulse and echo

What frequency does an SSR transponder use to reply to interrogations? A) 1030 MHz B) 1090 MHz C) 1175 MHz

B) 1090 MHz

Which SSR mode transmits aircraft altitude? A) Mode A B) Mode C C) Mode S only

B) Mode C

What is the emergency squawk code for lost communications? A) 7500 B) 7600 C) 7700

B) 7600

What does TCAS use to detect nearby aircraft? A) GPS signal triangulation B) ADF signals C) Interrogation of Mode C or Mode S transponders

C) Interrogation of Mode C or Mode S transponders

What advisory does TCAS provide when an intruder is within 25 seconds of CPA? A) TA only B) RA (Resolution Advisory) C) GPWS Warning

B) RA (Resolution Advisory)

What is the operating range of a Low Range Radio Altimeter (LRRA)? A) 0 to 2500 ft above ground B) 0 to FL250 C) -1250 to +127000 ft

A) 0 to 2500 ft above ground

What does the Global Positioning System (GPS) require to determine accurate 3D position? A) Two satellites B) Four satellites C) One satellite and ground station

B) Four satellites

What GPS service is only available to the military? A) Standard Positioning Service (SPS) B) Precision Positioning Service (PPS) C) Differential GPS

B) Precision Positioning Service (PPS)

What does DGPS provide to increase accuracy? A) A longer satellite range B) Position error correction C) Higher modulation rate

B) Position error correction

How does an Inertial Reference System (IRS) work? A) GPS triangulation B) Radio signals C) Accelerometers and gyros

C) Accelerometers and gyros

What does GPWS warn against? A) Engine overheat B) Terrain closeness C) Traffic conflicts

B) Terrain closeness

What is the interface between the pilot and FMC? A) VOR control panel B) CDU (Control and Display Unit) C) ADF selector

B) CDU (Control and Display Unit)

What colour on weather radar indicates severe turbulence? A) Amber B) Red C) Magenta

C) Magenta

Why should WX radar not be used near hangars or people? A) It drains battery B) It may affect magnetic compasses C) It emits radiation that can cause injury

C) It emits radiation that can cause injury

In which mode does weather radar show ground mapping and turbulence? A) MAP B) WX+T C) TEST

B) WX+T

11.5 Avionic Systems Flashcards

(320 cards)