Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Histopathology > HISTOPATHOLOGIC AND CYTOLOGIC TECHNIQUES > Flashcards

HISTOPATHOLOGIC AND CYTOLOGIC TECHNIQUES Flashcards

1
Q

decreased oxygen

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

decreased blood supply

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

of unknown cause

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

increase in the number of cells (growth of new cells)

A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

increase in the cell size (cellular growth)

A

Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Uncontrolled cell death

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cellular swelling, many cells affected

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Type of Necrosis wherein cells undergo lysis rapidly.

A. Caseous B. Coagulative C. Colliquative D. Gangrenous

A

C. Colliquative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Type of Necrosis usually seen in Smooth muscles.

A. Caseous B. Coagulative C. Colliquative D. Fibrinoid

A

D. Fibrinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. It is the complete lysis of the Nuclei.

A. Karyorrhexis B. Karyolysis C. Pyknosis D. Margination

A

B. Karyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Term used to describe a Fragmented nucleus.

A. Pyknosis B. Karyolysis C. Karyorrhexis D. Margination

A

C. Karyorrhexis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Bacterial toxins can cause what type of Necrosis?

A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulative C. Gangrenous D. Fibrinoid

A

C. Gangrenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Nuclear change generally seen in apoptosis

A. Margination B. Pyknosis C. Karyorrhexis D. Karyolysis

A

. Karyorrhexis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. It is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel-like) substance in dead tissues in which the architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy.
    A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulative C. Gangrenous D. Fibrinoid
A

B. Coagulative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What is the term used to define diseases as well as deaths attributed to the Physician?
    A. Nutritional Derangements B.Psychogenic Diseases C.Iatrogenic Causes D.Idiopathic Diseases
A

C.Iatrogenic Causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. This type of disease/s means “of unknown cause”.

A. Nutritional Derangements B.Psychogenic Diseases C.Iatrogenic Causes D.Idiopathic Diseases

A

D.Idiopathic Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. These are terms that used to define cases wherein there is lack of supply of blood or of oxygen in the Body.
    A. Hypoxia B. Ischemia C. Both D. Neither
A

C. Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Built-in Mechanism of the body in response to the changes in the environment or to stress

A

i) The type of cell and tissue involved.

ii) Extent and type of cell injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cellular shrinkage, once cell affected

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. The term used for the heat felt at the area of inflammation
    A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor
A

B. Calor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Mononuclear cells predominantly are present in this type of inflammation.
    A. Subacute B. Acute C. Chronic D. Serous
A

C. Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Watery fluid seen in the cavity using a microscope is characteristic of what type of Exudate?
    A. Fibrinous B. Catarrhal C. Suppurative D. Serous
A

D. Serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What type of Inflammation is usually seen in Pleural, pericardial and Peritoneal surfaces?
    A. Catarrhal B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Fibrinous
A

A. Catarrhal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Type of inflammation wherein large amounts of pus is produced.
    A. Suppurative B. Phlegmonous C. Hemorrhagic D. Catarrha
A

A. Suppurative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Inflammation occuring septicemic diseases like anthrax and pasturellosis
    A. Catarrhal B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Inflammation occuring septicemic diseases like anthrax and pasturellosis
    A. Catarrhal B. Purulent C. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative
A

C. Hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Pus which is colored blue-green is caused by?

A. Pseudomonas B.Listeria C. Streptococcus D. Pasturella

A

A. Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. It is referred to as the Redness seen in the area of inflammation.
    A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor
A

D. Rubor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. It is the Pain felt on the site/s of inflammation.

A. Tumor B. Calor C. Dolor D. Rubor

A

C. Dolor

31
Q
  1. Vesicles, Pox, burns of second degree are under what type of Exudate?
    A. Fibrinous B. Catarrhal C.Serous D. Purulent
A

C.Serous

32
Q
  1. Incomplete/defective development of a tissue/organ most commonly seen in one paired structure.
    A. Aplasia B. Hypoplasia C. Agenesia D. Atresia
A

A. Aplasia

33
Q

It is the failure of an organ to reach its full, mature size.
A. Aplasia B. Hypoplasia C. Agenesia D. Atresia

A

B. Hypoplasia

34
Q

Reversible change involving transformation in one type of adult cell to another
A. Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

A

C. Metaplasia

35
Q

Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control (usually with no purpose or function)
A. Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia

A

D. Neoplasia

36
Q
  1. This generally consists of an expansion of immature cells, with a corresponding decrease in the number and
    location of mature cells.
    A. Anaplasia B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Neoplasia
A

B. Dysplasia

37
Q
  1. Suffix used for malignant neoplasm in epithelial cells

A. -oma B. -sarcoma C. -carcinoma D. -coma

A

C. -carcinoma

38
Q
  1. Benign tumor of the Bone cells

A. Hepatosarcoma B. Osteoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Osteocarcinoma

A

B. Osteoma

39
Q
  1. Benign tumor of the kidney

A. Renal Adenoma B. Renal Adenosarcoma C.Renal adenocarcinoma D. Reneonoma

A

A. Renal Adenoma

40
Q
  1. It is an encapsulated tumor with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of all three germ
    layers.
    A. Meratoma B. Teratoma C. Carcinoma D. Pangtoma
A

B. Teratoma

41
Q
  1. What is the other name for anaplasia?

A. Dedifferentiation B. Atypical hyperplasia C. Tumor D. Redifferentiation

A

A. Dedifferentiation

42
Q
  1. Absence of Alveolar macrophages in sputum sample
    A. Low score on Bartlett’s, still satisfactory
    B. suggests Salivary specimen
    C. Low score, Salivary specimen
    D. Salivary specimen, score cannot be determined unless further criterias are met
A

B

43
Q
  1. Maximum delay that can be allowed for Gastric secretion

A. 1-hour B. ½ hour C. 3 hours D. 2 hours

A

B

44
Q
  1. Spontaneous nipple discharge is indicative of

A. Hormonal imbalance B. Pregnancy C. Benign papilloma D. Malignant papilloma

A

A

45
Q
  1. Jelly like clots forming in Pleural, pericardial and Peritoneal fluid can be removed by
    A. 200 units heparin B. 1000 units heparin C. 100 units heparin D. 300 units heparin
A

D

46
Q
  1. At least how many ml of Urine is needed in Cytologic evaluation
    A. 30 ml B.40 ml C. 50 ml D. 60 ml
A

C

47
Q
  1. All types of effusions are usually placed in what fixative?
    A. 50% alcohol B. 70% alcohol C. 95% alcohol D. Saccomanno’s fixative
A

A

48
Q
  1. What adhesive is usually used in Cytospin slides?

A. Poly-l-lysine B. Egg albumin C. APES D. DMX

A

B

49
Q
  1. Fixative/s used in collecting Sputum

A. Saccomanno fluid B. 95% alcohol C. Both D. Neither

A

A

50
Q
  1. Bronchoalveolar lavage is usually collected from patients with
    A. Epstein-barr virus B. HIV C. Fungal infection D. Mycobacteriium spp.
A

B

51
Q
  1. When specimen needs concentration, it is usually centrifuged at ________________.
    A. 2000 rpm/3mins B. 1500 rpm/2mins C.2000 rpm/2mins D. 3000 rpm/1min
A

C

52
Q
  1. Normally found from puberty, after childbirth, with abortion and menopause
    A. parabasal cell B. Navicular cell C. Intermediate cell D. Pregnancy cells
A

A

53
Q
  1. Medium sized polyhedral cells with basophilic vacuolated cytoplasm
    A. parabasal cell B. Navicular cell C. Intermediate cell D. Endocervical cell
A

C

54
Q
  1. Found 1-10 days after menstruation and are shed in response to ovarian hormones
    A. Endometrial B. mature superficial C. Intermediate cell D. Pregnancy cells
A

A

55
Q

4.Patient identification on the Cytologic slide can be done using________
A. Ball pen B. Diamond point pen C. Pencil D. Mechanical pen

A

B

56
Q
  1. In determination of genetic sex, Barr bodies can be observed in what specimen?
    A. Oral/buccal mucosa B. Vaginal mucosa C. Both D.Neither
A

B

57
Q
  1. Collection method for patients with hysterectomy

A. Vaginal scrape B. Endocervical brush C. Lateral vaginal scrape D.Vulvar scrape

A

A

58
Q
  1. Cytologic method for detection of Herpetic lesions and carcinoma
    A. Vaginal scrape B. Endocervical brush C. Lateral vaginal scrape D.Vulvar scrape
A

D

59
Q
  1. Cytologic method used for Hormonal evaluation

A. Vaginal scrape B. Endocervical brush C. Lateral vaginal scrape D.Vulvar scrape

A

C

60
Q
  1. Honeycomb appearance:

A. Koilocytes B. Basal cells C. Intermediate cells D. Endocervical glandular

A

D

61
Q
  1. You can visualize a group of parabasal cells in these situations except for:
    A. 2 weeks of age to puberty B.After menopause C. After child birth D. Before menopause
A

D

62
Q
  1. They are used to produce substances with temperatures below -153ºC
    A. Cryogen B. Cryokwik C. Cryostat D. Thermophile
A

A

63
Q
  1. Which of the following chemicals is potentially explosive?
    A. Formaldehyde B. Picric acid C. Calcium carbonate D. Hydrochloric acid
A

B

64
Q
  1. All of the following are known oxidizers, except:

A. sodium iodate B. mercuric oxide C. chromic acid D. Silver solutions

A

D

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred equipment for tending to a person who is not breathing?
    A. Defibrillator B. Resuscitation bag and mask C. Mouth to mouth resuscitation D. Vicks VapoRub
A

B

66
Q
  1. All of the following are toxic materials capable of causing death in small doses, except:
    A. Methanol B. Chromic acid C. Osmium tetroxide D. Dihydrogen monoxide
A

D

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is a required basic information that should be seen on the labels of chemicals?
    A. Hazard warnings B. Nutritional value C. sp orbital of the chemicals D. boiling point
A

A

68
Q
  1. Resting the wrist or forearm against the sharp edge and corner is an example of what ergonomic risk factor?
    A. Awkward postures B. Duration C. Repetition D. Contact stress
A

D

69
Q
  1. All of the following are carcinogens except:

A. Auramine B. Basic Fuchsin C. Benzidine D. Methanol

A

D

70
Q
  1. Flash point of the combustible materials is usually at what temperature?
    A. 100ºF B. 112ºF C. 212ºF D. 312ºF
A

A

71
Q
  1. They cause allergic reactions in some exposed workers, not just in hypersensitive individuals.
    A. Corrosives B. irritants C. Sensitizers D. Carcinogen
A

C

72
Q

It is the Microscopic examination of cells from different body sites for diagnosis of disease and to give an additional assessment of a person’s health status.

A

BASIC DIAGNOSTIC CYTOLOGY

73
Q

-microscopic study of cells that have been desquamated from epithelial surfaces

A

Exfoliative cytology

Histopathology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions