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NASM CPT > Practice Test Questions #1 > Flashcards

Practice Test Questions #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is atherosclerosis?
Select one:
a. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable
b. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream
c. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
d. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.

A

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

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2
Q

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?
Select one:
a. Muscular
b. Vascular
c. Digestive
d. Coronary

A

Muscular

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3
Q

What best describes an essential amino acid?
Select one:
a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
b. An amino acid that is in all types of foods
c. An amino acid that is required after a workout
d. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods

A

An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

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4
Q

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
Select one:
a. Tell them no.
b. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use.
c. Tell them it could help with their training.
d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

A

Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

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5
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching
b. Active stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Self-myofascial techniques

A

Self-myofascial techniques

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6
Q

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
Select one:
a. 0 seconds
b. 60 to 120 seconds
c. 5 minutes
d. 30 seconds

A

60 to 120 seconds

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7
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
Select one:
a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
b. Little motion
c. No motion
d. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion

A

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

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8
Q

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Muscle imbalance
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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9
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Select one:
a. Vertical jump
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Pro shuttle

A

Vertical jump

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10
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Infraspinatus
c. Anterior tibialis
d. Subscapularis

A

Subscapularis

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11
Q

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?
Select one:
a. Confidentiality
b. Business practice
c. Professionalism
d. Legal and ethical

A

Professionalism

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12
Q

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Select one:
a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual

A

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

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13
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Select one:
a. Vestibular function
b. Sensory function
c. Neuromuscular function
d. Afferent nerve function

A

Neuromuscular function

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14
Q

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:
a. Peripheral vasodilation
b. Thermoregulation
c. Blood pressure
d. Heart rate

A

Peripheral vasodilation

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15
Q

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Select one:
a. Adductors
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Piriformis
d. Thoracic spine

A

Tensor fascia latae

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16
Q

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Select one:
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Somatic nervous system

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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17
Q

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Select one:
a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
d. Type 1 diabetes

A

Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

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18
Q

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Select one:
a. Irregular
b. Flat
c. Short
d. Long

A

Long

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19
Q

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Sports participation
c. Athletic injuries
d. Strength

A

Athletic injuries

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20
Q

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Select one:
a. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
b. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern
c. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern
d. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression

A

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

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21
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Select one:
a. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume
b. Predetermined timelines
c. Consistent in its approach
d. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

A

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

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22
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Select one:
a. Dynamic balance
b. Static balance
c. High-level balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

A

Dynamic balance

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23
Q

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Select one:
a. Core stability
b. Force production
c. Landing mechanics
d. Power development

A

Landing mechanics

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24
Q

Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
Select one:
a. Unilateral
b. Contralateral
c. Ipsilateral
d. Bilateral

A

Unilateral

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25
Q

What is cardiac output?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

A

The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

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26
Q

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
Select one:
a. The scapula protruding excessively from the back
b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
c. The trunk leaning forward
d. The arms falling forward

A

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

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27
Q

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
Select one:
a. College football conditioning coach
b. College instructor
c. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor
d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

A

Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

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28
Q

Which of the following is an open-ended question?
Select one:
a. What do you currently weigh?
b. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
c. Did you exercise this week?
d. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals?

A

What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

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29
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Select one:
a. Squat jump
b. Proprioceptive plyometrics
c. Ice skaters
d. Depth jumps

A

Ice skaters

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30
Q

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
Select one:
a. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.
b. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.
c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
d. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.

A

Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

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31
Q

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?
Select one:
a. Wolff’s law
b. Osteoporosis
c. Neuroplasticity
d. Remodeling

A

Remodeling

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32
Q

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
Select one:
a. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout
b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
c. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes
d. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods

A

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

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33
Q

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
Select one:
a. Calf raise
b. Back squat
c. Triceps extension
d. Bench press

A

Back squat

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34
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Soccer throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Two-arm push press

A

Two-arm push press

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35
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Select one:
a. Motion balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Static balance

A

Static balance

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36
Q

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
Select one:
a. Resistance
b. Cool-down
c. Activation
d. Client’s choice

A

Client’s choice

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37
Q

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
Select one:
a. Stimulants
b. Health supplements
c. Anabolic steroids
d. Performance supplements

A

Health supplements

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38
Q

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
Select one:
a. A decrease in metabolic rate
b. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
c. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
d. A reduction in blood pressure at rest

A

A decrease in metabolic rate

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39
Q

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
Select one:
a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.
b. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
c. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
d. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

A

A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

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40
Q

Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?
Select one:
a. Lack of time
b. Lack of energy
c. Lack of social support
d. Lack of enjoyment

A

Lack of time

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41
Q

What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?
Select one:
a. Essential amino acids only
b. Peptide bonds
c. Essential and nonessential amino acids
d. Carbon molecules

A

Essential and nonessential amino acids

42
Q

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
Select one:
a. Stabilization of the LPHC
b. Use of heavy weights
c. Slow and controlled movements
d. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

A

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

43
Q

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
Select one:
a. Cancer
b. Heart disease and diabetes
c. Osteoporosis
d. Alzheimer’s disease

A

Heart disease and diabetes

44
Q

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Select one:
a. Inhalers
b. Painkillers
c. Insulin
d. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

A

Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

45
Q

Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Select one:
a. Macromineral
b. Vitamin
c. Trace mineral
d. Performance supplement

A

Trace mineral

46
Q

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Frontal and sagittal
b. Transverse and frontal
c. Sagittal and transverse
d. All planes of motion

A

Frontal and sagittal

47
Q

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Select one:
a. Hearing system
b. Somatosensory system
c. Visual system
d. Vestibular system

A

Visual system

48
Q

Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer’s scope of practice is accurate?
Select one:
a. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice.
b. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
c. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice.
d. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally.

A

Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

49
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?
Select one:
a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
b. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
c. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets
d. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

A

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

50
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:
a. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
c. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

51
Q

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?
Select one:
a. Growth hormone
b. Insulin-like growth factor
c. Insulin
d. Testosterone

A

Insulin

52
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
Select one:
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 5

A

Phase 5

53
Q

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
Select one:
a. 2 seconds
b. 3 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 1 second

A

4 seconds

54
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Select one:
a. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
b. Anterior and posterior
c. Axial and appendicular
d. Upper and lower

A

Axial and appendicular

55
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?
Select one:
a. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
b. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach
c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

A

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

56
Q

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
Select one:
a. Fitness manager
b. Exercise leader
c. Certified Personal Trainer
d. General manager

A

Exercise leader

57
Q

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. WHR of 0.83
b. WHR of 0.88
c. WHR of 0.72
d. WHR of 0.78

A

WHR of 0.88

58
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
Select one:
a. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
b. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
c. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
d. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid

A

1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

59
Q

For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?
Select one:
a. Learning how to lead group training programs
b. Earning a massage therapy license to be able to offer massage treatments
c. Becoming a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN) to provide nutritional counseling
d. Pursuing a degree in exercise science

A

Learning how to lead group training programs

60
Q

Which of the following would be considered a process goal?
Select one:
a. Run three times a week
b. Squat 100 pounds
c. Run one mile
d. Run a 10k race

A

Run three times a week

61
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Metabolic specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Mechanical specificity
d. Posture specificity

A

Mechanical specificity

62
Q

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
Select one:
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 120 to 180 seconds
c. 0 to 90 seconds
d. 180 to 240 seconds

A

0 to 90 seconds

63
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Select one:
a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
b. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
c. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

A

Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

64
Q

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
Select one:
a. Incline plank
b. Stability ball Russian twist
c. Supine reverse crunches
d. Supine floor crunches

A

Incline plank

65
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Lower trapezius
c. Upper trapezius
d. Infraspinatus

A

Upper trapezius

66
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body?
Select one:
a. Acetoacetic acid
b. Glycogen
c. Pyruvate
d. Lactic acid

A

Acetoacetic acid

67
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular stabilization
b. Strength
c. Speed
d. Power

A

Neuromuscular stabilization

68
Q

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 20 to 40 g
b. 15 to 20 g
c. 30 to 50 g
d. 60 to 70 g

A

20 to 40 g

69
Q

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
Select one:
a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
b. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
c. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

A

High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

70
Q

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
Select one:
a. Neurocircuitry
b. Neuromotor skills
c. Neuroplasticity
d. Remodeling

A

Neuroplasticity

71
Q

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Warm-up phase
b. Interval phase
c. Cool-down phase
d. Conditioning phase

A

Interval phase

72
Q

Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. Emotional support
b. Informational support
c. Companionship support
d. Instrumental support

A

Informational support

73
Q

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
Select one:
a. Less braking force
b. Less stability
c. Less speed
d. Less forward drive

A

Less braking force

74
Q

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Select one:
a. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.
b. Compression of the myofascia “tightens” the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.
c. Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
d. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.

A

Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

75
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Action
c. Contemplation
d. Precontemplation

A

Precontemplation

76
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:
a. Serratus anterior
b. Cervical extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Lower trapezius

A

Lower trapezius

77
Q

What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
b. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients
c. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes
d. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes

A

Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle

78
Q

The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

A

Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

79
Q

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
Select one:
a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

A

The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

80
Q

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Select one:
a. Osteopenia
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Muscular atrophy
d. Sarcopenia

A

Muscular hypertroph

81
Q

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Select one:
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 2

A

Phase 4

82
Q

According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
Select one:
a. Proper movement
b. Mobility
c. Endurance
d. Stability

A

Endurance

83
Q

Which term refers to a person’s education, income, and occupation?
Select one:
a. Emotional health
b. Behavioral health
c. Global state of health
d. Socioeconomic status

A

Socioeconomic status

84
Q

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
Select one:
a. Decreased venous return
b. Increased ventricular filling
c. Venous pooling
d. Decreased ventricular filling

A

Increased ventricular filling

85
Q

The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Select one:
a. Cancer prevention
b. Muscle contraction
c. Hydration
d. Macronutrient metabolism

A

Macronutrient metabolism

86
Q

Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?
Select one:
a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers
b. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job
c. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
d. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout

A

Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

87
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
Select one:
a. 12 hours
b. 48 to 72 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 1 week

A

48 to 72 hours

88
Q

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
Select one:
a. 120 minutes per week
b. 75 minutes per week
c. 90 minutes per week
d. 60 minutes per week

A

75 minutes per week

89
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Medial pelvic tilt
c. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. Lateral pelvic tilt

A

Posterior pelvic tilt

90
Q

A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
Select one:
a. Goal setting
b. Action planning
c. Coping planning
d. Self-monitoring

A

Self-monitoring

91
Q

Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
Select one:
a. Damaging the kidneys
b. Improving strength and muscle size
c. Improving endurance
d. Improving heart health

A

Improving strength and muscle size

92
Q

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
Select one:
a. Situational factors
b. Leader’s qualities
c. Leadership styles
d. Follower’s qualities

A

Situational factors

93
Q

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
Select one:
a. Machine leg press
b. Sandbag squat
c. Barbell squats
d. BOSU squat

A

BOSU squat

94
Q

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
Select one:
a. Walking
b. Structured exercise
c. Eating
d. Sleeping

A

Walking

95
Q

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Select one:
a. Sport skills
b. Depth jumps
c. Side-to-side hops
d. Dual-foot drills

A

Dual-foot drills

96
Q

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
Select one:
a. All individuals have “lack of time” as a barrier.
b. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
c. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.

A

Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

97
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Vestibular system
b. Auditory system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Visual system

A

Visual system

98
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
b. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power

A

Stabilization, Strength, and Power

99
Q

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?
Select one:
a. 1.5 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 1 in.
d. 0.5 in.

A

2 in.

100
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Select one:
a. Dynamic posture assessment
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Performance assessment
d. Static posture assessment

A

Dynamic posture assessment

NASM CPT (8 decks)

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