Practice Test Questions #7

Question 1

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

Select one:
a. Ketosis
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Glycolysis
d. Acidosis

Answer 1

Beta-oxidation

Question 2

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?

Select one:
a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension
b. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
c. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
d. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension

Answer 2

Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

Question 3

What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
Select one:
a. Smooth
b. Myofibril
c. Skeletal
d. Cardiac

Answer 3

Cardiac

Question 4

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?

Select one:
a. 12,000 kcal
b. 5,000 kcal
c. 1,200 kcal
d. 500 kcal

Answer 4

1,200 kcal

Question 5

What is the superior boundary of the core?

Select one:
a. Abdominal muscles
b. Pelvic floor and hip musculature
c. Diaphragm
d. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles

Answer 5

Diaphragm

Question 6

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. 40-yard dash
c. Overhead squat
d. Pro shuttle

Answer 6

40-yard dash

Question 7

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

Select one:
a. Speed
b. Acceleration
c. Assessment of visual stimuli
d. Stride rate

Answer 7

Assessment of visual stimuli

Question 8

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?

Select one:
a. First class
b. Third class
c. Second class
d. Fourth class

Answer 8

First class

Question 9

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?

Select one:
a. Superior
b. Lateral
c. Anterior
d. Posterior

Answer 9

Posterior

Question 10

What statement best describes a premium health club?
Select one:
a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

Answer 10

A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

Question 11

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

Select one:
a. A pull
b. A twist
c. A strain
d. A sprain

Answer 11

A sprain

Question 12

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

Select one:
a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Power Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training

Answer 12

Power Training

Question 13

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?

Select one:
a. It converts ADP back to ATP.
b. It helps transmit the motor signal.
c. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
d. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.

Answer 13

It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

Question 14

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

Select one:
a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
d. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity

Answer 14

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Question 15

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?

Select one:
a. When the individual responds with “yes” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
b. When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”
c. When the individual says it is “challenging” to speak during the activity
d. When the individual says it is “somewhat easy” to talk during the activity

Answer 15

When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”

Question 16

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?

Select one:
a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
b. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
c. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
d. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.

Answer 16

The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

Question 17

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

Select one:
a. Pushing
b. Hip hinge
c. Pulling
d. Squatting

Answer 17

Pushing

Question 18

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

Select one:
a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
d. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Answer 18

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Question 19

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?

Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Isometric
d. Isokinetic

Answer 19

Isokinetic

Question 20

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

Select one:
a. Muscle mass atrophy
b. Body fat loss
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

Answer 20

Body fat loss

Question 21

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?

Select one:
a. 11
b. 3
c. 9
d. 7

Answer 21

9

Question 22

What is the primary action of the multifidus?

Select one:
a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
b. Support the contents of the pelvis
c. Stabilize and extend the spine
d. Regulate inspiration

Answer 22

Stabilize and extend the spine

Question 23

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?

Select one:
a. 208 - (0.7 x age)
b. HRmax x % intensity desired
c. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest
d. VO2max x % intensity desired

Answer 23

208 - (0.7 x age)

Question 24

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?

Select one:
a. Triceps brachii
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis

Answer 24

Brachioradialis

Question 25

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?

Select one:
a. Glucose
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Protein

Answer 25

Protein

Question 26

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?

Select one:
a. Esophagus
b. Small intestine
c. Stomach
d. Large intestine

Answer 26

Small intestine

Question 27

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

Select one:
a. Hip extension
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip adduction
d. Hip internal rotation

Answer 27

Hip extension

Question 28

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

Select one:
a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.8
d. 0.6

Answer 28

0.4

Question 29

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

Select one:
a. Step-ups
b. Depth jump
c. Barbell clean
d. Single-leg squat

Answer 29

Step-ups

Question 30

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?

Select one:
a. Autonomic nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Sympathetic nervous system

Answer 30

Peripheral nervous system

Question 31

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Rectus abdominis

Answer 31

Transverse abdominis

Question 32

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

Select one:
a. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
b. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
c. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
d. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

Answer 32

To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

Question 33

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

Select one:
a. It increases muscular hypertrophy.
b. It decreases core muscle activation.
c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.
d. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

Answer 33

It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

Question 34

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?

Select one:
a. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
b. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
c. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula

Answer 34

Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

Question 35

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client’s fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?

Select one:
a. Recovery
b. Volume
c. Training frequency
d. Intensity

Answer 35

Training frequency

Question 36

What is explained by the sliding filament theory?

Select one:
a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
c. The Z-lines moving farther apart
d. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction

Answer 36

The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

Question 37

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?

Select one:
a. Reverse listing
b. Acceptance
c. Stopping
d. Cognitive fusion

Answer 37

Cognitive fusion

Question 38

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

Select one:
a. Side plank
b. Medicine ball soccer throw
c. Cable rotation
d. Floor crunch

Answer 38

Side plank

Question 39

How is osteopenia best described?

Select one:
a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.
d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

Answer 39

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

Question 40

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?

Select one:
a. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
b. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
d. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.

Answer 40

A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

Question 41

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

Select one:
a. Back muscles only
b. Local and global muscles
c. Global muscles
d. Local muscles

Answer 41

Local muscles

Question 42

Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?

Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius and soleus
b. Adductor complex
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius

Answer 42

Gastrocnemius and soleus

Question 43

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?

Select one:
a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.

Answer 43

As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

Question 44

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?

Select one:
a. Eccentric action
b. Isokinetic action
c. Concentric action
d. Isometric action

Answer 44

Eccentric action

Question 45

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?

Select one:
a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

Answer 45

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

Question 46

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?

Select one:
a. SAID principle
b. Systematic approach
c. All-or-nothing principle
d. Progressive overload

Answer 46

Progressive overload

Question 47

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?

Select one:
a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell squat
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Bench press

Answer 47

Medicine ball soccer throw

Question 48

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?

Select one:
a. Pelvic floor muscles
b. Erector spinae
c. Multifidus
d. Transverse abdominis

Answer 48

Erector spinae

Question 49

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

Select one:
a. Thoracic spine
b. Frontal plane
c. Sagittal plane
d. Lumbar spine

Answer 49

Thoracic spine

Question 50

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

Select one:
a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
c. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders

Answer 50

Forward head and protracted shoulders

Question 51

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?

Select one:
a. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
b. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
d. Changes acute variables on a weekly basi

Answer 51

Increases intensity while decreasing volume

Question 52

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?

Select one:
a. There is no difference.
b. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.
c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
d. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label.

Answer 52

A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

Question 53

What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?

Select one:
a. 19 breaths per minute
b. 15 breaths per minute
c. 7 breaths per minute
d. 25 breaths per minute

Answer 53

15 breaths per minute

Question 54

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

Select one:
a. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

Answer 54

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

Question 55

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

Select one:
a. Overhead medicine ball throw
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Medicine ball pullover throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass

Answer 55

Medicine ball pullover throw

Question 56

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Select one:
a. Less force production
b. Larger in size
c. Quick to fatigue
d. Fewer capillaries

Answer 56

Less force production

Question 57

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

Select one:
a. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
b. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

Answer 57

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

Question 58

What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?

Select one:
a. ADP
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. Glucose

Answer 58

ATP

Question 59

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?

Select one:
a. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
b. The midline of the pelvis of the participant
c. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant
d. The head of the participant

Answer 59

The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

Question 60

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?

Select one:
a. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.
c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.
d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Answer 60

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Question 61

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills per workout
b. 1 or 2 drills per workout
c. 4 to 8 drills per workout
d. 2 or 3 drills per workout

Answer 61

4 to 8 drills per workout

Question 62

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?

Select one:
a. 135/80 mm Hg
b. 124/80 mm Hg
c. 143/92 mm Hg
d. 118/78 mm Hg

Answer 62

135/80 mm Hg

Question 63

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?

Select one:
a. Theory of general relativity
b. Law of thermodynamics
c. Archimedes’ principle
d. SAID principle

Answer 63

SAID principle

Question 64

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

Select one:
a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible
d. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable

Answer 64

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

Question 65

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Depth jumps
b. Single-leg hops
c. Ice skaters
d. Box jumps

Answer 65

Depth jumps

Question 66

In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.)

Select one:
a. Vestibular
b. Sensorimotor
c. Somatosensation
d. Center of gravity

Answer 66

Center of gravity

Question 67

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?

Select one:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Neural adaptations
d. Muscle atrophy

Answer 67

Neural adaptations

Question 68

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?

Select one:
a. Peer pressure
b. Group influence
c. Health influence
d. Societal influence

Answer 68

Group influence

Question 69

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

Select one:
a. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
c. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure

Answer 69

Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Question 70

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

Select one:
a. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym.
b. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate.
c. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.
d. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

Answer 70

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

Question 71

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?

Select one:
a. Speed ladders
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Strength machines
d. ViPR

Answer 71

ViPR

Question 72

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?

Select one:
a. Zone 3
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 4
d. Zone 1

Answer 72

Zone 2

Question 73

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?

Select one:
a. Increased lipogenesis
b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
c. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
d. Increased lipolysis

Answer 73

Increased lipolysis

Question 74

Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

Select one:
a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 5%

Answer 74

10%

Question 75

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?

Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Resisting social pressure
c. Implementation intentions
d. Coping responses

Answer 75

Coping responses

Question 76

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

Select one:
a. Shortening of the agonist muscle
b. Stretching of the antagonist muscle
c. Transitioning of forces
d. Stretching of the agonist muscle

Answer 76

Stretching of the agonist muscle

Question 77

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

Select one:
a. Growth and stabilization
b. Strength and volume
c. Growth and volume
d. Strength and stabilization

Answer 77

Growth and volume

Question 78

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?

Select one:
a. Transversus abdominis
b. Internal oblique
c. Multifidus
d. Erector spinae

Answer 78

Erector spinae

Question 79

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Altered length-tension relationship
d. Synergistic dominance

Answer 79

Synergistic dominance

Question 80

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?

Select one:
a. Single-leg squat
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
d. Single-leg balance

Answer 80

Single-leg squat

Question 81

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

Select one:
a. 7 to 9 sets
b. 1 to 4 sets
c. 0 sets
d. 5 or 6 sets

Answer 81

1 to 4 sets

Question 82

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Select one:
a. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
b. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Answer 82

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Question 83

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Frontal
c. Dorsal
d. Transverse

Answer 83

Transverse

Question 84

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

Select one:
a. Steady-state treadmill workouts
b. Long continuous runs
c. Heart rate cardio
d. Small circuits

Answer 84

Small circuits

Question 85

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?

Select one:
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation

Answer 85

Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

Question 86

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.

Select one:
a. Performance
b. Injury resistance
c. Posture
d. Rehabilitation

Answer 86

Injury resistance

Question 87

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?

Select one:
a. Power
b. Strength
c. Change of direction
d. Speed

Answer 87

Change of direction

Question 88

How is a general warm-up best defined?

Select one:
a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.

Answer 88

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

Question 89

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?

Select one:
a. Planning social gatherings for the group
b. Setting the time for the group to meet
c. Planning the workout for the group
d. Providing modifications during the workout

Answer 89

Planning social gatherings for the group

Question 90

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Hip flexors
c. Adductor complex
d. Lower trapezius

Answer 90

Abdominals

Question 91

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

Select one:
a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.
b. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

Answer 91

The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

Question 92

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?

Select one:
a. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
b. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake
c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
d. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

Answer 92

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

Question 93

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Multifidus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Erector spinae

Answer 93

Multifidus

Question 94

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?

Select one:
a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint
c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
d. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle

Answer 94

A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

Question 95

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?

Select one:
a. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
b. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
c. Any medical precautions or contraindications
d. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results

Answer 95

Any medical precautions or contraindications

Question 96

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Select one:
a. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
c. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
d. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb

Answer 96

Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

Question 97

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Volume
c. Frequency
d. Recovery

Answer 97

Volume

Question 98

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

Select one:
a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
b. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds
c. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes
d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes

Answer 98

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

Question 99

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Depth jumps
c. Single-leg hops
d. Box jumps

Answer 99

Depth jumps