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NASM CPT > Practice Test Questions #4 > Flashcards

Practice Test Questions #4 Flashcards

1
Q

Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?
Select one:
a. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.

A

Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.

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2
Q

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance

A

Synergistic dominance

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3
Q

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
Select one:
a. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
b. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue
c. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue
d. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue

A

The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

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4
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
Select one:
a. Arrhythmia
b. Hypertension
c. Heart valve problem
d. Ischemic heart disease

A

Ischemic heart disease

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5
Q

Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Select one:
a. One can live without cholesterol.
b. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs.
c. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
d. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.

A

Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

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6
Q

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?
Select one:
a. Cleaning the house
b. Running for 5 miles
c. Sleeping
d. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training

A

Cleaning the house

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7
Q

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances?
Select one:
a. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.
b. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur.
c. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity.
d. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly.

A

They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

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8
Q

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C

A

Vitamin A

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9
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Select one:
a. Brachial artery
b. Radial artery
c. Carotid artery
d. Femoral artery

A

Brachial artery

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10
Q

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship?
Select one:
a. Autonomous
b. Independent
c. Reciprocal
d. Unequal

A

Reciprocal

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11
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Select one:
a. Knees
b. Spine
c. Shoulders
d. Ankles

A

Spine

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12
Q

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Select one:
a. Certified nutrition specialist
b. Licensed dietitian
c. Registered dietitian nutritionist
d. Certified dietitian nutritionist

A

Registered dietitian nutritionist

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13
Q

Which vitamin is the most transient?
Select one:
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D

A

Vitamin C

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14
Q

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Select one:
a. Peripheral
b. Axial
c. Lateral
d. Appendicular

A

Appendicular

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15
Q

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball soccer throw
b. Barbell squat
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Bench press

A

Medicine ball soccer throw

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
Select one:
a. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
b. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
c. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels.
d. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.

A

An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

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17
Q

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
Select one:
a. 0.4
b. 0.6
c. 0.8
d. 0.2

A

0.4

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18
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball
b. Sandbag
c. Kettlebell
d. ViPR

A

Medicine ball

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19
Q

Flexibility is defined as the following:
Select one:
a. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
b. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
c. A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched
d. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely

A

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

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20
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 2

A

Phase 2

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21
Q

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?
Select one:
a. Utilizing supersets during training
b. Mastering basic movement patterns
c. Focusing on improving muscular growth
d. Improving the rate of force production

A

Mastering basic movement patterns

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22
Q

Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL (high-density lipoprotein)
b. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)
c. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein)
d. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

A

LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

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23
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Select one:
a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training

A

Power Training

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24
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Body fat loss
b. Muscle mass atrophy
c. Decreased volume and intensity
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

A

Body fat loss

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25
Q

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Select one:
a. Valsalva maneuver
b. Venous pooling
c. Peripheral resistance
d. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

A

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

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26
Q

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
Select one:
a. Strength endurance
b. Power
c. Stabilization endurance
d. Muscular development

A

Power

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27
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Select one:
a. Bench press strength assessment
b. Pulling assessment
c. Pushing assessment
d. Overhead press assessment

A

Bench press strength assessment

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?
Select one:
a. Off-season training
b. Cardio training
c. Preseason training
d. In-season training

A

Cardio training

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29
Q

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?
Select one:
a. Individuals recovering from an injury
b. Older adults
c. Deconditioned individuals
d. College-aged athletes

A

College-aged athletes

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30
Q

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?
Select one:
a. Self-efficacy
b. Behavior change techniques
c. Attitudes
d. Determinants

A

Determinants

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31
Q

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?
Select one:
a. Power Training
b. Muscular Development Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

Power Training

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32
Q

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct?
Select one:
a. Social pressure
b. Social ambivalence
c. Social connections
d. Social influence

A

Social influence

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33
Q

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Select one:
a. Thyroid function
b. Kidney function
c. Liver function
d. Heart function

A

Thyroid function

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34
Q

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Select one:
a. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck
b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
c. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest
d. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

A

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

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35
Q

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Pectoralis major
d. Anterior deltoid

A

Latissimus dorsi

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36
Q

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?
Select one:
a. Neuroplasticity
b. Remodeling
c. Osteoporosis
d. Lengthening

A

Remodeling

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37
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
Select one:
a. 0 to 15 seconds
b. 90 to 120 seconds
c. 60 to 90 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds

A

15 to 60 seconds

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38
Q

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
Select one:
a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.
b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.
d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.

A

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

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39
Q

What two activities are part of a client’s warm-up?
Select one:
a. Plyometrics
b. Core
c. Resistance
d. Flexibility and cardio

A

Flexibility and cardio

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40
Q

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Select one:
a. Previous injury
b. Prime-mover relaxation
c. Laxity of a joint
d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation

A

Previous injury

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41
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Select one:
a. Seated cable row
b. Ball cobra
c. Lat pulldown
d. Close grip bench press

A

Close grip bench press

42
Q

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Select one:
a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Action potential
c. Nociceptor
d. Neurotransmitter

A

Nociceptor

43
Q

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?
Select one:
a. A dumbbell is safer.
b. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.
c. A kettlebell is heavier.
d. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.

A

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

44
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Select one:
a. Deep longitudinal subsystem
b. Lateral subsystem
c. Posterior oblique subsystem
d. Anterior oblique subsystem

A

Lateral subsystem

45
Q

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Deconditioning
b. Adequate core stability
c. Adequate joint stability
d. Power exercise familiarity

A

Deconditioning

46
Q

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?
Select one:
a. Reverse listing
b. Imagery
c. Cognitive fusion
d. Stopping

A

Reverse listing

47
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Select one:
a. Glycolysis
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Oxidation
d. Gluconeogenesis

A

Gluconeogenesis

48
Q

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains?
Select one:
a. Physiological systems
b. The mind and behavior
c. Neuromuscular adaptations
d. Pathology of disease

A

The mind and behavior

49
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Select one:
a. Stabilization Endurance
b. Strength Endurance
c. Maximal Strength
d. Power

A

Strength Endurance

50
Q

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?
Select one:
a. Static posture assessment
b. Performance assessment
c. Dynamic posture assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

Performance assessment

51
Q

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
Select one:
a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Left atrium

A

Left ventricle

52
Q

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:
a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
b. Having more fat stored on their body
c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle
d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

A

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

52
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
Select one:
a. 5 times a week
b. 6 times a week
c. 4 times a week
d. 3 times a week

A

5 times a week

53
Q

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. Minerals
b. Vitamins
c. The essential amino acids
d. Caffeine

A

The essential amino acids

54
Q

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power
b. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance
c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
d. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength

A

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

55
Q

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
Select one:
a. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.
b. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion.
c. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
d. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.

A

A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

56
Q

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?
Select one:
a. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120
b. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80
c. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
d. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89

A

Systolic <120 and diastolic <80

57
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
Select one:
a. An RPE of 5 to 6
b. An RPE of 9 to 10
c. An RPE of 7 to 8
d. An RPE of 3 to 4

A

An RPE of 5 to 6

58
Q

What is defined as steady-state exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercise that goes on for a long time
b. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity
c. Exercise that burns a lot of calories
d. Exercise performed for a short duration of time

A

Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

59
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
b. Increased lipogenesis
c. Increased lipolysis
d. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

A

Increased lipolysis

60
Q

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
Select one:
a. PAR-Q+
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Dietary assessment
d. An annual physical

A

PAR-Q+

61
Q

How can systolic blood pressure be defined?
Select one:
a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
b. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
c. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

A

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

62
Q

What does EMG stand for?
Select one:
a. Electrocardiogram
b. Electromagnetic spectrum
c. Electromyography
d. Elektrokardiogramm

A

Electromyography

63
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Select one:
a. Ball squat
b. Squat, curl to two-arm press
c. Multiplanar step-up
d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift

A

Squat, curl to two-arm press

64
Q

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. External obliques
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Erector spinae

A

Transverse abdominis

65
Q

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Select one:
a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

A

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

66
Q

Social support is best described by which statement?
Select one:
a. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression
b. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client’s availability
c. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior
d. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients

A

The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

67
Q

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteopenia
d. Osteoarthritis

A

Osteoarthritis

68
Q

What are the building blocks of body proteins?
Select one:
a. Ketone bodies
b. Triglycerides
c. Amino acids
d. Glucose

A

Amino acids

69
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Middle and lower trapezius
b. Teres major
c. Pectoralis major
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

Middle and lower trapezius

70
Q

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?
Select one:
a. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.
b. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss.
c. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.
d. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast.

A

Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

71
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Select one:
a. Triceps brachii
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Biceps brachii
d. Quadriceps

A

Triceps brachii

72
Q

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?
Select one:
a. Guided practice
b. Coping plan
c. Implementation intention
d. Self-monitoring

A

Implementation intention

73
Q

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Select one:
a. Perturbation
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Neuromuscular control
d. Somatosensation

A

Perturbation

74
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Anterior and posterior tibialis
c. Adductor complex
d. Abdominals

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis

75
Q

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
Select one:
a. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
b. It requires the use of less elastic energy.
c. It decreases vertical jump height.
d. It requires less eccentric deceleration.

A

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

76
Q

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?
Select one:
a. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working.
b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
c. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients.
d. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.

A

Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

77
Q

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
Select one:
a. 25
b. 18
c. 30
d. 35

A

30

78
Q

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease?
Select one:
a. Appendicitis
b. Strep throat
c. Flu
d. Type 2 diabetes

A

Type 2 diabetes

79
Q

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?
Select one:
a. Lower body temperature
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Decreased blood flow
d. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)

A

Decreased blood flow

80
Q

How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?
Select one:
a. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer’s family medical history.
b. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered with a simple yes or no.
c. The questions identify the customer’s wants, needs, fears, and desires.
d. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer’s workout schedule fits within the personal trainer’s availability.

A

The questions identify the customer’s wants, needs, fears, and desires.

81
Q

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
Select one:
a. 120 beats per minute
b. 140 beats per minute
c. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
d. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise

A

140 beats per minute

82
Q

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
b. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
c. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

A

Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

83
Q

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury?
Select one:
a. Knee valgus
b. Low-back arching
c. Posterior pelvic tilt
d. Anterior pelvic tilt

A

Knee valgus

84
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers.
b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.
c. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
d. Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”

A

Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

85
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client’s goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?
Select one:
a. Motivational interviewing
b. Active listening
c. Nonverbal communication
d. Reflective listening

A

Reflective listening

86
Q

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Autogenic inhibition

A

Autogenic inhibition

87
Q

Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein?
Select one:
a. Synthesis of hormones
b. Padding of vital internal organs
c. Insulation of internal organs
d. Regulation of body temperature

A

Synthesis of hormones

88
Q

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
Select one:
a. Plantar fasciitis
b. Patellar tendonitis
c. A sprain
d. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear

A

Plantar fasciitis

89
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Select one:
a. Concentric
b. Amortization
c. Isometric
d. Eccentric

A

Amortization

90
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.
Select one:
a. Flat floor
b. Static balance
c. Seated weight-training exercises
d. Proprioceptively enriched

A

Proprioceptively enriched

91
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
b. Lower trapezius
c. Abdominals
d. Hip flexors

A

Abdominals

92
Q

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
Select one:
a. The exercise is rhythmic.
b. The exercise targets large muscle groups.
c. The exercise is continuous in nature.
d. The exercise is intense.

A

The exercise is intense.

93
Q

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Select one:
a. Increased muscle strength and speed
b. Increased mobility and balance
c. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle Correct
d. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion

A
94
Q

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?
Select one:
a. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity
b. When someone has anxiety about social situations
c. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror
d. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

A

When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

95
Q

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
Select one:
a. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.
b. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.
c. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.
d. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

A

Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

96
Q

Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what?
Select one:
a. Increased bone growth
b. Mineral toxicity
c. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
d. Rapid weight gain

A

Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

97
Q

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Select one:
a. Knowledge of performance
b. Knowledge of results
c. Motivation
d. Proprioception

A

Proprioception

98
Q

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Sarcopenia
c. Bone density
d. Osteopenia

A

Bone density

99
Q

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Select one:
a. Peripheral heart action system
b. Complex training
c. Drop set
d. Pyramid system

A

Peripheral heart action system

NASM CPT (8 decks)

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