What is atherosclerosis?
a. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable
b. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream
c. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
d. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.
The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?
What best describes an essential amino acid?
a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
b. An amino acid that is in all types of foods
c. An amino acid that is required after a workout
d. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods
An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
a. Tell them no.
b. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use.
c. Tell them it could help with their training.
d. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.
Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
a. Dynamic stretching
b. Active stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Self-myofascial techniques
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
a. 0 seconds
b. 60 to 120 seconds
c. 5 minutes
d. 30 seconds
60 to 120 seconds
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
b. Little motion
c. No motion
d. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Muscle imbalance
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
a. Vertical jump
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Pro shuttle
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
c. Anterior tibialis
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?
b. Business practice
d. Legal and ethical
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
a. Vestibular function
b. Sensory function
c. Neuromuscular function
d. Afferent nerve function
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
a. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Blood pressure
d. Heart rate
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
b. Tensor fascia latae
d. Thoracic spine
Tensor fascia latae
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Somatic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
c. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
d. Type 1 diabetes
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?
b. Sports participation
c. Athletic injuries
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
a. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
b. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern
c. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern
d. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
a. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume
b. Predetermined timelines
c. Consistent in its approach
d. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
a. Dynamic balance
b. Static balance
c. High-level balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
a. Core stability
b. Force production
c. Landing mechanics
d. Power development
Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body?
What is cardiac output?
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
a. The scapula protruding excessively from the back
b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
c. The trunk leaning forward
d. The arms falling forward
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
a. College football conditioning coach
b. College instructor
c. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor
d. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
a. What do you currently weigh?
b. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
c. Did you exercise this week?
d. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals?
What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
a. Squat jump
b. Proprioceptive plyometrics
c. Ice skaters
d. Depth jumps
A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?
a. Recommend she eat high-calorie “cheat meals” more often.
b. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.
c. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
d. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.
Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.
What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?
a. Wolff’s law
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
a. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout
b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
c. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes
d. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
a. Calf raise
b. Back squat
c. Triceps extension
d. Bench press
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Soccer throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Two-arm push press
Two-arm push press
Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
a. Motion balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Static balance
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
d. Client’s choice
Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
b. Health supplements
c. Anabolic steroids
d. Performance supplements
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
a. A decrease in metabolic rate
b. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
c. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
d. A reduction in blood pressure at rest
A decrease in metabolic rate
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
a. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.
b. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
c. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
d. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?
a. Lack of time
b. Lack of energy
c. Lack of social support
d. Lack of enjoyment
Lack of time
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?
a. Essential amino acids only
b. Peptide bonds
c. Essential and nonessential amino acids
d. Carbon molecules
Essential and nonessential amino acids
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?
a. Stabilization of the LPHC
b. Use of heavy weights
c. Slow and controlled movements
d. A faster tempo, similar to daily life
A faster tempo, similar to daily life
Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
b. Heart disease and diabetes
d. Alzheimer’s disease
Heart disease and diabetes
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
d. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
c. Trace mineral
d. Performance supplement
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
a. Frontal and sagittal
b. Transverse and frontal
c. Sagittal and transverse
d. All planes of motion
Frontal and sagittal
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
a. Hearing system
b. Somatosensory system
c. Visual system
d. Vestibular system
Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer’s scope of practice is accurate?
a. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice.
b. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
c. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice.
d. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally.
Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
What is the peripheral heart action system?
a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
b. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
c. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets
d. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
a. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
c. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
d. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?
a. Growth hormone
b. Insulin-like growth factor
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 5
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
a. 2 seconds
b. 3 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 1 second
What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
a. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
b. Anterior and posterior
c. Axial and appendicular
d. Upper and lower
Axial and appendicular
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
a. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
b. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach
c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
d. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?
a. Fitness manager
b. Exercise leader
c. Certified Personal Trainer
d. General manager
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
a. WHR of 0.83
b. WHR of 0.88
c. WHR of 0.72
d. WHR of 0.78
WHR of 0.88
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
a. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
b. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
c. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
d. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?
a. Learning how to lead group training programs
b. Earning a massage therapy license to be able to offer massage treatments
c. Becoming a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN) to provide nutritional counseling
d. Pursuing a degree in exercise science
Learning how to lead group training programs
Which of the following would be considered a process goal?
a. Run three times a week
b. Squat 100 pounds
c. Run one mile
d. Run a 10k race
Run three times a week
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
a. Metabolic specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Mechanical specificity
d. Posture specificity
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 120 to 180 seconds
c. 0 to 90 seconds
d. 180 to 240 seconds
0 to 90 seconds
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
b. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
c. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.
d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
a. Incline plank
b. Stability ball Russian twist
c. Supine reverse crunches
d. Supine floor crunches
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Lower trapezius
c. Upper trapezius
Which of the following is a ketone body?
a. Acetoacetic acid
d. Lactic acid
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
a. Neuromuscular stabilization
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?
a. 20 to 40 g
b. 15 to 20 g
c. 30 to 50 g
d. 60 to 70 g
20 to 40 g
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
b. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
c. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment
d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic
High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
b. Neuromotor skills
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
a. Warm-up phase
b. Interval phase
c. Cool-down phase
d. Conditioning phase
Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional?
a. Emotional support
b. Informational support
c. Companionship support
d. Instrumental support
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
a. Less braking force
b. Less stability
c. Less speed
d. Less forward drive
Less braking force
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
a. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.
b. Compression of the myofascia “tightens” the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.
c. Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
d. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones.
Compression to the local myofascia “relaxes” the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
a. Serratus anterior
b. Cervical extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Lower trapezius
What is the main role of a personal trainer?
a. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
b. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients
c. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes
d. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle
The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
a. Hamstrings and erector spinae
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
a. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.
b. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
c. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.
d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Muscular atrophy
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 2
According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
a. Proper movement
Which term refers to a person’s education, income, and occupation?
a. Emotional health
b. Behavioral health
c. Global state of health
d. Socioeconomic status
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
a. Decreased venous return
b. Increased ventricular filling
c. Venous pooling
d. Decreased ventricular filling
Increased ventricular filling
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
a. Cancer prevention
b. Muscle contraction
d. Macronutrient metabolism
Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?
a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers
b. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job
c. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
d. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout
Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
a. 12 hours
b. 48 to 72 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 1 week
48 to 72 hours
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
a. 120 minutes per week
b. 75 minutes per week
c. 90 minutes per week
d. 60 minutes per week
75 minutes per week
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
a. Posterior pelvic tilt
b. Medial pelvic tilt
c. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. Lateral pelvic tilt
Posterior pelvic tilt
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?
a. Goal setting
b. Action planning
c. Coping planning
Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
a. Damaging the kidneys
b. Improving strength and muscle size
c. Improving endurance
d. Improving heart health
Improving strength and muscle size
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
a. Situational factors
b. Leader’s qualities
c. Leadership styles
d. Follower’s qualities
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
a. Machine leg press
b. Sandbag squat
c. Barbell squats
d. BOSU squat
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
b. Structured exercise
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
a. Sport skills
b. Depth jumps
c. Side-to-side hops
d. Dual-foot drills
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
a. All individuals have “lack of time” as a barrier.
b. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
c. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.
Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
a. Vestibular system
b. Auditory system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Visual system
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
a. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
b. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power
Stabilization, Strength, and Power
When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?
a. 1.5 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 1 in.
d. 0.5 in.
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
a. Dynamic posture assessment
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Performance assessment
d. Static posture assessment
Dynamic posture assessment