Practice Test Questions #3 Flashcards

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1
Q

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?
Select one:
a. 1.5 in.
b. 0.5 in.
c. 1 in.
d. 2 in.

A

2 in.

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2
Q

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
Select one:
a. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
c. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

A

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

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3
Q

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
Select one:
a. Mechanoreceptors
b. Somatic nervous system
c. The brain
d. Autonomic nervous system

A

Autonomic nervous system

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4
Q

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?
Select one:
a. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work harder in the presence of the group.
b. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together; when people feel welcome, they are likely to return.
c. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation.
d. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

A

Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

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5
Q

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?
Select one:
a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
b. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly
c. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
d. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

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6
Q

Calcium is of principal importance for what?
Select one:
a. Maintaining a strong immune system
b. Maintaining strong bones
c. Clearing toxins
d. Nutrient absorption

A

Maintaining strong bones

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7
Q

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Heart disease and diabetes
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Cancer

A

Heart disease and diabetes

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8
Q

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
Select one:
a. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement
b. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm
c. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
d. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach

A

Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

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9
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
c. Pull the elbows into extension
d. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction

A

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

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10
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. Type IIb
b. Type Iic
c. Type I
d. Type IIa

A

Type I

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11
Q

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Select one:
a. Obesity
b. Cancer
c. Smoking
d. Heart disease

A

Heart disease

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12
Q

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Select one:
a. Flexibility and joint ROM
b. Muscle strength and power
c. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency
d. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness

A

Flexibility and joint ROM

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13
Q

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Select one:
a. Osteokinematics
b. Arthrokinematics
c. Biomechanics
d. Kinesiology

A

Arthrokinematics

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14
Q

What is a joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response?
Select one:
a. Osteopenia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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15
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:
a. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
b. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
d. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

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16
Q

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Select one:
a. Validity
b. Relevance
c. Reliability
d. Appropriateness

A

Reliability

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17
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?
Select one:
a. Arms fall forward
b. Forward lean
c. Shoulder elevation
d. Scapular winging

A

Shoulder elevation

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18
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Select one:
a. Deceleration
b. Reaction to a signal
c. Changing directions
d. Acceleration

A

Reaction to a signal

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19
Q

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Select one:
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 5

A

Phase 4

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20
Q

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Select one:
a. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
c. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion
d. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening

A

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

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21
Q

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:
a. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
b. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
c. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

A

Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

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22
Q

When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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23
Q

What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?
Select one:
a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
b. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families
c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services

A

A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

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24
Q

Which of the following is true of protein shakes?
Select one:
a. They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.
b. They are dangerous and should be avoided.
c. They are required to build muscle.
d. They are a poor choice for recovery.

A

They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

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25
Q

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?
Select one:
a. Self-efficacy
b. Self-image
c. Resilience
d. Self-esteem

A

Self-efficacy

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26
Q

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?
Select one:
a. Fortified foods
b. Plant proteins
c. Animal proteins
d. Legumes

A

Animal proteins

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27
Q

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Select one:
a. Quickness
b. Agility
c. Speed
d. Power

A

Speed

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28
Q

What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Select one:
a. Spindles
b. Neuron
c. Axon
d. Nucleus

A

Neuron

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29
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Select one:
a. Lying down on back
b. Sitting
c. Standing
d. Kneeling

A

Standing

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30
Q

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas?
Select one:
a. Oxygen
b. Platelets
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water

A

Oxygen

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31
Q

How is Fartlek training best described?
Select one:
a. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
b. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
c. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
d. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

A

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

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32
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Adductor complex
c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
d. Abdominals

A

Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

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33
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Anterior pelvic tilt
b. Posterior pelvic tilt
c. Lateral pelvic tilt
d. Medial pelvic tilt

A

Posterior pelvic tilt

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34
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
Select one:
a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.
b. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.
c. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
d. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.

A

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

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35
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise?
Select one:
a. Shoveling snow
b. Yardwork
c. Weightlifting
d. Walking a dog

A

Weightlifting

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36
Q

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Select one:
a. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing
b. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx
c. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle
d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

A

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

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37
Q

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Select one:
a. Deceleration
b. Acceleration
c. Amortization
d. Stabilization

A

Deceleration

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38
Q

Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout?
Select one:
a. Adherence
b. Overtraining
c. Hypertrophy
d. Stabilization

A

Overtraining

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39
Q

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Select one:
a. Static balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Stable balance
d. Dynamic balance

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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40
Q

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?
Select one:
a. To mitigate the side effects of medication
b. For general well-being
c. To correct nutrient imbalances
d. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

A

To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

41
Q

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?
Select one:
a. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance
b. Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual’s medical diagnoses
c. Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance
d. Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual’s caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake

A

General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

42
Q

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.
b. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
c. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training.
d. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.

A

Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

43
Q

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?
Select one:
a. Endorphins
b. Adrenaline
c. Androgens
d. Melatonin

A

Endorphins

44
Q

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 1

A

Phase 3

45
Q

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Select one:
a. Type 1
b. Prediabetes
c. Gestational
d. Type 2

A

Type 2

46
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Select one:
a. Central to the right and posterior to the spine
b. Central to the left and posterior to the spine
c. Central to the right and anterior to the spine
d. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

A

Central to the left and anterior to the spine

47
Q

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Select one:
a. Osteopenia
b. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.
c. Arthritis
d. Lung cancer

A

Osteopenia

48
Q

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:
a. Resistance
b. Cool-down
c. Warm-up
d. Skill development

A

Skill development

49
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Isotonic
c. Concentric
d. Isometric

A

Concentric

50
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
Select one:
a. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
b. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
c. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
d. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

A

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

51
Q

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
Select one:
a. 2
b. 1.5
c. 4.5
d. 3

A

2

52
Q

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?
Select one:
a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results.
c. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.
d. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.

A

Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

53
Q

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Select one:
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric

A

Isokinetic

54
Q

What is the principle of specificity?
Select one:
a. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
c. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
d. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

A

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

55
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Select one:
a. Thoracic and lumbar
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Cervical and thoracic
d. Thoracic and sacral

A

Thoracic and sacral

56
Q

What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer?
Select one:
a. Texting the hiring manager to thank them for their time during the interview
b. Posting a note on social media saying how much fun it was to interview and how cool it would be to work for the company
c. Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email
d. Having a parent call to ask about the interview results

A

Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

57
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?
Select one:
a. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
c. Rockport walk test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test

A

Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

58
Q

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?
Select one:
a. Jump height
b. Amortization speed
c. Explosive power
d. Proper technique

A

Proper technique

59
Q

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following?
Select one:
a. How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body
b. How someone conceptualizes their place in society
c. When someone is anxious about how others view their body
d. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

A

How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

60
Q

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
Select one:
a. Concussions
b. Ankle sprains
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
d. Medial collateral ligament injuries

A

Ankle sprains

61
Q

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Select one:
a. Affirming
b. Collecting summaries
c. Reflective listening
d. Motivational interviewing

A

Motivational interviewing

62
Q

What is forecasting?
Select one:
a. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs
b. A relationship in which two people understand each other’s ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well
c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
d. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

A

A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

63
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?
Select one:
a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
b. Involves training multiple styles each week
c. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis
d. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring

A

Increases intensity while decreasing volume

64
Q

What is acidosis in muscle?
Select one:
a. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
b. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

A

A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

65
Q

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client’s strengths?
Select one:
a. Affirmations
b. Transitional summaries
c. Reflections
d. Collecting summaries

A

Affirmations

66
Q

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?
Select one:
a. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club
b. Reading exercise-science textbooks
c. Attending fitness industry conferences
d. Reading scholarly research journals

A

Attending fitness industry conferences

67
Q

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Select one:
a. Explosive jumps
b. Dynamic motion
c. Small jumps
d. Fast, powerful movements

A

Small jumps

68
Q

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?
Select one:
a. Lentils
b. Whole eggs
c. Beans
d. Peas

A

Whole eggs

69
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Select one:
a. Upper crossed syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
c. Pes planus distortion syndrome
d. Excessive pronation

A

Lower crossed syndrome

70
Q

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
Select one:
a. Eccentric contractions are minimized.
b. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces.
c. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful.
d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle

A

It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle

71
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Pro shuttle
c. 40-yard dash
d. Long (broad) jump

A

Pro shuttle

72
Q

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client’s bone mineral density?
Select one:
a. Swimming
b. Cycling
c. Water aerobics
d. Walking

A

Walking

73
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Posture specificity

A

Mechanical specificity

74
Q

How are dietary supplements defined?
Select one:
a. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
b. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders
c. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals
d. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients

A

Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

75
Q

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness?
Select one:
a. Steady-state heart rate
b. VO2max
c. Maximal heart rate
d. Ventilatory threshold

A

VO2max

76
Q

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Select one:
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Explosive-shortening phase
c. Stretching phase
d. Muscular-power phase

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

77
Q

Empathy is best described as?
Select one:
a. Being positive and outgoing during training sessions
b. The ability to identify with how another person feels
c. Listening to a client but not providing any support
d. Providing instrumental support to an individual

A

The ability to identify with how another person feels

78
Q

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Select one:
a. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
b. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
d. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation

A

Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

79
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Select one:
a. Beans
b. Dairy foods
c. Legumes
d. Grains

A

Dairy foods

80
Q

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Arteries
b. Veins
c. Capillaries
d. Arterioles

A

Veins

81
Q

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Select one:
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Gluteus medius
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Erector spinae

A

Erector spinae

82
Q

Why is third-party verification important?
Select one:
a. It is required for a supplement to be put on the market.
b. It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.
c. It shows which supplements to trust.
d. It provides unbiased testing for a product.

A

It provides unbiased testing for a product.

83
Q

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Select one:
a. Action potential
b. Nociceptor
c. Neurotransmitter
d. Mechanoreceptor

A

Nociceptor

84
Q

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercise activity thermogenesis
b. Thermic effect of food
c. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

A

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

85
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Select one:
a. Ball cobra
b. Seated cable row
c. Lat pulldown
d. Close grip bench press

A

Close grip bench press

86
Q

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Select one:
a. Volume
b. Frequency
c. Recovery
d. Intensity

A

Intensity

87
Q

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?
Select one:
a. Cognitive fusion
b. Energy imagery
c. Technique imagery
d. Appearance imagery

A

Technique imagery

88
Q

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
Select one:
a. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
b. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.
c. The attempt at jumping will fail.
d. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.

A

The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

89
Q

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?
Select one:
a. Unrealistic goals
b. Ambivalence
c. Social physique anxiety
d. Lack of social support

A

Social physique anxiety

90
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
Select one:
a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
d. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

A

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

91
Q

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?
Select one:
a. Sandbags
b. Kettlebells
c. TRX Rip Trainer
d. Battle ropes

A

Sandbags

92
Q

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
Select one:
a. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
b. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.
c. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea.
d. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal.

A

Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

93
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Select one:
a. Aerobic fitness
b. Power
c. Muscular strength
d. Flexibility

A

Power

94
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Dyspnea
b. Hypoxia
c. Pulmonary hypoplasia
d. Pneumonia

A

Dyspnea

95
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Butt kick
b. Tuck jump
c. Power step-up
d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

96
Q

What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Select one:
a. Perform a daily program of aerobic activity, and ensure increased protein consumption
b. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
c. Ensure adequate water consumption, and avoid higher levels of physical activity
d. Ensure adequate water and protein intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of resistance training

A

Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training

97
Q

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
Select one:
a. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.

A

EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

98
Q

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?
Select one:
a. In order for exercise to improve sleep, it must be coupled with medication.
b. Getting 10 minutes a day of physical activity is all that is needed to improve insomnia.
c. Resistance training has not been shown to have any positive effect on sleep disturbances.
d. Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

A

Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

99
Q

At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?
Select one:
a. She needs to modify her diet to bring down her blood pressure.
b. She has hypertension.
c. Her systolic pressure is 70.
d. Her diastolic pressure is 70.

A

Her diastolic pressure is 70.