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Pharmacology II > Urinary system > Flashcards

Urinary system Flashcards

1
Q

what is the main function of the urinary system?

A

to produce urine from the kidneys
the kidneys enable elimination of drugs/toxins, maintain normal blood pH, and preserve fluid and electrolyte balance

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2
Q

nephron

A

functional unit of the kidney, forms urine

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3
Q

glomerulus

A

cluster of capillaries, filters substances from blood into glomerular filtrate through glomerular filtration

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4
Q

tubules

A

responsible for reabsorption or secretion of substances

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5
Q

how do urinary drugs work?

A

some directly influence urine production and electrolyte balance
others maintain blood pressure and reduce urinary system disease

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6
Q

what do diuretics do?

A

promote diuresis: process of increasing the amount of urine excrete by the kidney and promote release of water from the tissues
helps to decrease edema and lower blood pressure

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7
Q

what is the drug name for loop diuretics?

A

Furosemide

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8
Q

what do loop diuretics do?

A

blocks reabsorption of electrolytes which increases diuresis
treats congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, and hypertension

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9
Q

what are some adverse effects of loop diuretics?

A

heart arrhythmias and electrolyte imbalances

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10
Q

what is the drug name for potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Spironolactone

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11
Q

what do potassium sparing diuretics do?

A

reduces excretion of potassium while increasing excretion of water and sodium, treats congestive heart failure, usually used as a minor diuretic or with other drugs since it’s less effective than loop diuretics

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12
Q

what is the adverse effect of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

hyperkalemia

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13
Q

what is the drug name for thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

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14
Q

what do thiazides do?

A

blocks sodium reabsorption and promotes chloride excretion which increases diuresis, controls blood pressure, can be administered IM, IV, or oral to small animals, horses, and cattle

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15
Q

what are the drug names for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, methazolamide

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16
Q

what do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do? (diuretic)

A

blocks the enzyme that reabsorbs bicarbonate in the proximal convoluted tubule, increases sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate excretion, and decreases intraocular pressure in glaucoma

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17
Q

what is the drug name of osmotic diuretics?

A

Mannitol

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18
Q

what do osmotic diuretics do?

A

promotes excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium, and water
prevents kidney failure, decreases intracranial pressure, and decreases intraocular pressure

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19
Q

what are the adverse effects of osmotic diuretics?

A

uncommon but can include fluid/ electrolyte imbalance and vomiting

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20
Q

what do antihypertensives do?

A

lowers blood pressure

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21
Q

what are animals with high blood pressure at risk for?

A

they’re at risk of developing cardiac and renal dysfunction

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22
Q

what are the drug names of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)?
(antihypertensive)

A

Enalapril, Captopril, Lisinopril, and Benazepril

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23
Q

what do ACE inhibitors do?

A

decrease sodium retention and decrease levels of antidiuretic hormone which promotes diuresis and treats hypertension
treats congestive heart failure and chronic renal failure

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24
Q

what are the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

there are very few but can include vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia

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25
Q

what are the drug names of Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)? (antihypertensive)

A

Telmisartan and Losartan

26
Q

what do ARBs do?

A

promote vasodilation, decrease potassium secretion, and increase sodium excretion

27
Q

what are the adverse effects of ARBs?

A

vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, dehydration, low appetite, and weight loss

28
Q

what are the drug names of calcium channel blockers?
(antihypertensive)

A

Diltiazem (controls heart rate) and Amlodipine (controls blood pressure)

29
Q

what do calcium channel blockers do?

A

blocks influx of calcium ions into myocardial and vascular cells which causes inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility which increases vasodilation

30
Q

what are the adverse effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

hypotension, bradycardia, and edema

31
Q

what do direct-acting arteriole vasodilators do?
(antihypertensive)

A

relax smooth muscles of the blood vessels

32
Q

what drugs are direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?
(anithypertensive)

A

hydralazine: used as an emergency drug due to rapid blood pressure reduction, adverse effect: hypotension
beta-adrenergic antagonists (beta blockers)

33
Q

what are the different types of beta blockers used as direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?

A

Propranolol and Carvedilol: nonselective beta blockers
Atenolol, Metoprolol, and Esmolol: beta 1 blockers that promote bradycardia and bronchoconstriction, treats cardiomyopathy

34
Q

hyperphosphatemia

A

phosphorus accumulated in the blood due to kidneys not filtering it out

35
Q

what does aluminum hydroxide do?
(phosphate binder)

A

binds to dietary phosphorus, decreases amount of phosphorus absorbed by intestines

36
Q

what is the adverse effect of aluminum hydroxide?
(phosphate binder)

A

constipation

37
Q

what do uroliths cause?

A

can cause hematuria, dysuria, and obstructions from becoming lodged in the urethra

38
Q

what are some different treatment options for uroliths?

A

stones can be dissolved with antibiotics therapy, medical dissolution, prescription diet and/or surgical removal

39
Q

how can uroliths be prevented after being treated?

A

increasing amount of water the animal drinks and feeding a diet that alters the pH of the urine

40
Q

how do struvite crystals form?

A

they form in alkaline urine

41
Q

how are struvite crystals treated in dogs?

A

associated with bacterial infections or urinary tract so treated with antibiotics and prescription diets that dissolve them by acidifying the urine
drug: Methionine

42
Q

how are struvite crystals treated in cats?

A

can be present without infection, once dissolved/broken apart/removed a urine-acidifying diet with low concentration of struvite precursors should be fed

43
Q

what animals should never be fed acidifying diets or drugs?

A

animals with renal disease

44
Q

how do calcium oxalate uroliths form?

A

they form in concentrated urine

45
Q

what breeds are calcium oxalate uroliths common in?

A

miniature schnauzers, yorkies, lhasa apsos, bichon frises, shih tzus, and miniature poodles

46
Q

how are calcium oxalate uroliths treated?

A

can’t dissolve them so usually surgically removed, prevented by feeding a prescription diet that keeps urine pH at 6.5-7.5 or can be prescribed urinary alkalinizers

47
Q

how do urate uroliths form?

A

made from purines which are found in high levels in meat, organs, and seafood, can be formed because of a genetic condition in Dalmatians and bulldogs or Aussies can develop them for no reason

48
Q

how are urate uroliths treated?

A

can be dissolved and prevented with a prescription diet (that has low purine and urine-alkalinizing properties) and/or medicine (Allopurinal stops enzyme that converts purine into uric acid)

49
Q

how do cystine crystals form?

A

can form in dogs that have a reabsorption defect that reduces reabsorption of amino acid by the kidneys, typically in young male dogs

50
Q

how are cystine crystals treated?

A

treated/ controlled by prescription food or medication
diet: protein restricted, alkalinizing to raise pH to >7.5
meds: urinary alkalinizers or potassium citrate (CitraVet)

51
Q

urinary incontinence

A

loss of voluntary control of micturition

52
Q

what are the 2 categories of urinary incontinence?

A

neurologic disorders: spinal cord injuries, brain diseases, disruption of nerves controlling the bladder
non-neurologic disorders: urethral disorders due to decreased levels of sex hormone and/or stress or urge incontinence

53
Q

how is neurologically caused incontinence treated?

A

with drugs that affect the nerves of the muscles of the urinary system

54
Q

what do cholinergic agonists do?

A

treats incontinence caused by damage to the nerves that control the relaxation of the bladder
Bethanechol promotes voiding
adverse effects: vomiting and diarrhea

55
Q

what do anticholinergics do?

A

treats incontinence by promoting urine retention and causes muscle relaxation
(neurologically caused incontinence)
Propantheline adverse effects: dry mouth, dry eyes, urinary retention, constipation (anti-SLUDDE)

56
Q

what do adrenergic antagonists do?

A

alpha adrenergic antagonist drugs: phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, and tamsulosin
treats decreased urinary tone due to overdistention of the bladder
adverse effects: weakness due to decreased blood pressure

57
Q

how is non-neurologically caused incontinence treated?

A

hormones may be used to treat spayed/neutered animals or drugs that increase urethral sphincter tone

58
Q

Estriol

A

synthetic estrogen used to treat urine dribbling in spayed dogs

59
Q

Estriol

A

synthetic estrogen used to treat urine dribbling in spayed dogs
adverse effects: decreased appetite, vomiting, mammary hyperplasia, swollen vulva, behavioral changes

60
Q

Testosterone cypionate or testosterone propionate

A

synthetic testosterones used to treat urinary incontinence in males
adverse effects: development of prostate disorders and behavior changes

61
Q

what do alpha and beta-adrenergic agonists do to treat non-neurologically caused incontinence?

A

increases the tone of urethral sphincters
Phenylpropanolamine adverse effects: anorexia, restlessness, hypertension
Pseudophedrine: controlled drug

62
Q

what do skeletal muscle relaxants do?

A

treats animals with urge incontinence or urethral obstructions due to increased external urethral sphincter tone
Dantrolene, Diazepam, Baclofen
adverse effects: mild tranquilization and sedation

Pharmacology II (14 decks)

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