BB2 Revision4 Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenesis of Alzeimers DIsease (AD)

Name the genes [3] and proteins [3] that are critical for early onset AD [3]

A

Genes for early onset AD (not common). caused by the following genes
* Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
* Presenellin 1 (PSEN1)
* Presenellin (PSEN2)

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2
Q

Describe the difference in APP processing between the amyloidogenic and non-amyloidogenic pathway

A

APP protein has 3 cleaving sites. Depending on combination of secretases have will cause different payhways

Non-amyloidogenic pathway:
* alpha-secretases and gamma-secretases

Amyloidogenic pathway:
* Beta-secretases and gamma-secretases
* Generates: AB peptide with two isoforms:AB 40 and AB 42.

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3
Q

Which gene is associated with late onset AD? [1]

A

Late onset (60+ years of age)
* Apolipoprotein E (Ch.19)

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4
Q

Which molecule is APOE involved in the metabolism of? [1]

What are the three isoforms of APOE? [3]
Which is the greatest risk for AD and why? [2]

A

Involved in cholesterol metabolism

APOE2; APOE3 & APOE4

APOE4 has greatest risk factor and decreases clearance of extracellular Aβ.

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5
Q

Which change in AD pathophysiology relates to cognitive decline? [1]

A

Hyperphosphorylated tau tangles correlate to cognitive decline (Amyloid plaques does not)

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6
Q

Which gene encodes tau? [1]

Are mutations to this gene linked to familial AD? [1]

A

MAPT gene

NOT linked to familial AD; instead to frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and several other Tauopathies.

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7
Q

Treatment strategies in AD

Name the drug class [1] and 3 drug examples you prescribe for mild - moderate AD? [3]

Name the drug class [1] and 3 drug examples you prescribe for severe AD? [1]

A

Mild-Moderate AD:
* Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors(e.g. donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine)

Severe AD:
* NMDA receptor antagonists (e.g. memantine)

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8
Q

Which other drugs may AD patients be described based off their symptoms? [3]

But what needs to be considered about these? [1]

A

Antidepressant drugs
Antipsychotic drugs
Mood stabilisers

But overuse of anti-pyschotics can increase in mortality

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9
Q

Pathogenesis of Alzeimers DIsease (AD)

What is the final product of amyloid precursor protein being cleaved? [1]

A

Aβ peptides (this is a normal metablic event)

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10
Q

Presenilin 1 & 2 are responsible for making which secretase? [1]

A

Presenilin 1 & 2 proteins is one part (subunit) of a complex called gamma- (γ-) secretase.

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11
Q

Describe the inflammatory response caused by familial forms of AD pathogenesis (from early AD genes) [2]

Describe the effect of amyloid plaques within neurons (caused by familial forms of AD pathogenesis) [2]

A

Inflammatory response:
* Microglial activation - inability to clear AP causes chronic inflammation of microglia
* Astrocytosis (increase in amount) and acute phase protein release

Progressive neuritic injury within amyloid plaques
* Disruption of neuronal metabolism and ionic homeostasis:
* Oxidative Stress

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12
Q

Which posttranslational modification does the microtubule-binding protein, tau undergo which contributes to Alzheimer’s pathology? [1]

Which amino acids can undergo this specific post translational modification? [3]

A

Hyperphosphorylation.

Tyrosine, serine and threonine.

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13
Q

Describe effect of AD on cholinergic pathways? [2]

What can be given to reverse this effect? [1]

A

Cholinergic forebrain pathways innervating cortical and limbic structures degenerate in AD

Blockade of acetylcholinesterase increases the failing cholinergic signal

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14
Q

AD can be associated with a slow form of [] due to increased glutamate

A

AD can be associated with a slow form of excitotoxicity due to increased glutamate

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15
Q

Name 6 potential new mechanisms for AD treatment

A
  • β-secretase inhibitors
  • Notch-sparing γ-secretase inhibitors or modulators
  • Aβ vaccines and monoclonal antibodies
  • Aβ aggregation inhibitors
  • Tau lowering/anti aggregation compounds
  • Regulation of abnormal anti-inflammatory mechanisms
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16
Q

Define:
Dysarthria [1]
Dysphonia [1]
Dysarthrophonia [1]

What stays the same throughout each of the above? [1]

A

Dysarthria: disorder affecting articulation (slurred / unclear speech)
Dysphonia voice disorder (voice might be weak / distorted)
Dysarthrophonia: voice and articulation disoder

Language and cognition is normal

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17
Q

A 60-year-old female has non-fluent aphasia characterized by good comprehension but poor repetition. What is the best description of this condition?
A. Wernicke aphasia
B. Broca aphasia
C. Anomic aphasia
D. Mixed transcortical aphasia

A

A 60-year-old female has non-fluent aphasia characterized by good comprehension but poor repetition. What is the best description of this condition?
A. Wernicke aphasia
B. Broca aphasia
C. Anomic aphasia
D. Mixed transcortical aphasia

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18
Q

What is the name for saying the wrong words? [1]

A

Paraphasias

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19
Q

What is telegrammatism? [1]

A

Difficulty forming sentences

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20
Q

TBI injury mechanism:

What are the 3 causes of TBI? [3]

A

Penetrating injury
* Foreign object (e.g. bullet) enters into brain causing focal damage.

Closed head injury:
* Blow to the head (e.g. road traffic accident).

Blast injury
* Explosion (e.g. bomb) create fast moving pressure wave that passes through the brain and damages axons and vasculature.

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21
Q

Types of traumatic brain injury injury classification

Describe the injury classifications for TBI [2]

A

Focal injury:
- Coup: at site
- Contrecoup: opposite site

Diffuse injury:
- Diffuse axonal injury

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22
Q

Diagnosis of TBI

Which scale is used to classify TBI? [1]

Which critertia is it based on? [3]
What is the maximum score for each of the criteria? [1]

A

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS):

Based on:
- eye opening [/4]
- motor response [/5]
- verbal response [/6]

23
Q

What are mild, moderate and severe GCSs? [3]

A

Mild: 14-15
Moderate: 9-13
Severe: less than 8

24
Q

Explain the two other scales that can be used to assess TBI? [2]

A

Loss of Consciousness (LOC) scale measures the time patient was unconscious

Post traumatic amnesia (PTA) scale measures the interval from injury until patient is orientated and can form and recall new memories.
.

25
Q

Diagnosis of TBI: Imaging

What GCS would cause a CT to be given:

  • straight away? [1]
  • after 2 hrs of assessment [1]
A

GCS less than 13 on intial assessment

GCS less than 15 after 2 hours of injury assessment

26
Q

What can an MRI scan detect that a CT scan cannot? [3]

A
  • diffuse axonal injury ( the shearing (tearing) of the brain’s long connecting nerve fibers (axons) that happens when the brain is injured as it shifts and rotates inside the bony skull)
  • non-haemorrhagic contusion
  • brainstem injury
27
Q

1- Pathophysiology of TBI: Increase in intracranial pressure

How do you detect ICP? [1]

A

ICP bolt

28
Q

1- Pathophysiology of TBI: Increase in intracranial pressure

Describe the Monro-Kellie Hypothesis [4]

A

Relationship between the contents of the cranium and intracranial pressure:

  • Brain is enclosed in a fixed non-expandable skull.
  • Increase in mass (e.g. haematoma) reduces CSF and cerebral blood flow in the brain.
  • Decrease in brain blood and CSF causes ischemia and then brain cell death.
  • Increase ICP can cause herniation.
29
Q

3- Pathophysiology of TBI: herniation

Name the 6 types of brain herniation

A

Uncal
Central (transtentorial)
Cingulate (Subfalcine)
Transcalvarial
Upward cerebellar (transtentorial)
Downward cerebellar (Tosillar)

30
Q

4- Pathophysiology of TBI (Sub Dural Haemotmoa)

Which layers do SDH occur in? [1]

Which blood vessel is commonly affected? [1]

How does SDH commonly occur in imaging?

A

Subdural haematoma (SDH) is a blood clot in the subdural space between the dura and arachnoid mater of the meninges.

SDH is mostly from damage bridging cortical veins (75%)

SDH is often in CT scan as ‘banana/crescent’ shape and can cause herniation.

31
Q

4- Pathophysiology of TBI (seizures)

What is a seizure due to? [1]

When can seizures occur post-TBI? :

How long would a early [1] and late [1] post-traumatic seizure be after a TBI?

A

Seizures are abnormal sudden electrical disturbance in the brain.

Early post-traumatic seizures: A seizure within 1st week of TBI.

Late post-traumatic seizures: A seizure after 1st week of TBI.

32
Q

5- Acute management of TBI (Mild TBI)

How would you acutely treat mild TBI? [2]

A
33
Q

5- Acute management of TBI (Severe TBI)

Which drugs can you use to start seizure prophylaxis? [2]

Which drugs can you use to induce coma? [2]

A

Start on seizure prophylaxis: phenytoin/levetiracetam

Sedation/Induce coma with propofol or benzodiazepines

34
Q

5- Acute management of TBI (Mild TBI)

How would you acutely treat moderate TBI?

A

(Moderate TBI: Experience brain changes and symptoms remains or worsen)

  • Transfer to Neurosurgical unit
  • Surgical evacuation dependent on size and type of haematoma
  • Transfer to intensive care unit (ICU) to allow brain bruising + swelling to reduce by itself.
35
Q

What size haematoma would be evacuated regardless of GCS? [1]

A

>30 cm3

36
Q

5- Acute management of TBI (Severe TBI - ICP)

How could you manage severe ICP:

Acutely [2]
Long term [1]

A

Short term:
* mannitol
* hypertonic saline
(shift of water from extravascular space to intravascular space across the BBB-controversy which therapy is better.)

Long term:
* extraventricular drain/ external ventricular drain (EVD) or ventriculostomy

37
Q

Describe the 3 categories of epileptic seizures? [3]

A

Focal onset (aka partial seizures)
* Cortical or subcortical effected
* They can remain localized or spread to large areas
* start in one of the brain hemisphere

Generalised onset:
* Both sides of brain at onset
* Cortical or subcortical effected

Unknown onset
* If the beginning of the seizure is uncertain

38
Q

Define status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus

a form of epilepsy which is a life-threatening medical emergency
Seizures which last more than 5 minutes (or more than a seizure in 5 min,
without regain of consciousness)

39
Q

General features of a tonic-clonic seizure (aka grand mal seizure)

Describe the 5 general features of a tonic-clonic seizure

A

Premonition (a vague sense that a seizure is imminent)

Pre-tonic-clonic phase (a few myoclonic jerks or brief clonic seizures)

Tonic phase: The muscles will stiffen - causing him/her to fall to the floor (tonic contraction of the axial musculature; upward eye deviation and pupillary dilatation; tonic contraction of the limbs; cyanosis; respiratory muscle contraction - “epileptic cry”; tonic contraction of jaw muscles)

Clonic phase - jerks of increasing amplitude followed by relaxation (sphincter opening may occur) Saliva that has not bene swallowed during the seizure may froth at the mouth. Breathing may be irregular as the respiratory muscles may be affected.

Postictal period (generalized lethargy; decreased muscle tone, headaches, muscle soreness)

40
Q

Which part of the brain undergoes structural changes during epilepsy? [1]

Which structural changes occur in this area? [4]

A

Reorganisation of the hippocampal tissue / hippocampal scleoris:
* Atrophy of CA2 and CA3 hippocampal areas
* Different tract orientation
* Compresion of layers
* Loss of neurones

41
Q

Strucutral changes in epilepsy (I)

What are the consequences of hippocampal sclerosis / degeneration in epilepsy? [1]

A

Sprouting of axons & neurogenesis- may lead of excess synaptic conduct between neurons

Aberrant circuits may be created within the hippcampus

Overtime, there is transformation within neural networks that promote excitability.

42
Q

Name 3 cellular mechanims that are linked to the developement of epilepsy [3]

A

Abnormal neuronal excitability (ion channels)

Decreased neuronal inhibition (GABA-dependent) - e.g. loss of chandelier ce

Increased neuronal excitation (glutamate-dependent)

43
Q

Strucutral changes in epilepsy (II)

Name [1] and explain [2] which cell type, that if lost, can lead to epilepsy

A

GABAnergic inhibitory chandelier cells:

  • Interneuron cells which synapse onto CNS
  • Loss of inhibitory cells increases risk of abnormal excitatory activity
44
Q

Describe the phenomenon / profile of neurones in an epileptic focus [1]

Describe how this occurs [1]

A

Burst firing: aka paroxysmal depolarising shift phenomenon

  • This leads to synchronous, hyperexcitable activity within a neuronal population
  • Particularly NDMA glutamate receptor activation
45
Q

How do astrocyte abnormalities influence the development of epilepsy? [1]

A

Astrocytes:

  • contain EAAT1 and EAAT2 transporters
  • EAAT1 and EAAT2 transporters are key in synaptic glutamate uptake
  • A deficiency in EAAT1 and EAAT2 transporters leads to a decrease in glutamate reuptake
  • This means there is more glutamate in synapse and increases excitability
46
Q

Which physiological changes occur when the body undergoes EPILEPTOGENESIS to create a Hyperexcitable neuronal network in epilepsy [4]

A
  • Neuroinflammation
  • Blood- Brain-Barrier breakdown
  • Oxidative stress
  • Gliosis
  • Network and synaptic changes
47
Q

Which other major pathways may be disregulated in epilepsy? [2]

A

The mTOR pathway is a major regulator
of growth and homeostasis

The REST pathway leads to negative regulation
of the expression of many genes in the CNS

48
Q

Label A&B of the hippocampus [2]

A

A: CA2

B: CA3

Both undergo atrophy in epilepsy

49
Q

The CA areas of the hippocampus are all filled with densely packed [] cells that make up the stratum pyramidale

A

The CA areas are all filled with densely packed pyramidal cells that make up the stratum pyramidale

50
Q

Define epileptogenesis [1]

A

Epileptogenesis is the process by which the previously normal brain is functionally altered and biased towards the generation of the abnormal electrical activity that subserves chronic seizures.

51
Q

Label the channels that are abnormally functioning in epilepsy

A

EAAT1
EAAT2

(causes more glutamate in synapse)

52
Q

Name this cell [1]

What is the function of this cell [1]

A

Chanderlier cell

specialized GABAergic interneuron subtype that selectively innervates pyramidal neurons at the axon initial segment (AIS), the site of action potential generation

53
Q

Name two investigations would conduct for an epilepsy patient [2]

A

An electroencephalogram (EEG)
An MRI brain

54
Q

Focal seizures most commonly start in the [] lobe.

A

Focal seizures start in temporal lobes. They affect hearing, speech, memory and emotions. There are various ways that focal seizures can present: