Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

valence

A

repeated epitopes on the same pathogen

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2
Q

polyvalent

A

antigen/pathogen with many binding sites

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3
Q

—— epitopes trigger an immune response

A

immunogenic

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4
Q

affinity maturation occurs with Ig..

A

IgG

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5
Q

complement that binds to Fc of antibody, leading to classical pathway and MAC

A

C1q

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6
Q

70-80% of antibody in blood

A

IgG

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7
Q

5-10% of antibody in blood

A

IgM

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8
Q

first antibody made

A

IgM

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9
Q

10-20% of antibody in blood

A

IgA

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10
Q

70% of total antibody in body

A

sIgA

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11
Q

granzymes function

A

turn target cell’s proteins into DNA proteases

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12
Q

granulysin function

A

membrane-disrupting
works on intracellular bacteria

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13
Q

CD8 cells fight what kind of infections?
binding requires what?

A

bacterial intracellular infections
specific MHCI with specific antigen

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14
Q

recently-discovered antigen presenting molecule

A

CD1

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15
Q

functions like MHCI and presents glycolipids or lipoproteins

A

CD1

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16
Q

PAMP for CD1 is —–

A

lipid

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17
Q

proteosome/immunoproteasome function

A

processes antigens from a pathogen (usually a virus) for presentation on MHCI

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18
Q

antigens processed for —— presentation never touch the cytoplasm

A

MHCII

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19
Q

genus that can hide in the phagosome

A

Mycobacterium

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20
Q

CD8 binds to MHCI and produces —-, which incites an autocrine reaction

A

IL-2

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21
Q

CD4 T-cells bind to ——

A

MHCII

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22
Q

—- stimulates proliferation of CD4s before differentiation

A

IL-2

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23
Q

polarization to Th1 causes…
and requires… (4)

A

macrophage activation/cellular immunity

requires IL-2, IFN-y, IL-12, TGFB

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24
Q

polarization to Th2 causes…
and requires… (1)

A

humoral immunity

requires IL-4

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25
Q

polarization to Th17 causes…
and requires… (4)

A

inflammation/allergic response

requires IL-6, IL-21, IL-23, TGFB

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26
Q

polarization to Treg causes…
and requires… (3)

A

suppression of immune system

requires IL-10, IL-35, TGFB

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27
Q

accessory signal required for CD4s

A

CD30/CD36/CD28

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28
Q

superantigens

consequence

A

can bind many different receptors and trigger up to 20% of the T-cells to proliferate at one time

cause toxic shock/widespread inflammation

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29
Q

without T-cells, B-cells can be activated poorly by…

ex) disease condition

A

polysaccharide, DNA, highly valent molecules

tonsilitis

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30
Q

result of T-cell independent B-cell activation

A

low-quality IgM
no memory

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31
Q

connects polysaccharide to a protein, enhancing immune response

A

conjugate vaccine

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32
Q

combines S. pneumoniae capsule, not opsonized by C3b, with protein

A

Prevnar

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33
Q

pathogens that take advantage of M cells

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Salmonella enterica
Polio virus

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34
Q

gamma-delta cells function

A

monitor cells’ stress signals, MIC-A and MIC-B

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35
Q

MIC-A and MIC-B

A

cell stress signals, monitored by gamma-delta cells

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36
Q

special subset of CD8 gamma-delta cells

A

intestinal epithelial lymphocytes (IEL)

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37
Q

2 forms of leprosy

A

tuberculoid
lepramatous - deadly

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38
Q

explain tuberculoid leprosy

A
  • Th1 cells polarized
  • cellular response
  • macrophages activated, fight their own infections
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39
Q

interleukins associated with tuberculoid leprosy

A

IL-2
IFN-y

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40
Q

explain lepramatous leprosy

A
  • Th2 cells polarized
  • humoral response
  • useless IgE is made, which causes inflammatory cells to initiate tissue healing rather than infection fighting
  • infection goes on unchecked
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41
Q

interleukins associated with lepramatous leprosy

A

IL-4
IL-10

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42
Q

3 people who used PCR to discover molecular phylogenies

A

Brock
Mullens
Woese

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43
Q

PCR uses…

A

16s rDNA

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44
Q

sequenced all the 16s rDNA of a community at one time

A

Pace

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45
Q

16s PCR process

A
  • 1500 bp
  • combined with an Amp plasmid
  • plasmids introduced to E. coli & selected
  • gene is sequenced
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46
Q

4 phyla that 90% of human commensals fall into

A

Actinobacteria
Proteobacteria
Firmicutes
Bacteroidetes

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47
Q

Proteobacteria are Gram—

A

Gram negative

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48
Q

Firmicutes are Gram—

A

Gram positive

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49
Q

Actinobacteria are Gram—

A

Gram positive

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50
Q

Bacteroidetes are Gram—

A

Gram negative

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51
Q

obligate anaerobe phylum

A

Bacteroidetes

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52
Q

3 sections of sm int are successively more…

A

more neutral and more colonized

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53
Q

—– cells per gram in small intestine

A

10^5

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54
Q

dominate the small intestine

A

E. faecalis and L. acidophilus

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55
Q

unique bacteria in the small intestine

A

fusiforms

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56
Q

—— cells per gram in large intestine

A

10^11 to 10^12

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57
Q

80% of bacteria in large intestine

A

Bacteroides

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58
Q

human feces only

A

Bacteroides thetaiataomicron

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59
Q

contributes to feces smell

A

butyrate
H2S
methane

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60
Q

reservoir hypothesis

A

microbes in colon recruit Ab resistance genes or toxin genes from transient bacteria and transfer them via HGT to organisms passing out

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61
Q

produces ammonia and changes pH in urethra

A

Proteus

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62
Q

in adult women, —— is produced in the vagina, which is used by …..

A

glycogen
L. acidophilus uses to make lactic acid

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63
Q

pH of vagina

A

4-5

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64
Q

vagina commensals in premenstrual girls/postmenopausal women

A

no glycogen, no Lactobacillus
higher pH
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, E. coli

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65
Q

3 environments of skin

A

moist: nostrils, armpits, belly button

dry: arms, legs, hands, feet

sebaceous: face, scalp, upper chest and back

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66
Q

Moist skin commensals

A

Corynebacterium
Staphylococcus

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67
Q

Dry skin commensals

A

Burkholderia
Corynebacterium

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68
Q

Sebaceous skin commensal

A

Propionibacterium acnes

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69
Q

cause tooth decay

A

Strep mutans
Strep salivarius

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70
Q

Strep polymerize sucrose to —–, helping them stick to teeth

A

dextran
(glycocalyx)

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71
Q

cause gum disease

A

Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Strep intermedius
Fusobacteria
Treponema denticola

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72
Q

Koch’s postulates

A
  1. presence/absence rule
  2. pure culture
  3. pure culture cells cause disease
  4. reisolation
73
Q

established that exposure to pathogen is necessary, but not sufficient

A

H. pylori

74
Q

associated with atherosclerosis, but can be found in healthy tissue, as well as absent in some cases of atherosclerosis

A

Chlamydiophila pneumoniae

75
Q

bacteria exhibiting differentiation

A

Chlamydiophila

76
Q

infectious —— of Chlamydophila waits for the chance to infect a cell

endocytosis causes differentiation into ——–, which…

A

elementary body

reticulate body - reproduces in a vacuole, causing intracellular infection

77
Q

resting/harmless state of Chlamydophila

A

cryptic form

78
Q

fastidious organisms that Koch tried to culture

A

M. tuberculosis – blood and human temp
H. pylori – elevated CO2
Treponema pallidum – rabbit testicles
C. pneumoniae – human cells and elevated CO2

79
Q

Bacillus —— is nonpathogenic

A

subtilis

80
Q

B. anthracis must acquire —– to become pathogenic

A

2 plasmids

81
Q

——- drank H. pylori, got ulcers and recovered

A

Barry Marshall

82
Q

immunohistochemistry

A

antibodies against a potential pathogen are tagged with a colimetric or fluorescent dye

83
Q

explain direct ELISA

A

antigen to well, primary antibody, enzyme - add substrate

84
Q

problem with direct ELISA

A

too many false positives

85
Q

explain indirect ELISA

A

antigen on well, primary antibody, secondary antibody conjugate with enzyme - add substrate

86
Q

preferred ELISA

A

indirect

87
Q

explain sandwich ELISA

A

capture antibody on well, antigen, primary antibody, secondary antibody conjugate with enzyme - add substrate

88
Q

3 types of HIV testing

A

nucleic acid test (NAT)
P24 antigen test
antibody test

89
Q

fifth postulate examples (4)

A

Does elimination of the proposed pathogen eliminate or prevent the disease?

Does antibiotic therapy eliminate the organism and cure the disease? (H. pylori)

Does vaccination against the organism prevent the disease? (HPV/cervical cancer)

Does application of hygiene, disinfection, health practices eliminate the organism and the disease?

90
Q

dysbiosis

A

the normal commensal community undergoes a shift to an unhealthy community, stimulated by the keystone species

91
Q

What is required to get gum disease with P. gingivalis?

A

P. gingivalis AND the commensals

92
Q

mechanism of P. gingivalis gum disease

A

P. gingivalis promotes inflammation through C5a

Normal microbiota expand due to increase in nutrients from lysed bacteria and tissue cells

Bacterial overgrowth results in bone damage

93
Q

dysbiosis requires…

A

a keystone species

94
Q

point mutations cause genetic…

A

drift

95
Q

phase variation

A

changes in the phenotype of a cell during the course of infection

96
Q

phase variation increases the rate of…

A

inversions, deletions and duplications

97
Q

3 types of phase variation

A

promoter inversion
transcriptional blockage
slipped-strand synthesis

98
Q

2 types of HGT

A

tranformation
conjugation

99
Q

2 types of conjugation

A

plasmid
transposon

100
Q

flagellin switching in ——- involves…

A

Salmonella
inversion of a promoter for flagellin

101
Q

switching between flagellin is mediated by…

A

DNA invertase Hin

102
Q

normal flagellin
made under direction of —–

A

H2 (fljB)

103
Q

abnormal flagellin —— is usually prevented by…

A

H1 (fljC)
a repressor coded for by fljA

104
Q

fljB lies between….
which can become….

A

inverted hix repeats which can become loop structures under direction of Hin

105
Q

after fljB inversion, ——- are no longer made

A

repressor and H2

106
Q

intracellular pathogens with no cell walls
urogenital infection with HIV

A

Mycoplasma penetrans

107
Q

M. penetrans strain —- does not express normal P24 surface lipoprotein

A

GTU

108
Q

M. penetrans antigen

A

P24 surface lipoprotein

109
Q

M. penetrans strain —— is wild type and expresses P24

A

HF-2

110
Q

the termination stem loop may be very weak in the —— strain of M. penetrans

A

HF-2

111
Q

genes with what characteristic are vulnerable to strand slippage?

what is the effect?

A

repeated bases or sequences

reading frame shift

112
Q

virulence in B. pertussis is caused by —- gene

A

bvgS

113
Q

bvgS contains a sequence of ——, meaning it undergoes —— mutations

A

GC pairs
frameshift

114
Q

effect of strand slippage in B. pertussis

A

The virulent phenotype can easily undergo an insertion and become harmless; likewise the harmless phenotype can undergo mutation and become harmful again

115
Q

Neisseria’s —- genes allow it to adhere to and invade tissue

A

opa

116
Q

N. meningitidis has —— opa genes
N. gonorrhoeae has —– opa genes

A

3-4
8-13

117
Q

each opa gene has ——– sequences just after the start codon

A

5 CTCTT

118
Q

as a result of the sequence after the opa start codon, there are —– versions of Opa proteins expressed in Neisseria

A

13

119
Q

lipooligosaccharide

A

in Neisseria
variant of LPS without the O-polysaccharides

120
Q

Different variants of LOS result from slipped-strand synthesis activation & deactivation of enzymes ——- and ——-

A

glycosyltransferase
siayltransferase

121
Q

wild type LOS variant
mutation variants

A

A is wild type
B-F are mutation types

122
Q

involves enhanced rates of recombination to create new versions of genes

irreversible

A

antigenic variation

123
Q

——- active gene(s) and ——- silent gene(s) for N. gonorrhoeae pili

A

1 pilE gene
20 silent pilS genes

124
Q

regions at the end of pilE/S genes provides the stretch of similarity needed for homologous recombination

A

Sma/Cla

125
Q

2 reasons we don’t have a gonorrhea vaccine

A

antigenic variation in pili
different Opa proteins

126
Q

define transformation

A

a cell is lysed, releasing fragments of DNA, which are taken up by other cells and incorporated into the genome

127
Q

define conjugation

A

one cell has the genes for conjugation (usually on a plasmid) and makes a pilus, which allows it to donate plasmids or parts of chromosomes

128
Q

define transduction

A

donor cell is killed by a viral infection, and the viruses package up host DNA, which it then deposits in the next cell

129
Q

first HGT evidence

A

Griffith’s experiment

130
Q

“transforming principle”

A

Griffith said something in the dead S cells was changing R cells into S cells

131
Q

who used —— to determine that DNA was being exchanged from S to R?

A

Avery, MacLeod and McCarty used DNase to determine that DNA was being exchanged from dead S to live R

132
Q

intergenic recombination

A

pieces of DNA are passed between cells naturally

133
Q

can take up chromosomal DNA

A

naturally competent

134
Q

naturally competent genera (8)

A

Haemophilus
Neisseria
Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Streptococcus
Legionella
Bacillus
Aggregatibacter

135
Q

when does competence occur?

A

end of log/trogophase and beginning of stationary/idiophase

136
Q

sequences that serve as point of recombination throughout the chromosomes

A

DNA uptake sequence (DUS)

137
Q

naturally competent bacteria have surface receptor that recognize…

A

DUSs

138
Q

—– and —– are promiscuous competent bacteria

A

Bacillus
Streptococcus

139
Q

machinery for GP DNA uptake:
pilus type
3 proteins
nucleic acid

A

Type IV-like pseudopilus
ComEA receives DNA
EndA degrades one strand
ssDNA enters through ComEC
invading strand replaces degraded strand

140
Q

machinery for GN DNA uptake:
pilus type
3 proteins

A

Type IV pilE pilus
retraction through pilQ
ComEA receives DNA
ssDNA enters through ComEC

141
Q

in conjugation, plasmid is cut at —- and unwound by ——

A

oriT
relaxase

142
Q

plasmids undergo ——- replication during conjugation

A

rolling circle

143
Q

conjugative transposition relies on the —– system

A

type IV secretion system

144
Q

conjugation genes

A

tra

145
Q

tra is used to make…

A

relaxase and pili

146
Q

organism that transfers antibiotic production on plasmids

A

Streptomyces

147
Q

have inverted and direct repeats at the ends
enhances recombination frequency

A

insertion sequences

148
Q

IS carries —– gene for a ——-

A

tnp
transposase

149
Q

enzyme facilitating transposition
coded for on…

A

transposase
IS

150
Q

larger regions, with a payload region and an IS on either end

A

transposons

151
Q

cause a huge mutation and phenotype change

A

transposon

152
Q

rare type of transposon that can carry its own tra genes and potentially virulence genes

A

conjugative transposon

153
Q

the scariest transposon

A

conjugative transposon

154
Q

explain lytic infection
2 enzymes

A

DNase destroys host chromosome
last enzyme is lysozyme, which breaks peptidoglycan layer and releases new viruses

155
Q

explain lysogenic infection

A

phage DNA inserted into host DNA

156
Q

prophage

A

phage DNA inserted into host DNA

157
Q

when prophage is inserted, cell is —-

A

immune to new infection

158
Q

phage conversion

A

prophage causes cell to produce toxins

159
Q

phase conversion of E. coli

A

lambda virus - becomes immune to further infection

160
Q

phase conversion of C. diphtheriae

A

beta virus - produces diphtheria toxin

161
Q

phase conversion of S. pyogenes

A

epsilon virus - produces scarlet fever toxin

162
Q

how is specialized transduction different from generalized?

A

Prophage inserts at a very specific site
Virus may reliably take a virulence gene with it when it takes the host DNA by mistake

163
Q

example of specialized transduction

A

lambda virus inserts in E. coli’s genome near gal genes for galactose utilization

Recipient of this new virus can switch from gal- to gal+

164
Q

Koch’s HATERS

A

Theodor Billroth
Max von Pettenkofer
Rudolph Virchow

165
Q

believed diseased cells only arose from diseased cells

A

Virchow

166
Q

had 3 rules similar to Koch’s postulates, but failed to develop pure culture technique

A

Edwin Klebs

167
Q

Koch’s first successful demonstration of postulates

A

tuberculosis in guinea pigs

168
Q

also published a paper with similar 3 postulates to Koch’s; worked with Koch

A

Loeffler

169
Q

cholera animal model

A

rabbit ligated ileal loop assay

170
Q

obligate intracellular parasites that lack animal models

A

rickettsia
chlamydia

171
Q

somnicells

A

when stressed, they become dormant and cannot be cultured

172
Q

examples of somnicells

A

L. pneumophila
V. cholerae
H. pylori

173
Q

authors of article did an experiment demonstrating that..

A

E. coli can form somnicells, and then be recovered from seawater

174
Q

Acquisition of type III secretion protein by S. bongori

A

HGT of a PAI

175
Q

Acquisition of toxin and capsule genes by Bacillus anthracis

A

conjugative plasmids

176
Q

When bacterial DNA is inserted into the chromosome of a bacterium with the help of a virus the resulting cell is called a

A

transductant

177
Q

When viral DNA is inserted into the chromosome of a bacterium the resulting cell is called a

A

lysogen

178
Q

The demonstration that DNA is the transforming principle by Avery et al. using DNase to prevent transformation is analogous to which postulate?

A

5th