Domain 1 Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A client has persistent pitting edema of the hand secondary to mild hemiplegia. Which method would be MOST RELIABLE for monitoring the client’s edema over time?

A) measure the hand circumference at the MCP joint level
B) use a volumeter to measure water displacement
C) trace an outline of the hand & fingers placed flat on a tabletop

A

B

  • Volumetric measurement procedures are standardized and would produce the most reliable results when measuring hand edema in clients with this diagnosis
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2
Q

An OTR working in an inpatient mental health setting is using a cognitive behavioral approach to select an intervention activity for a young adult undergoing treatment for symptoms associated with body dysmorphic disorder. The patient is employed in a successful career and enjoys outdoor activities such as jogging and hiking, but has difficulty forming and maintaining interpersonal relationships. One of the patient’s goals is to improve self-image and the ability to express feelings. Which activity would be MOST BENEFICIAL to include as part of the intervention for supporting this goal when using this approach?

A) Engaging the patient in an art project using a variety of media during which the patient is encouraged to release emotions

B) Teaching the patient to use a dysfunctional thought record for describing distressing situations and emotional responses

C) Guiding the patient through avocational exploration of activities that provide opportunities for social interaction

A

B

  • Having the client maintain a journal of distressing events and associated feelings or thought processes is integral to a cognitive behavioral approach.
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3
Q

An OTR is using a top-down approach to select interventions for a client who has unilateral neglect secondary to a CVA. Which intervention would be MOST BENEFICIAL to include as part of the client’s intervention when using this approach?

A) Place commonly used toiletry items to the client’s affected side during self-care tasks.

B) Teach drills for practicing head turning to find an object placed near the affected side.

C) Determine compensatory options the client can use in the home environment.

D) Use tactile-kinesthetic guiding to the client’s involved extremity during a dressing task.

A

C

  • This represents a top-down approach because it focuses on a strategy the client can use in everyday life.
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4
Q

For a typically developing child, which postural reflex becomes evident between 6-9 months of age and continues throughout life?

A) Forward protective extension

B) Tonic labyrinthine

C) Asymmetrical tonic neck

D) Head righting

A

A

  • Forward protective extension is a postural reflex that typically becomes evident between 6-9 months of age and continues throughout life
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5
Q

A student in the second grade has autism spectrum disorder and is scheduled to begin school-based OT. The teacher reports the student has difficulty attending to academic tasks and typically has outbursts when in close proximity to other people. In which environment should the majority of the student’s intervention sessions take place?

A) Self-contained occupational therapy treatment room

B) Classroom during routine curriculum-based activities

C) Playground in an area apart from other students

A

B

  • OT goals and objectives in school-based settings support students’ academic and functional abilities. Providing services in the natural classroom environment during typical routines would increase the likelihood for carry-over and consistency.
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6
Q

A client sustained a closed fracture of the humeral shaft 6 weeks ago. The physician refers the client to OT with a consult that reads: “Begin elbow and shoulder ROM”. An initial screening of the affected upper extremity indicates the client has elbow and shoulder stiffness and mild swelling of the hand. The client has full active flexion and full passive extension and flexion of the wrist and digits. Active extension of the wrist and digits is absent. What INITIAL action should the OTR take based on these findings?

A) Fabricate a dynamic orthotic to compensate for loss of finger extension.

B) Complete a comprehensive manual muscle test of the affected upper extremity.

C) Confirm whether the client has a secondary radial nerve injury.

A

C

*The radial nerve is commonly injured with a fracture of the humerus. This results in weak or absent wrist and finger extensors. The OTR should contact the physician to confirm this diagnosis and to clarify the consult before proceeding with rehabilitation for the hand.

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7
Q

An OTR who works in an elementary school is preparing to evaluate a student in fifth grade who has a learning disability and ADHD. Which standardized assessments would be MOST EFFECTIVE for the OTR to include as part of the evaluation process?

A) Wee-FIM™ and Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function-Revised™

B) Hawaii Early Learning Profile (HELP) and Barthel Index of ADL

C) Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT) and Evaluation Tool of Children’s Handwriting (ETCH)

A

C

  • These assessment tools are used to measure skills and abilities that are associated with school-related occupational performance.
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8
Q

A 2-year-old child has developmental delay due to mild spastic cerebral palsy. The child has mastered four-point positioning. Which movement component should the OTR plan to facilitate NEXT?

A) Scooting on the belly
B) Creeping on hands and knees
C) Rocking on hands and knees
D) Unsupported upright sitting

A

C

*In the developmental sequence of gross motor development and mobility skills, a child who has mastered four-point positioning would be expected to progress to rocking on hands and knees NEXT.

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9
Q

An OTR is working with a 5-year-old child who has severe spastic diplegic cerebral palsy and will soon be attending kindergarten. The child has been approved for a power wheelchair. Before beginning training in the use of the chair in a school setting, which client factor is MOST IMPORTANT for the OTR to re-evaluate?
A) Visual perceptual skills
B) Upper extremity range of motion
C) Object permanence

A

A

*Cerebral palsy is associated with visual impairments that need to be screened prior to initiating power mobility training.

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10
Q

An OTR, who works in the home health setting, is evaluating a client with pneumonia who was recently discharged home from the hospital. The OTR plans to interview the client and administer a standardized assessment to gather information about the client and the home environment. Which additional evaluation method is MOST BENEFICIAL for the OTR to include in the information-gathering process to understand the client’s priorities?
A) Complete a comprehensive social participation inventory.
B) Measure spaces and features in the natural environment.
C) Conduct skilled observations while in the client’s home.

A

C

*Observing while the client engages in functional tasks in the natural context of the home will provide the MOST BENEFICIAL information related to the client’s priorities in this environment.

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11
Q

A 2-year-old toddler, who has a developmental delay, recently learned to release a 2-inch (5.08 cm) ball into a large toy box. What fine motor skill should the OTR work on NEXT?
A) Color within the lines on a page.
B) Complete a 3- to 4-piece puzzle.
C) Transfer toys from hand to hand.

A

B

  • In the development of play occupations, a child who is able to release an object into a toy box would NEXT be expected to be able to put together a 3- to 4-piece puzzle.
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12
Q

An OTR is evaluating a client who has an ulnar nerve injury at the wrist level of the right dominant extremity. During which task would this injury be MOST evident?
A) Carrying a briefcase
B) Operating a desktop calculator
C) Turning a key in the car ignition
D) Holding coins in the palm of the hand

A

C

*Ulnar nerve palsy at the wrist impairs the hypothenar muscles and first dorsal interosseous muscle resulting in the difficulty turning a key or performing a lateral pinch

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13
Q

What critical functional advantage is TYPICALLY observed in a client who has a complete C6 spinal cord injury compared to a client who has a complete C5 spinal cord injury?
A) Ability to use triceps strength during transfers
B) Improved trunk control to bend side to side without falling
C) Ability to use the radial wrist extensors to supplement grasp
D) Improved gross grasp from innervation of the extrinsic flexors

A

C

*Clients who have a complete C6 spinal cord injury TYPICALLY have innervation of the radial wrist extensors. This allows the use of a tenodesis grasp to attain a higher level of functional independence.

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14
Q

An OTR is evaluating an inpatient diagnosed with a glioblastoma multiform in the right frontal lobe. The patient has an extensive fund of knowledge and intact long-term memory, but does not understand the meaning of a joke when engaged in social conversation with family members. Which option BEST describes this behavior?
A) Confabulation
B) Concrete thinking
C) Flight of ideas

A

B

*A client who exhibits concrete thinking interprets events and communication in a literal fashion making it difficult to understand the underpinnings of a joke.

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15
Q

A client in an outpatient setting sustained an acquired brain injury 2 months ago. Evaluation results indicate the client has functional ROM and strength, but continues to require assistance with ADL due to moderate visual and vestibular processing deficits. Which intervention represents an adaptive approach for improving the client’s performance in areas of occupation?
A) Providing the client with an exercise program for improving gaze stabilization
B) Teaching the client to use proprioceptive cues during functional activities
C) Incorporating progressively more challenging tasks into a functional activity
D) Engaging the client in valued activities that promote postural stability and balance

A

B

*The adaptive approach places emphasis on the client’s abilities. This top-down approach aims to facilitate functional performance through compensatory techniques.

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16
Q

Which of the following symptoms TYPICALLY indicates that a client who has been on prolonged bed rest is experiencing orthostatic hypotension?
A) Pounding headache upon moving into a semi-reclined position
B) Lightheadedness upon moving from a supine to seated position
C) Shortness of breath when sitting up from a supine position
D) Diaphoresis when turning over from supine to side-lying position

A

B

*Orthostatic hypotension is a decrease in blood pressure that reduces blood flow to the brain and results in lightheadedness.

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17
Q

Which dressing task requires the MOST challenging integration of performance skills and patterns for a typically developing 3-year-old child?
A) Unfastening the zipper of a front-opening jacket
B) Finding armholes in a pull-over shirt
C) Taking off a pair of ankle-high socks
D) Pulling down a pair of elastic waist pants

A

A

  • This skill requires a complex integration of visual and somatosensory systems that typically develops by the third year of age
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18
Q

An OTR is evaluating the visual function of a patient who is emerging from coma. The patient opens eyes spontaneously and in response to auditory stimulation. What visual function is MOST IMPORTANT for the OTR to observe in a patient at this level of function?
A) Oculomotor control
B) Scanning
C) Pattern recognition

A

A

  • It is beneficial to assess basic visual skills such as oculomotor control when a patient is emerging from coma.
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19
Q

A client in an outpatient setting sustained a frontal lobe TBI 2 months ago. The client has good motor control but has residual problems with executive functioning. One of the client’s goals is to be independent with homemaking tasks. During a meal preparation session, the client cooks a meal, but makes no attempt to clean the cooking utensils and dishes or put the food items away after completing the cooking task. Which area of executive function appears to be MOST affected by the TBI as evidenced by this behavior?
A) Emergent awareness
B) Selective attention
C) Episodic memory
D) Environmental gnosia

A

A

*Deficits in emergent awareness are characterized by difficulty or inability to recognize and correct errors in performance.

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20
Q

An older adult in an inpatient setting has moderate-severe debilitation from prolonged bed rest secondary to general medical-surgical post-operative complications. The patient’s primary goal is to be as independent as possible with BADL prior to discharge home. The patient has full passive ROM and Fair minus (3-/5) functional muscle strength of the upper extremities. The patient can ambulate for several feet using a walker and contact guard assistance, but uses a wheelchair in the hospital room and depends on caregivers for wheelchair transport to various areas of the hospital. Based on the patient’s current status, which dressing activity would be MOST difficult for this patient to complete while seated in the wheelchair?
A) Getting a pair of pants hanging in the closet and putting them on
B) Putting on a front-opening shirt after reaching for the shirt off a bedside stand
C) Crossing one leg over the other and putting on loose-fitting slip-on shoes
D) Washing hands at a sink and drying the hands using a towel placed next to the sink

A

A

  • Patients with this muscle strength have low endurance and fatigue quickly. An analysis of the components (e.g., weight shift, dynamic balance, movement against gravity) of each option presented indicates this option is physically more demanding than the other three options.
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21
Q

An OTR is developing an intervention plan for an inpatient who has severe post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Symptoms of PTSD started several weeks after the patient was robbed in a convenience store where the patient was working. The patient’s goal is to resume work at the store, but extreme fear and distrust interfere with the ability to interact with customers. Which environment is MOST conducive for promoting initial progress toward a return-to-work goal with this patient?
A) One-on-one in the patient’s hospital room
B) Discussion group with several other patients
C) During a role-play session in the therapy room

A

A

*One-on-one intervention sessions in the patient’s room would be most conducive for promoting initial progress toward the goals. As progress is made, session contexts should be graded to reflect real-life situations.

22
Q

An OTR has completed an initial neuromotor assessment of a 4-year-old child who has moderate athetoid cerebral palsy. Results indicate persistent primitive reflexes and decreased oral motor control interfere with feeding and functional communication. The parents want the child to be able to self-feed, eat family meals and communicate with others. What additional information is MOST IMPORTANT for the OTR to collect prior to developing the intervention plan?
A) Contextual features that support the child’s typical participation in occupation
B) Early intervention programs available for supporting the child’s academic readiness
C) Medical reports that include the child’s past medical history and developmental prognosis

A

A

*An understanding of the contexts that impact a child’s performance is critical to effective intervention planning.

23
Q

An OTR is assessing the reflexes of a 4-month-old infant. The OTR places the infant in a sitting position and encourages the infant to actively flex the neck forward to look at an object held near the infant’s chest. Which of the following responses to this movement indicates the presence of the symmetrical tonic neck reflex?
A) Flexion in both the upper and lower extremities
B) Flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities
C) Flexion of the lower extremities and extension of the upper extremities

A

B

*This movement pattern indicates the presence of the symmetrical tonic neck reflex (STNR).

24
Q

A young adult client sustained transfemoral amputations to both legs after a recent accident. The OTR is gathering information to identify the client’s priorities and personal goals regarding engagement in daily activities. Which standardized assessment tool would be MOST BENEFICIAL to use for obtaining this information?
A) Functional Independence Measure (FIM™)
B) Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills (KELS)
C) Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM)

A

C

  • This assessment tool fosters collaboration between the client and the OTR and enables the development of a meaningful client-centered intervention plan. The tool can be used to measure change in a client’s self-perception of occupational performance over time.
25
Q

A client has constructional disorder secondary to an excision of a brain tumor. One of the client’s goals is to resume work in a garden center. During which of the following gardening activities would this deficit be MOST evident?
A) Determining how much water to use when watering plants
B) Duplicating garden designs based on a magazine picture
C) Distinguishing between weeds and flowers in a garden bed
D) Placing seeds in small containers filled with potting soil

A

B

*Constructional disorder is characterized by difficulty or inability to assemble separate parts to build an end-product.

26
Q

During the administration of a standardized assessment, a client demonstrates difficulty initiating a motor task. What action MUST the OTR take to obtain accurate results from this assessment tool?
A) Modify the instructions to enhance clarity
B) Follow the test protocol for giving additional directions
C) Provide prompts and tactile cues, as needed

A

B

  • When administering a standardized assessment, the OTR must follow the uniform administration procedures outlined in the test manual to obtain valid and reliable results.
27
Q

An OTR is developing an intervention plan using a bottom-up approach for clients who have hemiplegia and hemi-neglect secondary to having a CVA more than one year ago. Which of the following intervention techniques has evidence supporting its efficacy for reducing the effects of “learned non-use” through cortical reorganization?
A) Occupational adaptation (OA)
B) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
C) Constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT)

A

C

  • This is an evidence-based functional approach for promoting use of a hemiparetic upper extremity.
28
Q

Which option represents the MOST EFFECTIVE method to screen an 8-month-old infant for neck-on-body automatic righting reaction?
A) Place the child in a supine position and observe body movements while rotating the child’s head to one side and then to the other.
B) Place the child in a sitting position and observe for arm extension while gently pushing the child off balance to the front, back, and each side.
C) Hold the child in vertical suspension and observe head position while gently tilting the child from side to side then from front to back.

A

A

  • This method describes the stimulus, response and reaction associated with testing for neck-on-body automatic righting reaction.
29
Q

An OTR is evaluating an inpatient who recently had a severe TBI and is emerging from coma. The patient is functioning at a Level III (Localized response) on the Rancho Los Amigos scale. Which is the FIRST cognitive function the OTR should assess?
A) Ability to learn new information
B) Level of arousal
C) Orientation to place and time

A

B

  • A component of the evaluation for a patient who is functioning at a Level III (Localized response) on the Rancho Los Amigos scale is to screen the patient’s level of arousal and alertness.
30
Q

Which activity involves the use of a closed kinetic chain movement of the upper extremity?
A) Hand-to-mouth patterns used for self-feeding
B) Pulling up on an overhead trapeze during bed mobility
C) Lifting a suitcase off the floor to carry by the handle

A

B

  • This closed kinetic chain movement includes the distal upper extremity being stabilized and in constant contact with the trapeze.
31
Q

A 5-year-old child has mild developmental delay. Motor and praxis skills are intact. Which action would be BEST to observe when screening emotional regulation skills?
A) Sharing toys during unstructured play
B) Responding to the feelings of others
C) Taking turns while playing a board game

A

B

  • Emotional self-regulation is BEST observed during a situation where the child is responding to the feelings of others.
32
Q

An OTR who works in a community mental health program is preparing to evaluate a 15-year-old client who has bulimia nervosa and frequently engages in self-injurious behaviors by superficially cutting the skin. Which standardized assessments would be MOST EFFECTIVE for the OTR to include as part of the evaluation process?
A) Numeric Pain Rating Scale and Sensory Integration and Praxis Test
B) Sensory Profile and Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function-Revised™
C) Piers Harris Children’s Self Concept Scale and Adolescent Role Assessment

A

C

  • The Piers Harris Children’s Self Concept Scale and the Adolescent Role Assessment are the most effective assessment tools to use to evaluate self-concept and role development in this adolescent client who has psychosocial dysfunction.
33
Q

An inpatient in a rehabilitation setting sustained a C7 spinal cord injury 2 months ago. One of the patient’s goals is to be able to prepare family meals when discharged home. What INITIAL action should the OTR complete to support the patient’s success with this goal?
A) Provide the patient with assistive devices to use in the kitchen.
B) Identify the patient’s typical mealtime routines and habits.
C) Observe current physical skills and abilities during a typical kitchen task.

A

B

  • An integral part of developing a client-centered intervention plan is to learn about the client’s typical mealtime routines and habits.
34
Q

An OTR working in an outpatient setting is completing an initial interview with an older adult client who has recently been diagnosed with a progressive neurological disease. What method should the OTR use during the course of the interview to communicate effective listening and client-centered understanding?
A) Offer suggestions as the client discloses concerns and problems.
B) Use head gestures to indicate empathy and understanding.
C) Provide examples of how other clients have overcome similar adversity.
D) Share examples of adaptations that help to overcome adversity.

A

D

  • The OTR is demonstrating client-centered practice by using active listening skills and encouraging the client to continue to participate in the discussion.
35
Q

An OTR and a vocational rehabilitation team are using the Individual Placement and Support (IPS) model to support a client, who has schizophrenia and anxiety, in gaining employment. One of the intervention goals is for the client to achieve competitive employment. When using the IPS model, which approach should be included in the vocational intervention to support this goal?
A) Complete a detailed resume of job skills, then teach the client effective work behaviors.
B) Secure a job placement site, then teach the client the specific job skills for that workplace.
C) Provide education in general work behaviors, then conduct an extensive job search.

A

B

  • The Individual Placement and Support (IPS) model is a supportive employment approach that involves securing a job placement site, then teaching the client the specific job skills for that workplace.
36
Q

A student who is 8-years-old has severe diplegia and is non-ambulatory. The student is referred to OT after the family relocates to a new school district. Which area of occupation should be a priority for the school-based OTR to assess during the INITIAL evaluation?
A) Perceptual abilities for copying from the classroom lesson board
B) Prehensile skills for manipulating eating utensils during lunchtime
C) Motor skills for managing clothing during toilet transfers

A

C

  • A student with spastic diplegia typically has motor involvement of the lower extremity that may influence ability to manage clothing during toilet transfers.
37
Q

An OTR is administering the Functional Independence Measure (FIM™) as part of the initial evaluation of an inpatient who had a left CVA with aphasia 5 days ago. The patient has right hemiparesis and requires moderate assistance to maintain balance while standing. What action should the OTR take when completing this assessment?
A) Provide the patient with visual and tactile cues to sequence each step of the task.
B) Introduce a reacher and other adaptive equipment to maximize patient’s level of performance.
C) Observe as the patient performs ADL routines with the typical methods used prior to admission.

A

C

  • Administration of the Functional Independence Measure (FIM™) includes assessing the patient’s complete ADL routines with the typical methods used prior to admission.
38
Q

An OTR is a contributing investigator for a unit-wide research project. The focus of the project is to determine if participation in rehabilitation is beneficial to a client’s health, well-being, and general quality of life. Which standardized assessment should the OTR use for gathering the MOST RELIABLE evidence for this study?
A) Barthel Index of ADL (BI)
B) Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills (KELS)
C) Short Form-36 Health Survey (SF-36)

A

C

  • This is a survey used as a measure of general health and well-being. It has been used in medical outcomes studies and is sensitive to change in health status.
39
Q

An inpatient had a myocardial infarction 2 days ago and is beginning phase I cardiac rehabilitation. Which activity is an ESSENTIAL component of the initial assessment with this patient?
A) Measuring the patient’s upper extremity grip and pinch strength
B) Determining the patient’s typical daily energy expenditure
C) Monitoring the patient’s orthostatic tolerance during movement

A

C

  • For the safety of the patient, the patient’s physiologic response to activity must be monitored during this early phase of cardiac rehabilitation.
40
Q

A patient in a skilled nursing facility had a CVA one week ago. An initial screening indicates the patient has hemiplegia, ambulates using a quad cane and has good memory. Nursing staff report the patient consistently has difficulty finding the way from the dayroom to the dining room. What type of assessment should be included as part of the initial evaluation to determine the underlying neurobehavioral problem associated with this difficulty?
A) Attention and depth perception subtests from a standardized cognitive assessment
B) Functional assessment of topographical orientation and visual perception
C) Cognitive-behavioral assessment of executive function during a familiar ADL task

A

B

  • Since the patient has intact memory, the behavior suggests topographical disorientation. The test for this is typically a functional test. Contributing visual perceptual deficits should also be considered.
41
Q

A client has a peripheral neuropathy of the dominant hand. A screening indicates thenar muscle atrophy with loss of thumb opposition and palmar abduction, inability to pick up a key or coin from a table top, and decreased grip and pinch strength compared to the non-affected hand. Based on these findings, where on the client’s hand would an OTR expect to find sensory disturbances during a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament assessment?
A) Volar and dorsal surfaces of the small finger and radial half of the ring finger
B) Entire palm and tips of the index, long, ring, and small fingers
C) Volar surface of the thumb, index, long, and radial half of the ring fingers

A

C

  • The client’s clinical symptoms are indicative of a median nerve injury. Sensory distribution for the median nerve is to the volar surface of the thumb, index, long, and radial half of the ring fingers.
42
Q

A client who has schizophrenia is participating in OT to improve functional living skills. The client’s goal is to be able to independently prepare family meals. The client has successfully used a checklist strategy to gather and keep track of items while preparing a simple cold snack. Which of the following tasks would present a “just right” challenge when using the checklist strategy to progress towards the client’s goal?
A) Purchasing groceries for a pre-set weekly menu
B) Setting the dining table for a group meal
C) Cooking a three-course meal for the family

A

B

  • Results from an analysis of the task the client has mastered (gathering and keeping track of items while preparing a simple cold snack) and the task of setting the table for a group meal demonstrates that the tasks have similar demands. To successfully implement the checklist strategy during meal preparation, the client will benefit from using it across multiple task components and contexts.
43
Q

An inpatient in a rehabilitation facility has hemiplegia secondary to a CVA. The patient is independent with BADL. The OTR, who uses the ecology of human performance model, is preparing the patient’s discharge summary. What information reflects this approach and should be included as part of this report?
A) Current functional status and anticipated occupational performance upon return home
B) Support groups for promoting the patient’s acceptance of the physical impairments
C) Exercise protocols for maintaining physical strength and cardiovascular endurance
D) Recommendations for home modifications to maximize accessibility and task performance

A

D

*The ecology of human performance approach considers the interaction between the context or the environment and the person

44
Q

Which of the following options represent a condition that requires close monitoring of a client’s wound due to having the GREATEST risk for infection?
A) Vascular ulcer left uncovered during healing
B) Abdominal surgical wound left open to heal
C) Traumatic laceration immediately closed with clips for healing

A

B

  • A surgeon may leave a deep wound open to heal through the granulation process. This type of wound requires skilled wound care and close monitoring due to the risk of infection.
45
Q

An OTR is providing consultative services at an assisted living facility. Facility administrators are concerned that some residents may be at risk for falls. Using a primary prevention model, what INITIAL recommendation should the OTR make to the management of the facility?
A) Analysis of resident injuries that have occurred at the facility over the past 5 years
B) Ongoing monitoring and observation of the residents to decrease liability
C) Screening of all residents prior to determining needs of the facility

A

C

  • The primary prevention model focuses on anticipating potential circumstances or conditions that threaten the function or well-being of healthy individuals and developing an associated prevention plan.
46
Q

A high-school student with autism spectrum disorder excels academically but has difficulty organizing assignments and homework. The OTR plans to evaluate the student’s relative strengths and weaknesses to guide intervention planning. One of the student’s goals is to learn an organization system. Which of the following is the BEST assessment for this purpose?
A) Executive Function Performance Test (EFPT)
B) Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function (BRIEF)
C) Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM)

A

B

  • The objective of the Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function (BRIEF) is to evaluate self-regulation and executive function in adolescents who have neurological or developmental conditions.
47
Q

An OTR completed an initial assessment of a student in the second grade. Results indicate the student has age-appropriate comprehension, visual object gnosia, and visual acuity, but standardized test scores on figure-ground subtests are well below the norm. Which of the following school art class activities would present the MOST challenge to this student based on the outcomes of this evaluation?
A) Using plastic templates to trace basic geometric shapes on colored paper
B) Selecting a round bead from a bag of multi-shaped beads to complete a necklace
C) Placing tiles of the same color and shape in a straight line when making a trivet
D) Painting a free form design on a clay pot using a variety of paint colors

A

B

  • Figure-ground perception is the ability to distinguish foreground from background. A student who has figure-ground deficits would have difficulty finding a bead of a specific size or shape in a bag of beads.
48
Q

An OTR working in an inpatient rehabilitation facility is scheduled to complete an initial grooming and hygiene assessment with a patient. The patient has mild hemiplegia and neurobehavioral deficits secondary to a CVA one week ago. Which area of the facility should the assessment take place in order to obtain the MOST BENEFICIAL information about the impact of these symptoms on the patient’s occupational performance?
A) Bedside in the patient’s hospital room
B) Simulated environment in the OT clinic
C) Bathroom in the patient’s hospital room

A

C

  • The assessment should take place in the environment where the patient will typically complete this task. While an inpatient, this task would take place in the bathroom of the patient’s room.
49
Q

An inpatient in a rehabilitation facility has a C6 tetraplegia with a rating of “A” on the ASIA impairment scale. The patient has achieved BADL goals and now wants to be as independent as possible with homemaking tasks. Which intervention approach would be effective to use as the PRIMARY strategy for promoting progress toward the patient’s goal?
A) Behavioral
B) Biomechanical
C) Compensatory
D) Remedial

A

C

  • Using this approach allows the patient to learn adaptive strategies, reestablish routines, and learn to function in a variety of contexts.
50
Q

A client in an outpatient setting has early relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. The client lives at home with a spouse and two adolescent children. The client wants to remain independent with homemaking tasks, but finds these daily routines are physically exhausting. What INITIAL action should the OTR take to acquire more information related to the client’s priorities?
A) Complete a client-centered occupational profile.
B) Collaborate with the family regarding typical occupational roles.
C) Administer standardized assessments of client factors.

A

A

  • Completing an occupational profile as part of the INITIAL action provides the OTR information about the client’s priorities. This leads to a more individualized approach to evaluation and intervention planning.