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PCE > Variadas 3 > Flashcards

Variadas 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Morning stiffness is less than 1 hour and is better with movement.
OA or RA?

A

OA

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2
Q

Raio x finding:

hyperinflation of the lungs, the increased anterior-posterior diameter of the lungs, dorsal kyphosis, and a flattened diaphragm.
What’s the condition?

A

COPD

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3
Q

PT wants to prescribe a orthotic correction for her right flexible pronated foot. Which of the following is the best choice for correcting the biomechanical faults?

A) Heel cushion
B) Curved Last of shoe
C) Varus post
D) Valgus post

A

C- varus post

Since patient is having a flexible pronated foot, a medical wedge or varus post will work best to prevent or correct the deformity.

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4
Q

FEV1 /FVC ratio < 70% has an obstructive or restrictive pulmonary disease ?

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease

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5
Q

FEV1 /FVC ratio >70% has an obstructive or restrictive pulmonary disease?

A

Restrictive pulmonary disease

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6
Q

Pt demonstrate signs/symptoms of both right-sided and left-sided congestive heart failure.

What type of Congestive heart failure is this? right-side, left-side or biventricular?

A

Biventricular

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7
Q

A patient demonstrate peripheral signs/symptoms such as jugular venous distention and peripheral edema.

What type of Congestive heart failure is this? right-side, left-side or biventricular?

A

right-sided congestive heart failure

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8
Q

Cor pulmonale is presented in What type of Congestive heart failure? right-side, left-side or biventricular

A

Cor pulmonale is right ventricular dysfunction.

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9
Q

A patient demonstrate pulmonary signs/symptoms such as shortness of breath and cough.

What type of Congestive heart failure is this? right-side, left-side or biventricular?

A

Left side

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10
Q

Which technique is used for hypoxemia, tachypnea, atelectasis, anxiety, and excessive pulmonary secretions?

1-Inspiratory hold technique
2- Pursed is breathing
3- Butterfly techniques
4-Diaphragmatic breathing

A

4-Diaphragmatic breathing

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11
Q

It is used for hypoventilation, atelectasis, and ineffective cough.

1-Inspiratory hold technique
2- Pursed is breathing
3- Butterfly techniques
4-Diaphragmatic breathing

A

Inspiratory hold technique

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12
Q

It is used for dyspnea at rest and or with exertion and wheezing.

1-Inspiratory hold technique
2- Pursed liped breathing
3- Butterfly techniques
4-Diaphragmatic breathing

A

Pursed liped breathing

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13
Q

It is used for impaired chest mobility, hypoventilation, impaired trunk muscle performance or tightness, and ineffective cough.

1-Inspiratory hold technique
2- Pursed liped breathing
3- Butterfly techniques
4-Diaphragmatic breathing

A

Butterfly techniques

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14
Q

no intention of making any changes within the next 6 months.

Precontemplation or contemplation?

A

Precontemplation

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15
Q

intend to make changes within the next 6 months.

Preparation or contemplation?

A

Contemplation

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16
Q

Pt has begun to take steps toward making the desired change in behavior and plans to make the changes within the next 30 days.

Preparation or Action?

A

Preparation

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17
Q

Pt has changed the behavior for less than 6 months.

Action or Maintenance?

A

Action

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18
Q

Pt has changed the behavior for more than 6 months
Maintenance or action?

A

Maintenance

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19
Q

describe forward head posture…

A

Increased flexion of lower cervical and upper thoracic regions,

extension of upper cervical spine along with extension of occiput on C1

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20
Q

What needs to be stretched on a forward head posture?

A

Stretching of lower cervical flexors and upper cervical extensors

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of fibromyalgia?

A) Tender points at specific sites

B) Fatigue with diminished exercise tolerance

C) Tight band of muscle

D) Sleep disturbances

A

C

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22
Q

Trigger points in muscles

FIBROMYALGIA or MYOFASIAL PAIN SYNDROME?

A

Myofasial

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23
Q

NO referred pain seen

FIBROMYALGIA vs MYOFASIAL PAIN SYNDROME?

A

Fibromialgia

24
Q

Tight bands of muscles seen

FIBROMYALGIA vs MYOFASIAL PAIN SYNDROME

A

Myofasial

25
Q

Muscles active during quiet breathing in upright healthy individuals

A

Diaphragm

• Scalenes

• Parastemal intercostals

26
Q

Muscles recruited when ventilation demands increase

A

• SCM

• Upper trapezius

• External
Intercostals

• Pectoralis
Minor

27
Q

Thermal Effects - Tissue depth 1-2 cm

Frenquencia:
Duty cycle:
Intensity:
Duration:

A

Frequency: 3 MHZ
Duty cycle: 100% (Continuous)
Intensity: 0.5 W/cm?
Duration: 2XERA (5-10 min)

28
Q

Non-thermal Effects - Tissue depth 1-2 cm

Frenquency
Duty cycle
Intensity
Duration

A

Frequency: 3 MHZ
Duty cycle: 20% (Pulsed)
intensity: 0.5-1.0 W/cm?
Duration: 2xERA (5-10 min)

29
Q

Structure of nerve is destroyed by cutting, severe scarring, or prolonged severe compression.
Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Neurotmesis

30
Q

A transient physiological block caused by ischemia from pressure or stretch of the nerve with no wallerian degeneration.

Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Neuropraxia

31
Q

Internal architecture of nerve preserved, but axons are so badly damaged that wallerian degeneration occurs.

Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Axonomesis

32
Q

•Pain
• No or minimal muscle wasting
• Muscle weakness
•Numbness
•Proprioception affected
•Recovery time: minutes to days

Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Neuropraxia

33
Q

• No pain (anesthesia)|
• Muscle wasting
• Complete motor, sensory and sympathetic functions lost
• Recovery time: months and only with surgery

Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Neurotmesis

34
Q

• Pain
-muscle wasting evident
- Complete motor,sensory and sympathetic
functions lost
• Recovery time: months (axon regenerates at rate of 1 inch/month, or 1 mm/day)
• Sensation is restored before motor function

Neuropraxia, Axonomesis or Neurotmesis

A

Axonomesis

35
Q

A therapist examines a patient rehabilitating from an ande injury and concludes that the patient is restricted in a capsular patter at the subtalar joint. Which of the following would be the most likely clinical presentation?

А.dorsiflexion is most restricted
В.plantarflexion is most restricted

C.inversion is most restricted
D.eversion is most restricted

A

C

36
Q

A therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient in a rehabilitation hospital. Which of the following patients would be most in need of a wheelchair with handrim projections?

A. a patient with a C3 spinal cord injury
B. a patient with a 05 spinal cord injury

C. a patient with hemiparesis
D. a patient with a cauda equina lesion

A

B

37
Q

A therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with bicipital tendinitis. Which of the following special tests would be the most useful to confirm the patient’s diagnosis?

A.Halstead maneuver
B)apprehension test
C) drop arm test
D)Yergason’s test

A

D

Halstead maneuver: To assess for possible Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

Apprehension test: The Apprehension test is generally used to test the integrity of the glenohumeral joint capsule, or to assess glenohumeral instability in an anterior direction.

Drop arm test: to assess for full thickness rotator cuff tears, particularly of the supraspinatus[1]. This can be useful when diagnosing sub-acromial pain syndrome

38
Q

A therapist completes a selected resisted movement with a patient during a treatment session. The patient reports feeling pain during the testing, however strength is normal.
Which of the following conclusions is most likely?

A. capsular or ligamentous laxity
B.a minor lesion of the muscle or tendon

C.a complete rupture of the muscle or tendon
D. intermittent claudication may be present

A

B

39
Q

A therapist identifies signs and symptoms of neurovascular compression after evaluating a patient with an upper extremity injury. Which of the following special tests would not be helpful in identifying the presence of neurovascular compression?
A. Tinel’s sign
B. Froment’s sign

C.Phalen’s test
D.Bunnel-Litler test

A

D

Bunnel litler test: assesses tightness of the interosseal muscles

40
Q

A therapist presents an inservice to the rehabitation staff on the anatomy of the spins.
As part of the presentation the therapist discusses the role of each of the ligaments of the spine. Which ligament of the spine acts to prevent hyperextension?

A.ligamentum flavum
B. interspinous ligaments

C. anterior longitudinal ligament
D. posterior longitudinal ligament

A

C

41
Q

A 63 year old female status post stroke is screened for admission into a rehabilitation hospital. As part of the screen the therapist utilizes a standardized instrument to document the extent of the patient’s impairments and disabilities. Which of the following standardized instruments would be most beneficial to provide an assessment of motor function?

A. Barthel Index
B. Functional Independence Measure
C. Fugl-Meyer
D. Rivermead Mobility Index

A

C
Barthel index: measures the extent to which somebody can function indep. and has mobility in their ADLs

FIM: level of disability.change of pts status. (Adl+functional)

Rivermead: assesses functional mobility in gait, balance and transfers. It was developed in 1991 to be used after stroke or head injury

42
Q

Tests for the length of the hamstring muscles typically involve stabilization of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be tested. It is important to stabilize the uninvolved leg because it?

A)prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine

B)prevents excessive posterior pelvic til and excessive extension of the lumbar spine

C.prevents excessive anterior pelvic til and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine

D. prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of the lumbar spine

A

A

43
Q

. A physical therapist conducts an initial evaluation on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following clinical findings would you expect the therapist to identify?

А.aphasia
B. ballistic movements
C.severe muscle atrophy
D. cogwheel rigidity

A

D

44
Q

A physical therapist evaluates a 15 year old female distance runner for foot pain of unknown etiology. As the therapist palpates along the medial aspect of the foot and ankle, she palpales the head of the first metatarsal bone and the metatarsophalangea! joint. Immediately proximal to this she identifies the first cuneiform. What large bony prominence would you expect the therapist to identify next if she continues to move in a proximal direction?

A. talar head
B. navicular
C. medial malleolus
D. cuboid

A

B

45
Q

Upon inspecting a patient’s residual limb after prosthetic training, you note a reddened area proximal to the patella tendon and over the anterior and distal end of the limb. Before continuing with future gait training sessions you would first

A. decrease the ply in the socks wor by the patient
B. place cotton/gauze in the bottor of the prosthesis socket in order to support the limb

C)ask the prosthetist to flate out the bottom of the socket

D) increase the ply of the socks wor by the patient

A

D

46
Q

A patient with a traumatic brain injury and right hemiplegia receives an ankle-foot orthosis to assist with ambulation. The patient’s right knee occasionally buckles during stance phase. A modification to the ankle-foot orthosis that would enhance knee extension during the stance on the right is to?

A. position the ankle joint in 5 degrees of dorsiflexion
B. shorten the toe plate
C. extend the foot plate
D. add a soft anterior shell

A

C

47
Q

A therapist evaluates a 62 year old female status post stroke with left hemiparesis. Which of the following perceptual deficits is not commonly associated with left hemiparesis?

A. denial of disability
B. rigidity of thought
C.hot attention span
D. sequencing deficits

A

D

48
Q

A therapist utilizes the results of a symptom limited exercise treadmill test to determine the intensity of exercise for a patient who previously had sustained a cardiac event.
Which of the following guidelines would be the most appropriate when determining an appropriate exercise intensity for the patient?

A. 20 percent of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test

B. 40 percent of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test

C. 65 percent of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test

D. 80 percent of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test

A

C

49
Q

A 42 year old patient with COPD reports new onset of visual disturbances, drowsiness, headache and breathing problems. On examination, the Physical Therapists noted decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis for this patient?

1-Metabolic Alkalosis
2)Respiratory Acidosis

3)Metabolic Acidosis
4)Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Respiratory Acidosis can be caused by chest trauma, left congestive heart failure, airway obstruction and COPD. Signs and symptoms include visual disturbances, confusion, dizziness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and ventricular fibrillation.

50
Q

Contraindicações p exercs em
Pts with MS?

A

Heat
Fatigue
Pregnancy

51
Q

You are co-treating a patient with an interim physiotherapist who works at your clinic. After evaluating your patient’s right shoulder, you both suspect they have bicipital tendinosis with secondary impingement.

QUESTION 1: You instruct your student to palpate their biceps tendon for tenderness. Which of the following positions would expose the tendon of the long head of the biceps?

a)External rotation and extension
b) Internal rotation and extension
c) External rotation and abduction
d) Internal rotation and abduction

A

Answer: A
The long head of the biceps is best exposed when the shoulder is placed in external rotation and extension. The attachment point of the long head of the biceps is at the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, which is at the medial aspect of the shoulder joint. Placing the shoulder in external rotation and extension places the tendon in the best position to be palpated.

52
Q

VIGNETTE: You are co-treating a patient with an interim physiothera| 1/2 who works at your clinic. After evaluating your patient’s right shoulder, you both suspect they have bicipital tendinosis with secondary impingement.

QUESTION 2: Which of the following correctly describes secondary impingement?

a) Compression of the long head of the biceps only, caused by trauma.

b) A pathology caused by compression of one or all of supraspinatus, long head of biceps and subacromial bursa in the subacromial space caused by an anatomical change causing bony spurs or bursal scaring.

c) A pathology caused by compression of one or all of supraspinatus, long head of biceps and subacromial bursa in the subacromial space caused by an anatomical change in the coracoacromial arch.

d) Compression of one of all of supraspinatus, long head of biceps, subacromial bursa from a smaller subacromial space caused from poor glenohumeral or scapular stability.

A

Answer: D

Secondary impingement is similar to primary impingements in that they both involve compression of structures in the subacromial space.
The main difference is that the decrease in space is caused from instability, rather than an anatomical change. When glenohumeral or scapular stability is present, the head of the humerus will translate superiorly or anteriorly during over-head arm movements, causing compression of against the coracoacromial arch.

53
Q

A 27-year-old female suffered a traumatic brain injury after falling off her mountain bike 2 days ago. She was admitted to the local trauma center where she is currently being monitored. Her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCs) score is currently 11.
Given her GCS score, which of the following descriptions would we anticipate?

a. Unconscious in decorticate posturing

b. Able to make some sounds but cannot speak and is aroused only by pain

c. Oriented and ambulating independently

d. Alert but confused and unable to follow commands consistently

A

D. Alert but confused and unable to follow commands consistently

• GSC scores range from 3-15
i. Mild brain injury: 13-15
ii. Moderate brain injury: 9-12
ilI. Severe brain injury: 3-8

• Thus, a GCS of 11 in this scenario indicates a moderate brain injury.

This is the best description of a patient with a moderate brain injury and is thus the correct answer.

54
Q

A 1 year and 2 months old female is referred for Physiotherapy with complaints of altered gait pattern. On examination, she had limited abduction, flexion and external rotation in left hip and a positive Trendelenburg’s sign.

Q1. What can be the probable diagnosis of this patient?

A) Developmental Dysplasia of hip (DDH)
B) Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease
C) Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
D) Proximal femur focal deficiency (PPFD)

A

Answer: A
In DDH, femoral head is displaced out of the acetabulum since birth or early postnatal period. This results in limited abduction, flexion and external rotation at hip with shorter limb which can display a
Trendelenburg’s sign during walking. More common in females.

Incorrect: B - it is found in age group of 3 to 10 years of age, mainly males.

C - SCFE is found in young adolescent boys of 10 to 17 years age.

D - PPFD is hypoplasia of femur with longitudinal deficiency leading to significant limb length discrepancy. Ambulation is possible with prosthesis only.

55
Q

A go year old male presents to outpatient rehabilitation with numbness and tingling on the 4th and 5th fingers of the left hand consistent with nerve entrapment symptoms. Upon further examination, it is noted that the patient has normal sensation on the dorsum of the hand on the ulnar side.

Where is the MOST likely source of nerve entrapment?

  1. Guyon’s Canal
  2. Carpal Tunnel
  3. Cubital Tunnel
  4. 1st Rib
A
  1. Guyon’s Canal is the correct answer. The ulnar nerve provides the sensory innervation for the 4th and 5th digits, narrowing the answer to either the Cubital Tunnel or Guyon’s Canal. The unar nerve has a dorsal cutaneous branch that innervates the dorsum of the hand. Because dorsal sensation is intact, the nerve must be trapped at Guyon’s Canal.
  2. The median nerve passes through the Carpal Tunnel and does not innervate the 4th and 5th digits.
  3. Entrapment at the Cubital tunnel would not typically leave any sensation on the dorsum of the hand on the ulnar side.
  4. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome would have entrapment at the 1st rib, but sensation loss would occur in a similar manner to entrapment at the Cubital tunnel.

PCE (40 decks)

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