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PCE > Multisystem By Ptdi > Flashcards

Multisystem By Ptdi Flashcards

1
Q

Gene associated with ankylosing spondylitis

A

HLA-B27

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2
Q

Condition which leads to enlarged and misshapen bones

A

Paget’s Disease (Osteitis Deformans)

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3
Q

Characteristics of hypertrophic scar

A

Raised, red, and rigid (3R’s)

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4
Q

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

A condition in which the pancreas fails to produce sufficient (or any) insulin

Requires insulin injections

Weight loss, increased utinarion an desidratação

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5
Q

Opportunistic infections

A

Infections, diseases, or malignancy that primarily occur in people who are immunocompromised

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6
Q

Osteomalacia

A

A metabolic bone disease which results in softening of bones due to decalcification of bones

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7
Q

BMI Obese class I

A

30-34.9

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8
Q

Non-modiable risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Age, Gender (F> M), Race (Caucasian and Asian decent), Menopause, Family history, Small skeletal frame, Amenorrhea (depending on cause)

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9
Q

Rheumatoid cachexia

A

Loss of lean body mass or muscle wasting as a result of RA

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10
Q

Dependent edema

A

Excessive fluid in body tissues which is influenced by gravity and accumulates in gravity dependent positions (typically distal extremities)

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11
Q

Fibromyalgia Syndrome

A

A syndrome characterized by widespread chronic pain and increased pain response to pressure with no other cause

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12
Q

Formula for BMI

A

BMI = kg (mass)/m? (height)

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13
Q

Most common cause of mortality in burn injury

A

Pulmonary complications from inhalation injuries

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14
Q

Cause of crepitus in client’s with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Uneven degeneration of the joint surfaces

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15
Q

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

A condition in which the pancreas fails to produce sufficient insulin, as well as resistance to insulin action (inadequate utilization of insulin)

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16
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

A genetic bone disorder characterized by fragile bones

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17
Q

Goals of positioning and splinting for burn patients

A

Minimize edema, Prevent contracture, Preserve function

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18
Q

Cause of boutonniere deformity

A

As a result of chronic synoviti

the insertion of extensor digitorum communis into the middle phalanx (known as the central slip) lengthens, and the lateral bands slide volarly to force the PIP into flexion

Also known as zigzag deformity

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19
Q

Volar

A

Relating to the palm of the hand or the sole of the foot. It means the same as saying palmar (for the hand) or plantar (for the foot).

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20
Q

Causes of local neuropathy in burn patients

A

Compression from tight bandages, Poorly fitted splints,
Prolonged or inappropriate positioning

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21
Q

Malar rash

A

Erythema over the malar eminence (cheeks), tending to spare the nasolabial folds. Also known as “butterfly rash” due to the appearance of the rash being similar to the outline of the shape of a butterfly with expanded wings.

Seen in lupus

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22
Q

Risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

Obesity (BMI>30), High abdominal fat (high waist to hip ratio), Poor diet, Sedentary lifestyle, Secondary to many dysfunctions

+comun…nao precisa de insulina pq nao respond to it.

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23
Q

Typicaly length of morning stiffness in ankylosing spondylitis

A

30-40 mins

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24
Q

Modalities that are contraindicated to use on pregnant clients

A

Deep heating agents

Electrical stimulation (local contraindication, but may be beneficial during labor),

Traction

Ultrasound (local containdication)

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25
Q

Benefit of mesh graft

A

Can cover greater surface area with limited amount of donor skin

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26
Q

Common causes of hypoglycemia

A

Medication that increases insulin secretion, not eating on time, restrictive caloric diets and increased physical activity

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27
Q

Phantom limb pain

A

Noxious sensation in the area of the limb that is no longer there

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28
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis remission

A

Defined as < 15 minutes of morning stiffness, and no joint tenderness or effusion for at least 3 months

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29
Q

Modfiable risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Sedentary lifestyle (inadequate loading), Diet (deficient in calcium and Vitamin D), Smoking, Caffeine, Alcohol abuse,
Amenorrhea (depending on cause)

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30
Q

Common contractures in transfemoral amputees

A

Hip flexion, abduction, and ER

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31
Q

Signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia

A

Polydipsia (increased thirst),
Polyphagia (frequent hunger),
Polyuria (increased volume of urination), Fatigue,
Blurred vision,
Delayed healing

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32
Q

Autograft

A

Skin graft taken from unburned area of patient’s own skin

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33
Q

Activities that increase risk for diabetic retinopathy

A

Activities which cause sudden increase in BP (e.g., Valsalva maneuver, Heavy lifting, Strenuous upper extremity exercises, Head down postures)

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34
Q

What are the advantages of using a rigid dressing post-amputation

A

Excellent for edema control,
Excellent for pain control,
Excellent protection,
Enhances healing,
May help prevent knee flexion contractures

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35
Q

Postural changes seen in ankylosing spondylitis

A

Increase Thoracic kyphosis,
DecreaseI Lumbar lordosis,
Eye upward gaze due to cervical spine flexion deformity,
Fixed thoracic cage,
Hip flexion and knee flexion

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36
Q

Interventions to prevent scar formation post-burn injury

A

Positioning, Splinting, Exercise, Ambulation, Compression therapy, Massage

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37
Q

Prosthogenic pain

A

Pain in the residuum due to the prosthetic (e.g., improper fit, poor socket fit, inappropriate suspension, etc.)

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38
Q

Interventions to avoid on active joint in patients with RA

A

Heat, stretching, strengthening, and mobilizations (gr.3 and
4)

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39
Q

Cause of respiratory impairment seen in ankylosing spondylitis

A

Rigid thorax (chest wall)
Can lead to restrictive disease

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40
Q

First step in donning a lower limb prosthesis

A

Roll liner over amputated limb

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41
Q

Suggested positioning for burn on the anterior neck

A

Neutral or extension

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42
Q

How long are low-stretch bandages used for?

A

The whole day except when bathing

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43
Q

Diagnostic criteria for severe osteoporosis

A

T-Score < -2.5 AND history of at least one osteoporotic fracture

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44
Q

Ulnar drift

A

Wrist/hand deformity commonly seen in people with RA, resulting in ulnar deviation of the fingers

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45
Q

Manual lymphatic drainage

A

A type of light massage that is hypothesized to help promote movement of lymphatic fluid out of swollen areas and towards the direction of the heart

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46
Q

Intrinsic plus position

A

MCP flexion, PIP and DIP extension

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47
Q

Systemic signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Fatigue

Eye involvement (anterior uveitis/iritis)

Cardiovascular involvement

Pulmonary involvement

48
Q

Purpose of compression garments

A

Help keep size stable

49
Q

Diabetic complications

A

Cardiovascular Disease

Peripheral Neuropathy

, Autonomic Neuropathy

Retinopathy

Nephropathy

50
Q

Causes of obesity

A

Diet, Sedentary lifestyle, Medications, Genetics, Secondary to other illnesses

51
Q

What are the advantages of using elastic wraps post-amputation

A

Can remove and reapply easily to inspect incision (indicated in cases of local infection), Inexpensive

52
Q

Allograft

A

Skin graft taken from the same species (usually from cadaver)

53
Q

Charcot’s foot

A

A complication of diabetic neuropathy in which there is acute localized inflammation which leads to the bones in the foot to become weak resulting in fractures without major trauma

54
Q

What are the disadvantages of using elastic wraps post-amputation

A

Poor edema control,
Minimal protection,
Requires frequent rewrapping,
Movement of residuum will cause slippage and change in pressure and pressure distribution

55
Q

Diastasis recti

A

Separation of the rectus abdominis muscles at the linea alba (midline)

Any separation larger than 2 fingers width

Test is not valid 0-3 days after delivery

EVERYONE can have diastasis

56
Q

Length of morning stiffness in acute/active rheumatoid arthritis

A

At least 1 hour

57
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation within bone caused by an infection

58
Q

Objective of performing friction massages in the preprosthetic phase

A

Prevent or decrease tissue adhesions,

Decrease hypersensitivity in preparation for prosthetic fitting

59
Q

Cytopenia

A

Decreased mature blood cells (low RBC, WBC, or both).

The prefix cyto- refers to a cell. The suffix -penia means
“deficiency” (i.e. low).

60
Q

ROM exercises for burn patient’s should be coordinated with
and

A

pain medication; dressing changes

61
Q

Neuroglycopenic effects of hypoglycemia

A

Headache,
Blurred vision,
Confusion
, Weakness, Fatigue
, Difficulty speaking
, Seizures,
Coma

62
Q

Common areas for rheumatoid nodules

A

Areas subjected to repeated mechanical pressure or pressure bearing areas (e.g., Olecranon bursae, surface of forearms, and achilles tendon)

63
Q

Diagnostic criteria for osteopenia

A

T-score of -1 to -2.5

Normal: within -1
Osteopenia: -1 to -2.5
Osteoporosis: -2.5 and down
Severe osteoporosis: -2.5

64
Q

What are the disadvantages of using elastic shrinkers post-amputation

A

Requires changing of size as residuum shrinks (correct size essential

), Not used until incision has healed and the sutures have been removed

65
Q

Signs of a damaged joint in a patient with RA

A

Subluxation or deformity,
Bone on bone crepitus,
Loss of more than 20% of passive ROM, Ligament instability

66
Q

Xenograft

A

Skin graft taken from another species (usually a pig)

67
Q

Diagnostic criteria for osteoporosis

A

T-score of <-2.5

68
Q

Signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis

A

Fever, Tenderness, Redness, Warmth, Swelling, Loss of ROM

69
Q

Cause of balance impairments in some people with diabetes

A

Sensorimotor/proprioception disturbances as a result of
diabetic neuropathy

70
Q

Purpose of low-stretch bandages

A

Help reduce size

71
Q

Suggested positioning for a burn in the axilla area

A

Shoulder abduction, flexion, and ER

72
Q

Pattern of sensory disturbances seen in diabetic neuropathy

A

“Glove and Stocking” distribution (distal to proximal)

73
Q

Causes of pregnancy-related back pain

A

Postural changes of pregnancy,

Hormonal influences (up to 3 to 5 months postpartum),

ligamentous laxity

abdominal muscle function

74
Q

Diabetic nephropathy

A

Diabetic complication resulting in kidney damage leading to loss of kidney function

75
Q

Is Afo indicated for someone with MS ?

A

If the pt has spasticity this orthosis is contraindicated as the movs of DF sao rapidos e o clonus do pt vai entrar em acao e causar unbalance

76
Q

Contra indications to exercise in pts w CA

A

-no exercs on days of intravenous chemotherapy or within 24hrs

-platelets menor q 50 000
White cells menir q 3000
Hg menor q 10g per dl

-fever

-resting HR maior 100 ou menor q 50. Irregular

77
Q

What are the 5 P’s to manage fatigue?

A

Planning
Pacing
Prioritizing
Positioning
Proficiency

78
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Bleeding disorder. Delays in coagulation after injury.

Typically hereditary

79
Q

What is the physio tx in pt with hemophilia in the acute stage?

A

RICE
PAIN FREE MOVEMENT
NON OR MINIMAL WB
SPLINTING as appropriate

80
Q

Is the RF present in all the pts with RA?

A

No.
RF is usually associated with a more severe/progressive disease

81
Q

Which falange is not typically affected in RA?

A

DIP

82
Q

Complication on the cervical spine for pts with RA…

A

•Rom limited in all planes-specially rotation

•Potential instability

***Dont do any overpressure on the neck, mobilization or manipulation.

83
Q

What are the red flags that need an urgent referral for pts with RA?

A

-claudincation pain pattern

-fever,weight loss and malaise

-focal or diffuse weakness (can be a neuro disease)

-history of significant trauma ( can have a fracture)

-hot swollen joint ( infection)

-neurogenic pain ( burning,numbness, paresthesia. Can be spinal cord lesion

84
Q

What are the criterias for Saji - standardized assessment of joint inflammation?

A

1- duration of Am stiffness

2- bl hand grip strength test mmhg

3-number of “active joints “

4- erythrocyte sedimentation rate (lab value)

85
Q

How to know if the joint is active?

A

S swelling
T tenderness
O over
P pressure

Check swelling if there is:it is active
Move to another joint…

For over pressure: put pressure at end range of the joint

86
Q

How is the swan neck deformity?

A

Mcp flexion
Pip hypertension
Dip flexion

87
Q

What is Systemic lupus erythematosus?
What is the physio tx?

A
  • Auto imune disorder
    -Chronic,rheumatic inflamation of connecting or supporting structures

Tx:
Aerobic exercise
Energy conservation
Education
Rest
Modalities
Rom( NO STRETCHING)
No strengthening during flare ups

88
Q

What is the hallmark sign for spondilite ankilosante?

A

Sacroilitis
Bamboo spine/railroad track spine

89
Q

What is the tx for espondilite anquilosante?

A

Trunk flexibility
Endurance
Increase resp function

90
Q

What is assessed in the BASMI (BATH ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS METROLOGY INDEX)?

A

1- cervical rotation
2- tragus to wall
3- modified scholer (trunk flexion)
4-finger to floor ( lateral flexion)
5-intramalleolar distance

91
Q

What are the postural changes seen in pt with advanced espondilite anquilosante?

A

Increased thoracic kyphosis
Decreased lumbar lordosis
Eye upward gaze
Fixed toracic cage
Hip and knee flex in an attempt to maintain upright posture

92
Q

What type of exercise is contra indicated in pts with osteoporosis?

A

Spinal flexion
Flex rotation

Encourage: extension exercises

93
Q

What type of exercs needs to be avoided in Paget disease?

A

High impact activities

**mishapen bones

94
Q

Contra indication for pts w osteogenis imperfecta

A

Dont perform MMT
MOBILIZATION

**Fragile bones that are easily fractured

95
Q

What are the contra indications to exercise in pt w burns?

A

Exposed joint
Fresh skin graft (5days)
Dvt
Compart syndrome

96
Q

What is the time for scar management?

A

5-10min
3-6x dia

97
Q

A female patient is being examined by a physical therapist. The patient has a decreased heart rate, poor muscle tone, and recent unexplained weight gain and water retention. The patient also reports general feelings of fatigue and depression. Which of the following conditions is
MOST likely present?

  1. Hyperthyroidism
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. Hypoglycemia
A

2

  1. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by weight loss, anxiety, and general “speeding up” of body systems.
  2. This is the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a general “slowing down” of body systems and is more common in women than in men.
98
Q

A patient has undergone a below-knee amputation. What is the MOST important clinical consideration in preparing to use a prosthesis?

  1. Ambulation endurance
  2. Hip range of motion
  3. Stump maturity
  4. Psychological health
A

3

  1. This is important, but is not the MOST important in preparation for a prosthesis.
  2. This is also not the MOST important issue to consider.
  3. This is the correct answer. The stump must have a stabilized girth and stable integument to allow for a good prosthesis fit and loading.
  4. This is not the MOST important, but is a consideration in preparing for a prosthesis.
99
Q

A new patient you are working with today presents with low back pain secondary to osteomyelitis. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding osteomyelitis?

a. Caused by an inflammatory response within the bone cause by an infection.
b. More common in children and immunosuppressed adults.
c. More common in females than males.
d. Physical therapy goals should include maintaining/improving joint mechanics and connective tissue function.

A

C
More common in females than males - False

100
Q

Your patient with osteomyelitis has returned to school and is seeing you through the outpatient clinic. They have recently had a severe food-borne illness that has left them with significant cranial nerve involvement, weak trunk musculature, and dyspnea. Which of the following conditions is most likely present?

a. Botulism
b. Guillain-Barré syndrome
c. Mysasthenia gravis
d. Ulcerative collitis

A

Botulism - Correct
• Claustridium botulinum is a bacterial infection that releases a neurotoxin targeting the presynaptic neuromuscular junction. The cranial nerves are especially susceptible to the toxin and the weakness spreads caudally to the respiratory and trunk musculature.
Physical therapy treatment would include interventions to counteract the weakness produced from the neurotoxin.

101
Q

You have assigned your PTA to use ultrasound over the biceps in the bicipital groove on the patient’s right shoulder. Given that the patient has pain at rest and limited range of motion, which of the following parameters would you prescribe?

a. 1MHz, 0.5 w/cm2, 5 minute treatment time.

b. 3MHz, 0.5 w/cm2, 5 minute treatment time.

c. 1MHz, 1.0 w/cm2, 5 minute treatment time.

d. 3MHz, 1.0 w/cm2, 5 minute treatment time.

A

B
3MHz, 0.5 w/cm2, 5 minute treatment time - Correct
• You would pick 3 MHz (shallow tissues) vs. 1MHz (deeper tissues) as the biceps tendon is a superficial structure.

• Since the patient has pain at rest and limited range of motion, they are likely in the freezing stage or acute stage of adhesive capsulitis.
Therefore you would want to give parameters for an acute shoulder.

Acute: 0.1-0.5 w/em2;
Subacute: 0.5-0.8 w/cm2;
Chronic: 1.0-2.5w/cmz

102
Q

A patient with a history of adenocarcinoma of the colon has just had a colectomy (without colostomy bag) to remove the malignancy and is 1 day post operation. The patient is referred to physical therapy for bowel control training.

Which of the following interventions will most benefit this patient?

a. Begin rectus abdominis training
b. Core exercises targeting increased intra-abdominal pressure
c. Initiate pelvic floor exercises and biofeedback
d. Minimal ambulation, especially in the 7 days following surgery

A

C
Initiate pelvic floor exercises and biofeedback. - Correct

• This is the most correct answer. After a colectomy, pelvic floor muscles are often weakened and bowel control is lost. Pelvic floor rehabilitation is the most important tool to help relearn bowel control.

103
Q

A patient with a history of adenocarcinoma of the colon has just had a colectomy (without colostomy bag) to remove the malignancy and is 1 day post operation. The patient is referred to physical therapy for bowel control training.

One week post-op your patient begins to complain of right lower quadrant pain. You perform an assessment of the right hip. During palpation of the hip, you examine for tenderness, temperature, muscle spasm and other signs and symptoms that might indicate the source of pathology. Which of the following structures outline the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

a. Inguinal Ligament, Adductor Longus and Pectineus

b. Inguinal ligament, Adductor Magnus and Sartorius

c. Inguinal Ligament, Adductor Longus and Sartorius

d. Inguinal ligament, Adductor Magnus and Pectineus

A

Inguinal Ligament, Adductor Longus and Sartorius - Correct
• The femoral triangle boundaries are the inguinal ligament superiorly, the Sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially.

104
Q

A patient with a history of adenocarcinoma of the colon has just had a colectomy (without colostomy bag) to remove the malignancy and is 1 day post operation. The patient is referred to physical therapy for bowel control training.

After performing your assessment, you are unable to determine the source of the pain. You refer back to the doctor and he advises you that the patient has an inguinal hernia. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with an inguinal hernia?

a. Lifting injury
b. Obesity
c. Pregnancy
d. Pubalgia

A

D

105
Q
  1. You are working in an outpatient neurology clinic. You are responsible for multiple patients. While performing manual muscle testing on patient B, you note that the patient has symmetrical marked upper extremity weakness that worsens with repetition of the test and improves with rest. The patient also displays asymmetric ptosis of one eye. Which of the following conditions is most likely present?

a. Acute Idiopathic Polyneuritis
b. Guillain-Barré Syndrome
c. Myasthenia Gravis
d. Stroke

A

C

• The hallmark signs of MG are fluctuating, asymmetrical posis of the eyes, weakness of muscles that worsens rapidly with repetition and subsides with rest.

106
Q

You are working in an outpatient neurology clinic. You are responsible for multiple patients.
Patient A is diagnosed with unilateral Bell’s Palsy. During the examination, you note that the patient has begun to develop facial droop on the contralateral side of the face as well. All four extremities have normal motor testing, but deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following conditions is most likely present?

a. Guillain-Barré Syndrome
b. Scleroderma
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Parkinson’s Disease

A

A

107
Q

Your patient has undergone a below knee amputation 4 months ago. They are currently experiencing phantom pain and have questions about their rehabilitation.

Which of the following is a sensation commonly felt with phantom pain?

a. Pressing pain in the stump and phantom limb.
b. Cramp-like pain in the stump.
c. Squeezing pain in the stump and phantom limb.
d. Sawing in the phantom limb.

A

D

Phantom pain is the abnormal feeling a patient has in the amputated part of the limb even though that part of the limb is not there. Pain felt in the stump is NOT considered to be phantom pain and must be examined for other etiologies.

See the list of common phantom pain sensations below:
• Throbbing
• Pressing
• Cramp like
• Sawing
• Dull
Shooting Prickling
• Knife-like

108
Q

Which of the following statements regarding phantom pain is false?

a.There is evidence that phantom pain is caused by psychological disorders.

b. Some patients report that the pain is of very high intensity, which may be evoked by some external or internal stimuli, whereas others report a dull, continuous aching or burning that does not seem to be episodic.

c. The majority of amputees experience phantom pain at some point during the injury healing process.

d. Phantom pain persisting beyond 6 months is very difficult to treat and usually does not change in character after that time.

A

A

109
Q

Your patient has undergone a below knee amputation 4 months ago. They are currently experiencing phantom pain and have questions about their rehabilitation.

The patient is complaining of pain in multiple areas, which of the following are pressure tolerant areas of the stump?

a. Popliteal fossa and fibular head
b. Fibular head and crest of tibia
c. Popliteal fossa and patellar ligament
d. Fibular head and distal tibia

A

C

Pressure Tolerant Areas of Transtibial Amputation:
• Patellar tendon
Anterior compartment
• Medial flare of the tibia
• Shaft of the fibula
• Gastrocnemius
• Popliteal fossa

Pressure Sensitive Areas of Transtibial Amputation:

• Anterior distal tibia
Fibular head
Crest of tibia
Peroneal nerve
• Distal cut fibula
• Lateral tibial condyle
• Distal end of the stump
• Patella
• Tibial Tubercle

110
Q

In the advanced stages of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following joint deformities is often not seen?

a. PIP hyperextension with DIP flexion.
b. Ulnar subluxation of the carpals.

C.Bouchard’s nodes in the proximal interphalangeal joints.
d. Ulnar drift of the fingers and volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx at the MCP joint.

A

C

• PIP hyperextension with DIP flexion - Often seen. This is describing a swan-neck deformity which is commonly seen in RA.

• Ulnar subluxation of the carpals - Often seen. This causes radial deviation of the wrist

• Bouchard’s nodes in the proximal interphalangeal joints - Not often seen. Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths or gelatinous cysts on the proximal interphalangeal joints. They are often seen in osteoarthritis and rarely seen in rheumatoid arthritis.

• Ulnar drift of the fingers and volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx at the MCP joint-Often seen
Inflammation and joint deformity at the MCP’s result in fingers drifting ulnarly.

111
Q

Your patient returns to the clinic complaining of pain in their 4th finger. Upon assessment, you determine they have a boutonniere deformity. Which of the following would be the most effective treatment?

a. Splint PIP joint in full flexion and DIP joint in full flexion.

b. Splint PIP joint in full extension.

c. Splint PIP joint in full flexion.

d. Splint PIP joint in full extension and DIP joint in full extension.

A

B

Boutinniere ( also called zigzag deformi)

Extension mcp/ flexion pip/ hypertension dip

112
Q

You work together with the PTA to perform gait training activities with an 8-year-old child who utilizes a reciprocating gait orthosis. Which diagnosis is most often associated with the use of this type of orthotic device?

A. Spina bifida
B. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
c. Down syndrome
d. Cerebral palsy

A

A

• A reciprocating gait orthosis is a type of hip-knee-ankle orthosis that incorporates a cable connecting the two hip joint mechanisms. The orthosis is most commonly utilized with children diagnoses with spina bifida.

113
Q

A physical therapist observes a patient with Parkinson’s disease complete a series of reaching and grasping activities. During initiation of movement, the patient is slow and clumsy.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Parkinson’s disease?

a. It is a progressive disease
B. Spasticity
c. Cogwheel rigidity
d. Intellectual impairment/dementia

A

B

Spasticity is not present in Parkinson’s. Rigidity is present but this is stiffness that is constant and not associated with speed of movement.

114
Q

A physical therapist observes a patient with Parkinson’s disease complete a series of reaching and grasping activities. During initiation of movement, the patient is slow and clumsy.
. Which of the following is the most appropriate outcome measure to use with this patient?

a. Expanded Disability Status Scale
b. Hoehn and Yahr
c. Fugl-Meyer
d. Modified Ashworth Scale

A

B

Used to classify stages and progression of Parkinson’s disease.

115
Q

Which of the following is an effect of osteoarthritis NOT rheumatoid arthritis?

a. Early inflammatory changes to the synovial membrane, peripheral portions of the articular cartilage and subchondral marrow spaces result in alteration of healthy joints.

b. Myositis, anemia, sleep disruption and fatigue can be present.

c. Secondary involvement on the synovium occasionally occurs.

d. Fibrosis or ankylosis may eventually result, causing deformity and disability.

A

C

PCE (40 decks)

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