Sim 4

Question 1

What are the entry criteria for the Functional Recovery Procedure?

Answer 1

40EP-9EO09 Functional Recovery
Entry Criteria
* ELAP is NOT in progress (addressed by Blackout ORP)
* SPTAs complete (or event initiated in M3/M4 with LTOP not in-service)
* Any of the following:
o Any condition, or pattern of symptoms, for which abnormal or emergency guidance can NOT be identified
o Actions taken in an ORP are NOT satisfying the SFSCs
o Multiple event conditions exist

Question 2

What are the Exit criteria for the Functional Recovery Procedure 40EP-9EO09?

Answer 2

Exit Criteria
* ELAP is in-progress
OR
* Exit the FRP to an ORP or an approved procedure (performance of FRP Long Term Actions is not required to exit)
o All acceptance criteria for all success paths are being satisfied
o At least one vital 4160 V bus is energized from any SITE DG or offsite power. (not SBOG)
OR
* SAMG entry is required (> 1200°F CETs)

Question 3

What two steps should be pulled ahead prior to completing the entry steps of the Functional Recovery Procedure 40EP-9EO09?

Answer 3

• CRS should pull forward important actions from the success paths while Entry Procedure section is being performed.
• Mitigating actions should be performed as soon as the FRP is entered (prior to performing entry section)
  o Stopping RCPs for a LOAF (HR-1)
  o Feeding a ruptured / faulted SG at 1360 - 1600 gpm (HR-1/2)

Question 4

Define “Jeopardized” and “Challenged” per 40EP-9EO09:

Answer 4

o 1) Jeopardized Safety Function: Success path NOT meeting its acceptance criteria
o 2) Challenged Safety Function: Currently meeting its acceptance criteria but action must be taken to ensure that the criteria continues to be met (trending in the wrong direction).

Question 5

What does it mean to have a grey-shaded box in the Safety Function Tracking Sheet in 40EP-9EO09?

Answer 5

Shaded success paths require no further actions once met. RC-1, MVAC-1, MVAC-2, CI

Question 6

In what order will the CRS address Success Paths in the Functional Recovery Procedure 40EP-9EO09?

Answer 6

Go in order (top to bottom of Safety Function Tracking Sheet), performing Jeopardized Safety Functions first, then Challenged Safety Functions, then all remaining Safety Functions

Question 7

Can the CRS delegate a non-jeopardized Safety Function to the STA? To the OATC?

Answer 7

• CRS directs the performance of each success path.
• CRS may delegate non-jeopardized success paths to other available licensed operators
  o Not to include the BOP, OATC, or STA because they are needed to address jeopardized safety functions.

Question 8

State the Safety Function Status Checks for the Functional Recovery procedure 40EP-9EO09

Answer 8

Question 9

What is the contingency action if you are not meeting the safety function for reactivity control in the Functional Recovery?

Answer 9

• If reactor power criteria NOT met, stabilize Tcold
  o ↓ RCS temperature may result in a core restart. (-MTC)
  o Stabilizing reactivity control has a higher priority than initiating a cooldown to regain subcooling.

Question 10

What are the limits for “Harsh” conditions in Containment?

Answer 10

170 degrees F
or
1E+8 mRem/hr (Ru-148/149)

Question 11

What are the hydrogen ranges for containment (in regards to environmental effect ranges)?

Answer 11

<4% will not burn
4-18% - deflagration, subsonic burn some equipment damage possible
18-57% - detonable region, Containment failure
>75% - too rich to burn

Question 12

What are the hydrogen production categories in Containment?

Answer 12

Zirconium-Steam reaction (main method of production during LOCA)

Radiolysis - radiolytic decomposition of water (high rad field causes separation of water into constituent parts)

Other: Corium-concrete reaction, steel-steam reaction, oxidation of aluminium

Question 13

Per 40AO-9ZZ19, Control Room Fire, what instruments will be considered “reliable” during a Control Room Fire?

Answer 13

Reliable Instrumentation
* 8 instruments at the ‘B’ Train RSP
* Reliable because they have isolators in their circuits to prevent any effect from a control room fire
o PZR level (RCB-LI-110Y-1)
o PZR pressure (RCB-PI-102B-1)
o Loop 2B Tcold (TT-122C2)
o Loop 2 Thot (TT-122H2)
o SG 1 and 2 Level (LT-1113B / LT-1123B)
o SG 1 and 2 Pressure (PT-1013B / PT-1023B)

Question 14

In a Control Room Fire, what actions must be taken prior to evacuating the Control Room, per 40AO-9ZZ19?

Answer 14

Initial AOP actions PRIOR to evacuating the MCR
* Trip the Reactor (SPTAs are NOT performed)
o Check power lowering
o Check all FSCEAs have inserted
* Initiate MSIS (prevents SG overfill – 90 second TCA)
* Direct ROs to perform:
o Appendix A, Primary Reactor Operator Actions
o Appendix B, Secondary Reactor Operator Actions
* Direct all available Ops personnel from the affected unit and ERO Electricians to report to the RSP

Question 15

What are the initial actions the Control Room Supervisor (CRS) performs when reaching the Remote Shutdown Panel (RSP)?

Answer 15

Initial CRS actions at the RSP
* ROs will be performing their initial actions
* Place both B train ADV disconnect switches on RSP to Local (SG 1 line 2 178 / SG 2 line 1 185)
* Determine status of PBB-S04:
o Check voltage and breaker positions for NBN-X03, NBN-X04, and ‘B’ EDG feeds
o Evaluates if B train power is energized from off-site, the B EDG, or de-energized

Question 16

How is RCS pressure controlled during a Control Room Fire?

Answer 16

Pressure Control:
* Disable Non-Class PZR heaters
* ‘B’ Class B/U PZR heaters controlled from RSP or with local breaker operation
* Control ‘B’ Auxiliary Spray Valve from RSP

Question 17

What is the Feed strategy during a Control Room Fire?

Answer 17

AFW
* AFB will be used.
o Pump is started at the breaker
o AFB FCVs controlled from RSP (disconnects in local)
* Maintain SG levels 35 - 80% WR
* Suction source:
o CST < 10’: swap AFB suction to the RMWT
o RMWT ≤ 33’: align AFB suction from another unit’s CST
* AFA is tripped from RSP once AFB is running:
o Adjust AFA Pump Speed maximum
o Place AFA Speed Control Transfer to the “Remote Shutdown” position
o Trip AFA using Manual Trip HS at RSO

Question 18

What is the 90 second Time Critical Action in 40AO-9ZZ19 Control Room Fire? When is T-0?

How long, per Time Critical Actions, do you have to place the Atmospheric Dump Valves (ADV’s) to LOCAL? Why is this action performed?

Answer 18

Time Critical Actions (< 1 hour)
* T-0 is time of reactor trip (unless otherwise noted)
* 90 seconds: Initiate MSIS (prevent overfeeding the SGs)
* 5 minutes: ADV Disconnects to LOCAL (prevents overcooling, prevent spurious opening of ADV’s)

Question 19

Discuss the Time Critical Action requirements of disabling CHA-P01 and CHE-P01, ‘A’ and ‘E’ Charging pumps:

Answer 19

• Disable CHA-P01 & CHE-P01.
  o Prevents emptying the VCT and air binding the pumps.
  o Times are taken from when VCT makeup is isolated.
  o 14 minutes (3 pumps running) 22 minutes (2 pumps running) 44 minutes (1 pump running)

Question 20

During a Control Room Fire, what will happen on an Inadvertent SIAS?

Answer 20

Nothing of concern

• PZR low pressure set-point may actuate during the cooldown/depressurization.
  o SI pumps and valves have been disabled and will not actuate

Question 21

How will an Excore detector respond to voiding (Core degradation)?

Answer 21

• Excore response changes due to:
  o Change in source multiplication
  o Reduced shielding due to voiding (level drops in core → less shielding → NIs see higher flux)
  o Change in nature or location of neutron sources.

Question 22

What are some limitations of the Core Exit Thermocouples in detecting Core Degradation?

Answer 22

• CET limited to:
  o Detecting **clad damage (not fuel melt) **
  o SLOW core uncovery events.
• Core uncovery causes CET temps to rise.
• Best for relatively slow core uncovering with a max temp below 1800°F (rapid oxidation initiation temp).
• Fuel melting occurs at much higher temperatures; therefore, the CET’s would not be physically capable of providing that info.
  o 2200°F: > 50% of the rods have ruptured, regardless of core burnup or system pressure.

Question 23

What is the primary method of determing Core Damage following an accident?

Answer 23

Isotopic analysis
* Radiochemistry data is the principle method of Core Damage Assessment (CDA) following an accident
* Samples multiple locations inside CTMT to determine total quantity of fission products released from the core.
* Amount of fission products may change rapidly due to transient conditions.
* Accurate assessment requires the samples be completed within a minimum time period and stabilized plant conditions.
* Provides rough estimate of amount and type of core damage.
o Amount of radioisotopes is compared to the initial core inventory of isotopes to determine the percentage (%) of clad failure, fuel overheating, and/or fuel melt.
o Type of radioisotopes used to determine whether clad failure, fuel overheating, and/or fuel melt has occurred.
o % and type of damage is derived by using the “NRC categories of fuel damage” table.

Question 24

How long do you have to don an SCBA?

Answer 24

• Don SCBAs if directed by SM/CRS
  o Donned within 2 minutes of IDLH being exceeded
  o Remove once MCR verified to be habitable

Regulatory Requirement for 2 minutes and to have inserts if needed

Question 25

What actions are taken in 40AO-9ZZ26 Toxic Gas?

Answer 25

Actions
* Don SCBAs if directed by SM/CRS
* Manually actuate CRVIAS from B05
* Evaluate EALs and reportability
o UE at a minimum if due to off-site hazardous material
o Event reporting manual requires 1 hour NRC notification for toxic gas releases
* Incident Commander or Hazardous Waste Emergency Coordinator confirms Hazardous Materials Emergency is terminated:
o Remove SCBAs
o Restore from CRVIAS

Question 26

What does “IMPEDED” mean in regards to the Emergency Plan?

Answer 26

IMPEDED: Personnel access to a room or area is hindered to an extent that extraordinary measures are necessary to facilitate entry of personnel into the affected room/area (e.g., requiring use of protective equipment, such as SCBAs, that is not routinely employed).

Question 27

During a Significant Turbine Building Oil Leak, when would you break vacuum? What is the concern associated with this?

Answer 27

CAUTION:

Breaking vacuum with Main Turbine speed greater than 1200 RPM may result in damage to the low pressure turbine blading.

Question 28

Sddddd

Answer 28

Ss

Question 29

New card to fix sync issue

Answer 29

Did it work