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Diseases and Diagnosis > Block #3 > Flashcards

Block #3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is anisocaria?

A

Unequal pupil size

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2
Q

What is the ganglia just prior to the efferent parasympathetic supply of the iris?

A

Ciliary ganglia

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3
Q

What occurs with a lesion of the optic chiasm?

A

Complete version and PLR loss

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4
Q

What might be a lesion of the optic chiasm?

A

Pituitary tumor

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5
Q

What is hemianopsia?

A

Loss of the opposite side of the visual field

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6
Q

What is central/cortical blindness?

A

Blindness resulting by a lesion at or after the lateral geniculate nucleus

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7
Q

What is a situation that would not cause anisocoria but blindness?

A

Lesion at or after the lateral geniculate nucleus

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8
Q

Is efferent or afferent dilation more marked?

A

Efferent

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9
Q

What causes a D shaped pupil?

A

Nasal or temporal branch of the parasympathetic innervation of a cat’s eye

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10
Q

What causes cavernous sinus syndrome?

A

Autonomic nerves passing through cavernous sinus due to the many cranial nerves through here

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11
Q

What is electrophysiology?

A

Used to asses retinal function

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12
Q

What is another name for the forebrain?

A

Proencephalon

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13
Q

What are the components of the forebrain?

A

Telencephalon and diencephalon

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14
Q

What diagnostics do you use for cranial bone?

A

CT

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15
Q

What diagnostic do you use for cranial tissue?

A

MRI

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16
Q

What is the most common degenerative disease in dogs?

A

Canine cognitive dysfunction

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17
Q

What is the most common anomaly/developmental disease in dogs?

A

Congenital hydrocephalus

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18
Q

What causes hepatic encephalitis?

A

Liver is unable to filter our toxins that enter blood

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19
Q

What causes hypoglycemic encephalopathy?

A

Brain has too little glucose, usually seizures

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20
Q

What causes electrolyte-associated encephalopathy?

A

Brain has too little Na or Ca, usually seizures

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21
Q

What is the most common brain neoplasia in dogs?

A

Meningiomas

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22
Q

What is the 2nd most common brain neoplasia in dogs?

A

Gliomas

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23
Q

What are the 2 viral forebrain diseases, one for each species?

A

Dog: Distemper
Cat: FIP

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24
Q

What will IPSP cause? EPSP?

A

IPSP: hyper polarization
EPSP: hypo polarization

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25
Q

What are excitatory neurotransmitters?

A

Glutamate

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26
Q

What are inhibitory neurotransmitters?

A

GABA

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27
Q

What are synchronization options with seizures (3)?

A

Neurons wire together
Increased GAP junctions
Structural changes in brain

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28
Q

What are the 4 steps to pathophysiology of seizures?

A

Depolarization
Synaptic transmission
Synchronization
Generalization

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29
Q

What is an autonomic seizure

A

Drooling

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30
Q

What is the convulsive seizure?

A

Generalized

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31
Q

Is herd twitching in bulldogs a seizure?

A

NO

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32
Q

Where do seizures always originate?

A

Forebrain

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33
Q

What are reactive seizures?

A

Metabolic, nutritional, and toxicity

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34
Q

What is the most common form of epilepsy in dogs?

A

Idiopathic epilepsy

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35
Q

What are the 6 viral neurologic diseases?

A

EEE
WEE
VEE
Rabies
WNV
EHV-1

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36
Q

What are the 2 protozoa of EPM?

A

S neurona
Neospora hughessi

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37
Q

What time of helminth will cause CNS issues in horses?

A

nematodes

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38
Q

What is EHV-1

A

Myeloencephalopathy

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39
Q

What reproductive issue does EHV-1 pose?

A

Abortion

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40
Q

How is EHV-1 managed?

A

Need to be isolated

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41
Q

How is EHV-1 tested?

A

Nasal swabs, whole blood, CSF

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42
Q

Is there a vaccine for EHV-1

A

NO

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43
Q

What is WNV vector?

A

Mosquito

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44
Q

What are the clinical sings of WNV?

A

Fever, others are variable

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45
Q

When should you vaccine a horse for the mosquito born diseases?

A

Before vector season

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46
Q

What is EEE vector?

A

MosquitoW

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47
Q

What is the region that has highest EEE?

A

Regions with freshwater hardwood swamps

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48
Q

Does EEE have a profound inflammatory response?

A

YES!

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49
Q

Under CSF what is uniquely seen under EEE?

A

neutrophilic pleocytosis

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50
Q

Is EEE reportable?

A

YES!

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51
Q

What is the definitive host of EPM?

A

Opossums!

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52
Q

What are sings of EPM - AAA?

A

Asymmetry
Atrophy
Ataxia

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53
Q

What must both be run to diagnose EPM?

A

Serology on serum AND CSF at same time

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54
Q

What is a tremor?

A

involuntary rhythmic movement of any part of the body

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55
Q

What is myoclonus?

A

Repeated arrhythmic shock-like jerks

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56
Q

What is tetanus?

A

Continuous contraction of extensor muscles

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57
Q

What is tetany?

A

Intermittent and variable contraction of extensor muscles

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58
Q

What is myotonia?

A

Sustained muscle contraction with delayed relaxation

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59
Q

What is fasciculation?

A

Contractioned muscle fibers, associatiated with motor unit (under skin only)

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60
Q

What is dystonia?

A

Sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles producing abnormal posture (only one you can see with a picture)

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61
Q

Why can you not treat all tremors with steroids?

A

Neosporosis!
Bacterial infection, steroids would cause immune suppression

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61
Q

What is feline Riemann-Pick disease (Sphingomyelinosis)

A

An abiotrophy in cats

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62
Q

What disease can be treated with steroids?

A

Steroid responsive tremor syndrome

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63
Q

What is the main cause of acute tremors?

A

Steroid response tremor syndrome

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64
Q

Which infectiontious disease can you not forget to consider?

A

Neosporosis

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65
Q

Which dog bread has most idiopathic head tremors?

A

Bulldogs

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66
Q

Which disease can be treated with a gluten free diet?

A

Paroxysmal dyskinesia

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67
Q

What do epileptic seizures ALWAYS have?

A

Facial involvement

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68
Q

What are the 3 functions of cerebellum?

A

Balance
vision
motor learning

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68
Q

What are the 3 functions of brain cerebrum

A

Sensory
Motor
Association

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69
Q

What controls cardiovascular and respiratory function?

A

medulla oblongata

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70
Q

What are the 2 parts of the vestibular system?

A

Semicircular canals
Otoliths

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71
Q

What is pathogenesis of THO

A

Articulation of bone between sytlohyoid and temporal bone that cuts off facial and vestibular nerve

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72
Q

What causes cerebellar abiotrophy

A

Mutation of MUTYH gene leading to degeneration of Purkinje cells

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73
Q

What horse breed is disposed to cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Egyptian Arabian Foals

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74
Q

When does idiopathic epilepsy appear in Egyptian Arabian Foals?

A

days to weeks

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75
Q

What are clinical signs of yellow star toxicity?

A

Horses cannot chew, open, or close mouth completely

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76
Q

What causes recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?

A

Lesion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve on the left side

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76
Q

What bacteria is associated with moldy corn toxicity?

A

Fusarium verticilloids

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77
Q

What side of the body does Roaring affect?

A

leftq

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78
Q

What 2 cranial nerves does THO affect?

A

facial and vestibular (7 and 8)

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79
Q

What can be a sequelae of THO causing less tear production and less blinking?

A

Facial nerve paralysis will often cause corneal ulcers

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80
Q

What is a sign of horner’s in horses?

A

Horses will get sweaty on their neck

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81
Q

What is the difference between abiotrophy and hypoplasia

A

Hypoplasia is present at birth why abiotrophy is caused by a mutation in the MUTYH gene

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82
Q

What does MUTYH code for?

A

Glycosyloase involved in DNA damage repair

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82
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Otis media/interna

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83
Q

What is the second most common cause of peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Idiopathic geriatric vestibuler disease

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84
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in dogs?

A

Meningioma

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85
Q

What does a vertical nystagmus mean?

A

Central vestibular disease

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86
Q

What are the 2 types of strokes?

A

Ischemic
Hemorrhagic

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87
Q

What are the 3 most common central diseases of vestibular note?

A

Neoplasia
Infectious/Inflammatory
Vascular event

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88
Q

Is optic neuritis bilateral?

A

Yes

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89
Q

What is idiopathic bilateral inflammation of cranial nerve 5?

A

Trigeminal neuritis

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89
Q

What is the ocular form of GMA cause?

A

Optic neuritis

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90
Q

What does trigeminal neuritis cause?

A

Inability to close jaw

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91
Q

IDOPATHIC FACIAL NERVE PARYLSIS

A
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92
Q

What is a metabolic dysfunction of the facial nerve?

A

Hypothyroidism

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93
Q

What is a radio mimetic agent?

A

Property of killing rapidly dividing cells

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94
Q

What does BVDv cause props to 100 days?

A

death

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94
Q

What does BVDv cause between 100 and 170 days?

A

spinal or cranial dysplasia

95
Q

What in BVDv after 170 days?

A

An immune fetus

95
Q

What is pachygyria?

A

Less formation of gyria

96
Q

What is lissencepahly?

A

Absent formation of gyri

97
Q

When does myelination begin?

A

Mid gestation in cerebrum

97
Q

What is porencephaly?

A

Result of radiomimetic agent that kills cells in a structure whose development is well underway

98
Q

When is myelination in cerebellum?

A

Late gestation and into post-natal

99
Q

What is dysmyelination?

A

Poor or improper formation of myelin

100
Q

Are bitter cells present during dysmyelination?

A

NO

101
Q

What do gutter cells do?

A

Bitter cells actively demyelinate

102
Q

What is reduced in border disease virus and what is affected due to this change?

A

Hypomyelination caused by less T3 and T4 to form myelin from oligodendrocytes

102
Q

What is sway back?

A

Cu deficiency in utero

102
Q

Describe sway back and post natal deficiency of Cu.

A

Cytochrome oxidase and superoxide dismutase needed as cofactor in development

Cu deficiency in utero will cause porencephaly

Cu deficiency post natal is due to Cu in milk

103
Q

How can you tell the difference between hypomyelinogensis and demyelination?

A

Presence of gitter cells with demyeliantion

104
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Impeded CSF causing increased intracraneal pressure causing atrophy of perivenctricular tissues

104
Q

What are the 2 chokepoints of CSF?

A

Mesencephalic aqueduct
Lateral apertures

105
Q

What is the difference between communicating hydrocephalus and internal hydrocephalus?

A

Communicating = loss of resorptive function
Obstructive = internal hydrocephalus

106
Q

How do you diagnose lysosomal storage disorders?

A

Diagnosed by looking for vacuoles under stained tissue

106
Q

What is seen histologically of cerebellar abiotrophy

A

Selective necrosis of purkinje cells

107
Q

How do you differentiate abiotrophy from hypoplasia?

A

Abiotrophy is progressive

107
Q

Wha tis a primary tumor?

A

Arise within the tissue

107
Q

What is a secondary tumor?

A

Spread from elsewhere

108
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

Normal cell acquires the capacity for autonomous growth

108
Q

Does the blood brain barrier help prevent immune cells from entering?

A

NO!

108
Q

What are the steps of carcinogenesis?

A

Intiation
Replicaiton
Progression

109
Q

What are indicators of aggressive biological behavior in the nervous system?

A

Lack of differentiation
Cells of variable size
Shape
Evidence of rapid growth
Metastasis

110
Q

If it is a secondary tumor, is it likely malignant?

A

YES

111
Q

Does CNS immune cells express MHCII?

A

NO! Just MHC I

112
Q

How do we manage damage to CNS through inflammation?

A

Regulator T cells

113
Q

In CNS disease, if it suppurative, what shouldd you think first?

A

Bacteria

113
Q

What is meningoencephalitis?

A

Local infection that becomes overwhelmed causing bacteremia leading to clumps releasing and causing an infarct

113
Q

In CNS if it is granulomatous, what should you think first?

A

Fungal

114
Q

In CNS disease, if it is fibrinous, what shoudl you think first?

A

Pathogen that damages vascular walls

115
Q

What causes CNS bacterial disease in immune competent animals?

A

Meningioencephalitis (bacteria covered in antibodies leading to infarct)

115
Q

What is a bacterial infection through blood stream called?

A

hematogenous infection

116
Q

What bacteria travels up peripheral axons?

A

Listeria

117
Q

What promotes growth of listeria?

A

Ensiled forages

118
Q

What cranial nerve does listeria enter?

A

Trigeminal

119
Q

What is the variant of feline enteric coronavirus?

A

FIP

119
Q

What is the inclusion body for rabies called?

A

Negri body

120
Q

What is the cell target of FIP?

A

Monocyte

121
Q

What is the mechanism of CAE?

A

Autoreactive T cells are formed against oligodendrocytes causing primary demyelination

122
Q

What can be seen under light microscopy?

A

Fungi, protozoa, bacteria, and inclusions

122
Q

What determines if a fungus is in sexual or asexual forms?

A

Temperature

123
Q

Are prions inactivated by heat?

A

NO

124
Q

Are prions inflammatory?

A

NO

125
Q

What is the tear producing glands?

A

Lacrimal gland and gland of the nictitating membrane

125
Q

How are prions diagnosed?

A

Ames Iowa using proteolysis

125
Q

What is the formula for CN of the eye muscles?

A

(LR6DO4)3

126
Q

What is exophthalmus?

A

Globe is pushed forward

127
Q

What is buphthasmus?

A

Globe is enlarged - chronic glaucoma

128
Q

What is phthisis bulb?

A

Shrunken, blind globe

128
Q

What is enophthalmos?

A

Retraction of globe into the head

128
Q

What is microphthalmos?

A

Small globe size

129
Q

What causes orbital cellulitis?

A

Migrating foreign bodies or systemic infection

130
Q

What are clinical signs of orbital cellulitis?

A

Acute, pain on opening mouth, exophthalmos

131
Q

What is myositis?

A

Acute swelling of the muscles of mastication and eventually atrophy

131
Q

What is trismus?

A

Swollen firm muscles of mastication (lock jaw)

132
Q

How do you diagnose trismus?

A

autoantibodies to 2m muscle fibers

133
Q

What breed is extraoccular muscle polymyositis common in?

A

Golden retriever

133
Q

What type of dogs is traumatic proptosis most common in?

A

brachycephalic dogs

134
Q

What is extra ocular muscle polymyositis?

A

Immune mediated acute swelling of extra ocular muscles

135
Q

What is a clinical sign of extra ocular muscle polymyositis?

A

Bilateral exophthalmus

135
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What is the prognosis of orbital neoplasia in most cases?

A

Grave, malignant

136
Q

What is traumatic proptosis?

A

Forward displacement of the globe with entrapment of eyelids

136
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Is orbital neoplasia secondary or primary in dogs?

A

Primary

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Is orbital neoplasia primary or secondary in cats?

A

secondary

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Presence of PLR in traumatic proptosis is a good sign!

A
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What is distichiasis?

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Cilia originating from the meibomian gland and exiting from their openings and rubbing on cornea

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What is trichiasis?

A

Cilia or hair from normal location contacting the cornea due to abnormal direction of hair

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What is blephorospams/

A

squinting

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What are clinical signs of trichiasis?

A

Wetting around eye, blephorospasm, maybe ulceration

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What species does a coloboma occur in a lot?

A

cats

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What is ectopic cilia?

A

Cilia originating from meibomian gland but exiting from palpebral conjunctive

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What is epiphora?

A

Tearing

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What is a coloboma?

A

Upper lateral eyelid is not formed

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What are clinical signs of ectopic cilia?

A

very painful, swelling

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What is ankyloblepharon?

A

Physiologic adhesion of the eyelids

142
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Delayed eyelid opening associated with infection under the eyelids

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What is the bacteria for ophthalmia neonatorium in dogs? in cats?

A

dog- Staph
cat - Herpes

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What is macroblepharon?

A

Widening of the eyes

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What is spastic entropion?

A

Chronic blepharospasm usually associated with chronic ulcer

144
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What are the 4 types of acquired entropion?

A

Spastic entropion
Cicatricial entropion
Aeromegaly (intact cats, fat cheeks)
Age-related

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Q

What is cicatricial entropion?

A

Spastic entropion with resulting fibrosis of the orbicular muscle

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What is the most common neoplasm is dogs?

A

Meibomian gland adenoma

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What is ectropion?

A

Outward turning of the eyelid margins causing ocular surface

147
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What are the 4 most common eyelid neoplasias?

A

Meibomian gland adenoma, squamous cell, papilloma, melanoma

147
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What can ectropion cause?

A

Keratitis and conjunctivitis

147
Q

What should you always do with an eyelid neoplasia?

A

Evert eyelid to see full extent

147
Q

What is the most common neoplasia in cats, cows, and horses?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

148
Q

How do you diagnose SCC?

A

biopsy

149
Q

Are eyelid neoplasias normally benign?

A

Yes

149
Q

What are 4 most common sites for a equid SCC?

A

Eyelid, medial cants, 3rd eyelid, lateral corneal limbus

149
Q

What are the 3 most common cancers in horse eyelid?

A

SCC
fibrosarcoma
melanoma

150
Q

What type of horse is most likely to get a melanoma?

A

Grey horse

150
Q

What causes bovine SCC?

A

White faced cows
UV light
Herfords
Papilloma virus

151
Q

What does blepharitis mean?

A

Inflammatory condition of the eyelid

151
Q

What 2 types of mites can be found around eyelid?

A

Sarcoptes
Demodex

151
Q

Which mite, sarcoptes and demodex, causes puritus?

A

Sarcoptes

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Diseases and Diagnosis (23 decks)

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