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Diseases and Diagnosis > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

not a symptom in cats w/ asthma

(tracheal collpase)

A
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2
Q

equine - not a cause of pleuropneumonia

A
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3
Q

Chickens - M. gallinarium T/F question

True

A
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4
Q

Chickens - egg quality poor

Infectious bronchitis virus

A
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5
Q

Chickens - upper respiratory symptoms

IHV - infectious laryngotracheitis virus

A
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6
Q

hacking cough in dog

bordetella

A
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7
Q

Discharge in horse nose no other symptoms?

EHV-1

A
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8
Q

Risk factor for pleuropneumonia?

esophageal obstruction

A
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9
Q

What type of UAE for lar par

Functional

A

Functional

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10
Q

Tracheal hypoplasia

non-surgical

A
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11
Q

Hw - shorter interval in cats

A
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12
Q

HW - takes 2 months in the tissue

A
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13
Q

Cause of feline chylothorax?

Heart disease

A
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14
Q

Barking cough in pigs -

influenza

A
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15
Q

Fuzzy pigs -

PRRSv

A
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16
Q

M. hyo lung picture

A
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17
Q

Jennings photo - cranioventral bronchopneumonia

A
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18
Q

Jennings - “introduce a pattern” cranial ventral

A
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19
Q

Jennings type of cancer in the lung in dog w/ oral melanoma -

metastatic melanoma

A
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20
Q

Cat with crypto (image)

A
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21
Q

Most likely cause of this dog fungal infection?

Blasto

A
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22
Q

Radiographs - metastatic or fungal

structured interstitial pattern

A
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23
Q

Radiographs - predominant

A
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24
Q

Radiographs with the arrow -

alveolar

A
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25
Q

Radiographs pattern (x2 pics, one zoomed in) -

bronchial

A
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26
Q

Radiographs - location

A
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27
Q

radiographs - NCPE - caudodorsal

A
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28
Q

Neonates - dusty paddock

R. equi

A
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29
Q

Lymphoma in cows

A
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30
Q

TTW -

culture

A
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31
Q

BAL -

asthma/inflammation

A
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32
Q

Persistent nasal discharge —

false you don’t culture the nose

A
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33
Q

What does not cause hypoxemia -

cyanide poisoning

A

What does O2 supplementation not help -

anemia

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34
Q

Not a feature of BOAS -

stridor

A

Not a feature of laryngeal paralysis -

stertor

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35
Q

Large volume of effusion in dog -

neoplasia

A

Pleural effusion in cat -

CHF

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36
Q

R ventricle enlargement, murmur, left heart normal, cyanotic after workout -

Tetrology of Fallot

A

Atrial regurgitation -

Left base diastolic

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37
Q

Hypovolemic compensated shock

A

Decreasing preload (question above)

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38
Q

Horse with Atrial degeneration which is not true?

Systemic hypertension

A

Four organs affected by systemic hypertension

eyes, heart, brain, kidneys

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39
Q

Question about which is false with AR?

Hypokinetic pulse

A

ECGS
Sinus rhythm with APC
Afib (horse with sideways picture)
One with enlarged LA, RA, LV
Run of VPCs i think (V-tac)

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40
Q

You can test for 2nd degree type 1 test with

atropine test

A

Which is not a predisposing factor of IE?

PS

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41
Q

Which species get IE where?

Bartonella infective endocarditis is an emerging condition in dogs and cats and most commonly affect the aortic valve

A

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm, which is false? AIVR which is false?

Tachycardia heart rate

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42
Q

DCM and lone Afib in the

wolfhound

A

Which of the following bovine respiratory pathogens is the most common bacteria isolated in calves with acute bacterial bronchopneumonia

M. hemolytica

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43
Q

Question about atrial septal defect and murmur -

only hear with PS i think that answer choice

A

Cat w/ murmur -

proBNP

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44
Q

What is not an outcome of HCM -

rupture of chordae tendinae

A

R sided heart failure with distended jugular

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45
Q

Clot question with shreege -

antemortem clot

A

Pulse quality (PS vs AS)

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46
Q

Weak pulse =

pulsus parvus

A

Which regarding MM is true?

High sympathetic tone often leads to vasoconstriction and pale mm

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47
Q

Question about hypotension -

all three (vascular resistance, CO, HR)

A

Question about hearing a Gallop sound

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48
Q

L apical systolic murmur -

mitral regurgitation

A

Pathology -

nutritional issue

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49
Q

Clicks -

mitral /tricuspid valve degeneration answer

A

Grade 4 left systolic murmur

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50
Q

RCM questions what is true (i think?) something about fibrosis maybe?

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy E»»>A

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51
Q

Smoke -

spontaneous echo contrast (stasis, HCM)

A

Which can go latent?

FHV (feline herpes virus)

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52
Q

Calicivirus -

oral mucosa

A

in bacterial infection

Neutrophils

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53
Q

Atelectasis -

shriveled up lung lobes

A

Bowmans - A. suis and APP (two of these are correct)

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54
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is consistent with infection with Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP) or Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV)?

Progressive emaciation, with good appetite

A

Which would supplemental O2 not help with -

anemia

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55
Q

Risk factor for cattle -

shipping

A

Cow has lymphoma

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56
Q

Alpha herpes virus =

Necrotizing virus in multiple species

A

= Bovine herpes virus

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57
Q

EIPH =

hemosiderin in macrophages

A

T/F - sublingual is subject to first pass

(false)

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58
Q

What is the subject to first pass?

Both A (Intraperitoneal) and B (oral)

A

T/F most drugs for goats are off label -

True

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59
Q

T/F the pH of the small intestine has little effect on weak acids due to its large surface area

(true)

A

Warfarin and NSAID question -

decrease the dose of warfarin bc NSAID increases warfarin affects and leads to bleeding

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60
Q

T/F about brain may be central or peripheral compartment depending on drug -

true

A

What molecules does the brain like -

lipophilic and low MW

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61
Q

What is the goal of the body with drugs -

make them hydrophilic and larger

A

What should you do if you can’t do IV for resuscitation?

IO

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62
Q

What is the best fluid type for all cases?

It depends!

A

Acetaminophen and cats:

is metabolized into toxic intermediates

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63
Q

Pt with liver dz and hypoproteinemia and drug that is highly protein bound-

Increased Vd

A

Worried about increase risk of edema bc of decreased capillary oncotic pressure

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64
Q

Drug half-life (10 mg) what defines the half life (lakritz question) Time it will take for the drug concentration to reach 5 mg

A

One property of first order drugs is the half-life. If you are unsure whether a drug is first order or not…
The drug is eliminated such that each half-life lowers concentration by constant proportion of original drug dose

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65
Q

Zero order elimination of drugs is associated with which of the following?

(constant T1/2, constant K, can predict C0)= None of the above

A

Which is the correct chart for calculating slope, C0, etc?

Choice B (straight line)

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66
Q

Foal with increased through 5 days later:

all B, C, and D are correct (toxic buildup in the kidney having decreased excretion, higher plasma level buildup, T1/2 is prolonged?)

A

Log graph that is linear curvature is a graph of what :

zero order metabolism

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67
Q

Tablet medication rate limiting step -

dissolution

A

Isotonic fluid disperses to →

extracellular compartment

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68
Q

Hypertonic =

500% volume increasing power

A

Which is true?

Concerns for AKI has caused decrease of use of synthetic colloids

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69
Q

Most likely cause of hypernatremia?

Hypotonic/free water loss

A

Safe rate of K supplementation?

0.5 meq/kg/hr

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70
Q

Acid base question that expected chronic respiratory alkalosis changes would be 11 +/-3 HCO3 and actual change was 12 = metabolic compensation is greater than what is expected from compensation alone because dog was just hit by a car a few hours ago and normal before that, so chronic compensation would not have time to kick in yet

A

Small intestinal ultrasound with strong distal acoustic shadow indicates foreign body

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71
Q

Abdominal radiograph with visible fabric foreign material in stomach and duodenum

A

Cat with linear foreign body showing abdominal rads with lots of plication

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72
Q

Pancreas that is hypoechoic with surrounding hyperechoic fat

A

Mass on ultrasound, could be neoplastic or or granulomatous dz

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73
Q

Cleft palate can be either soft or hard palate

A

Sublingual salivary gland causes most primary salivary diseases including the two most common sialoceles, cervical and sublingual

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74
Q

For sublingual sialocele aka ranula, check under the tongue next to sublingual caruncle

A

Horse aging with a mix of deciduous incisors and permanent incisors=

2 yrs old

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75
Q

Horse owner concerned about strangles with bums under mandible:

teeth eruption

A

18 year old horse with step on 408 caused form

missing or expired 108

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76
Q

Horse with large hook on 106

A

Dog that “vomits” a while after eating but no nausea, no retching, on PA you see it can chew and swallow fine:

primary esophageal

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77
Q

Dog that picks up food fine, but folds neck and has multiple swallowing attempts is

cricopharyngeal dysphagia

A

Dog that had anesthesia yesterday and now regurgitation is most likely

reflux esophagitis

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78
Q

Cat can get esophagitis from

doxycycline

A

GDV dog with tachycardia, stomach tympany, unproductive vomiting

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79
Q

Any dog with megaesophagus must get

anti acetylcholine receptor test

A

Angus bull you remove wire from tongue still depressed and anorexic from metabolic acidosis due to

loss of salivary buffers

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80
Q

Which of the following is a common form of liver disease in LA:

hepatic lipidosis

A

Pre partum pregnancy toxemia in sheep

81
Q

In copper toxicity is commonly associated with which of the following:

excess copper in the diet of sheep

A

2.5 yo heifer raised on pasture with diarrhea with bottle jaw in march:

ostertagiasis type II

82
Q

Winter dysentery is associated with

cows with explosive diarrhea that runs through the herd in short period

A

Malignant catarrhal fever caused by ovine herpes type 2

83
Q

Hepatic lipidosis -

High ALP and low GGT

A

Two prior surgerys and two lesions, preferred Method of biopsy -

open surgery

84
Q

Strangulating lipoma in acute severe colic

A

Intraluminal pressure -

edema as cause for colic in non-obstructive colic

85
Q

Obstructive shock -

large colon volvulus

A

Cytology looking for Intracellular bacteria -

sepsis testing

86
Q

Ischemic horse what would you see? -

serosanguinous fluid with 3.5 tp and 7000 wbc count

A

Photocholyrphyll not metabolized →

stuff on the nose causing light sensitivity in liver disease animal

87
Q

Horse on farm with toxic line and diarrhea =

salmonella

A

Rotavirus but horse still suckling, large volume watery diarrhea, no blood

88
Q

Meconium impaction -

horse with mom’s milk still full

A

Suspect horse to have anterior enteritis -

slow moving

89
Q

Proliferative enteritis on histopath →

lawsonia

A

All would be susceptible to coronavirus

90
Q

Candida albicans fungus

A

Giardia w/ thick mucus poops

91
Q

What is predisposing in cattle for vagal digestion?

All of the above?

A

Hardware disease in cattle -

there is a spectrum of symptoms

92
Q

Lymphangiectasia in dog with panhypoproteinemia

A

Question about what factor is included -

Albumin in one test and not the other

93
Q

U/A next step for dog with hypoalbuminemia

A

What diagnostic step is going to give you the best diagnostic for dog with large bowel hematochezia and tenesmus:

Fecal flotation

94
Q

FIP pyogranulomatous a hallmark

A

low pcv and increased BUN

GI bleed as an answer

95
Q

Mixed pattern

A

Ammonia testing for hepatic encephalopathy in horse with liver abnormalities and neuro signs

96
Q

Hepatic injury and HE

A

Poss hepatic encephalopathy and cell damage

97
Q

SNAP PLI test -

you wouldn’t use for panc case

A

Bile acids not helpful when we already have elevated tbil

98
Q

Dog with chronic rimadyl use
Two questions on this - what explains the ALT (lepto) - also had azotemia
Can’t determine for panc vs injury question. Need more info

A

What is true?

Biliary mucosal presents with a wide range of symptoms

99
Q

the cat not eating

Hepatic lipidosis

A

Hepatic lipidosis

treated with enteric feeding management

100
Q

What wouldn’t you do a liver biopsy on?

Tomcat with acute liver toxicity not helpful for biopsy

A

predisposes to gastric ulcers

Feeding two corn meals

101
Q

Aspiration pneumonia and esophageal stricture

A

Pheylbutazole predisposes you to ulcer

102
Q
  • acute pancreatitis

Enlarged pancreas

A

Tissue sample w/ cow tongue -

viral serology

103
Q

Rhodococcus Equi on necrotic horse intestine

A

Finely ground feed w/ pig

104
Q

Ostertagi w/ cow

A

Cat with light colored spots on liver =

biliary carcinoma

105
Q

Dog with reticular pattern liver -

adenovirus

A

Johne’s disease

106
Q

Parvovirus -

intussusception with hemorrhagic lumen

A

Pig with yellow stuff in intestines -

Streptococcus

107
Q

Most common in dog oral melanoma

A

Most common in cat was squamous cell carcinoma

108
Q

Type I resorptive lesion (309 i think)

A

Maxillary shot with F’d up teeth (A, almost all were PD4?)

109
Q

400s tooth that didn’t erupt and dentigerous cyst

A

Other x-ray image with furcation and dentigerous cyst

110
Q

Stomatitis

A

Pulpitis -

pulp will stop growing

111
Q

Common laboratory abnormality in hyperthryoid cats:

elevated liver enzymes

A

Which of the following is false regarding hyperthryoid diagnostics:

Nuclear scintigraphy is not useful in the diagnosis of hyperthyroid

112
Q

What is not a common clinical sign reported in hyperthryoid cats:

heat seeking behavior

A

Laboratory findings in hypothyroid dog:

non-regenerative anemia, hypercholesterolemia

113
Q

Expected hypothyroid results based on hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis:

low T4, high TSH

A

Non-thyroidal illness, which is true:

severity of decrease in thyroid hormones is related more to severity of illness than the type of illness, total T4 is more consistently affected, decreased T4 synthesis, inhibits T4 to T3

114
Q

WHich is false: DM is influenced by genetics and lifestyle, B cell loss or destruction resulting in absolute insulin deficiency causing hyperglycemia is consistent with Type 1 diabetes DM is influenced by genetics and lifestyle, abnormal b cell function resulting in relative insulin deficiency causing hyperglycemia consistent with type 2 diabetes, Type 2 is related to obesity and no problem in B cells

A

are hallmark signs of diabetes mellitus

PU PD polyphagia, and weight loss

115
Q

Which is not apart of DKA in the bloodwork -

acidosis (normal AG/bicarb)

A

Cat with diabetes mellitus BW and high fructosamine:

tell the owner to recheck to prove persistence

116
Q

Which of the following is false about fructosamine:

reflects glycemic control over the past 2-3 HOURS - fasle, should be 2-3 weeks

A

Hypoglycemia clinical signs:

altered mentation, dullness, sleepiness, weakness, recumbency, ataxia, blindness, altered vision, seizure

117
Q

Not part of diagnosing Insulinoma:hypoglycemia, appropriate clinical signs, hyperinsulinemia, hypoalbuminemia

A

Next step to test for insulinoma:

abdominal CT and insulin glucose ratio test

118
Q

Which is false with insulin resistance:

Most insulin resistance is related to bacterial infections and concurrent endocrinopathies, dogs usually related to acromegaly, cats related to hyperadrenocorticism

A

What is not a common UA?

Hypoalbumin
Ketone is, uremic toxins are, lactic acids are, salicylates are

119
Q

Which is false?

Adrenal adenocarcinoma is most common cause of spontaneous cushings

A

What do you see with PDH?

Bilateral alopecia

120
Q

Which is true regarding thyroid mass?

Most are benign in cats and you treat with _______

A

What predisposes to vitamin D deficiency?

Heavy fleece, born in ohio, dark skin, etc

121
Q

Cattle get ketosis after parturition, small ruminants get pregnancy toxemia after parturition

A

Camel - hyperosmolality (hyperglycemia, high sodium, neuro signs/CSF)

122
Q

What are the four parts of hepatic lipidosis?
Decreased NEFA oxidation, decreased fat leaving the liver, increased liver fat formation and increased mobilization?

Decreased NEFA oxidation, decreased fat leaving the liver, increased liver fat formation and increased mobilization?

A

Hypocalcemia in a cow?

Anions

123
Q

What would cause the ribs to look like this?

Low vitamin D

A

Golden Retriever 10 y/o -

digital palpation?

124
Q

Goat picture with hyperplastic goiter-

iodine deficiency

A

Incidental findings on autopsy →

cortical nodular hyperplasia

125
Q

Horse cross section of head that had facial swelling :

fibrous osteodystrophy

A

Ferret adrenal disease

caused by hyperestrogenism

125
Q

Which is consistent with Addion’s →

no response to ACTH

A

LDDS →

consistent with PDH

126
Q

diagnose ADH

Low endogenous ACTH to

A

for consistent with Addison’s

Eosinophilia and hypocholesterolemia

127
Q

Addison’s for one (low albumin, low glucose, normal USG slightly azotemic)
Not PLN, CKD

A

consistent with cushing’s

Thrombocytosis and hyperkalemia for

128
Q

What causes most significant hypocalcemia?

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Azotemic, low USG, normal Ca, high PTH

Answer choice was secondary renal hyperparathyroidism

129
Q

What would be your top differential (just a chemistry, normal kidney values, high Ca, low phosphorus) →

hyperparathyroidism

A

EMS most likely → ?

Welsh pony

130
Q

eACTH

October for

A

sweat test

Torbuline for

131
Q

What neuro abnormality?

Hypothalamic disorder

A

Which horse is most likely for hepatic lipidosis -

horse that was endoparasitic

132
Q

What makes up EMS?

Obesity, laminitis, ID

A

Matching question
Malignancy, vitamin D toxicosis, hypoparathyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, chronic renal

132
Q

PTH-rp ( )

7 y/o american, hypercalcemia, normal PTH, normal phosphorus, normal kidney

A

SDF (synchronous diaphragmatic flutter) -

Alkalosis and low ionized calcium

133
Q

Which two would you see with CKD?

Decreased 1,25 hydroxycalcitriol, high phosphorus

A

What would be your top two differentials?

Humoral of malignancy, hyperparathyroidism

134
Q

Horse right after racing now has flutter thing with abdomen at same time as heart beat -

horse most likely has low ionized calcium secondary to metabolic alkalosis

A

Euthryoid question -

answer was about being related to TYPE of disease, not severity

134
Q

High anions in the cow decreases absorption of PTH

A

Chronic renal failure -

high phosphorus, low 1,25 dihydroxy…

134
Q

Seasonally pruritic dog with ear issues?

Atopic Dermatitis

A

What are your top differentials for dogs with axillary, chest, paw alopecia with no bacterial organisms?

Atopic dermatitis and CAFR

134
Q

Cat - type 2 diabetes specific management

A

Acid increases ionized ca, alkalosis decreased ionized calcium

134
Q

No left shift leukocytosis with uncomplicated DM

A

What is true with demodex in dogs?

Greasy WHWT, search for D. injai

135
Q

Hypothyroidism -

high cholesterol

A

Addison’s -

eosinophilia, low cholesterol

136
Q

What is the next step for the question above? Food trial?
I don’t think this one was treat for fleas but like, should do that if they’re not on prevention so i feel like this one was dumb

A

What is the correct matching pair?

Adult flea = entire life on host, pupa = resistant to treatment

136
Q

What do you suspect about this dog (GSD?) with rear lesions?

FAD

A

Coffee grounds in kitty ears →

Otodectes

137
Q

What should you do if you see this fly on a horse (simulium spp black fly)? Put it in the barn on warm sunny days
Keep away from water (none of those choices!) - answer choice was putting it inside the bran

A

What would you want to do next for a dog with brown ceruminous ear issues?

Cytology

137
Q

What do you not see with cutaneous vasculitis?

Papules

A

Which of the following is not deep pyoderma?

Impetigo

137
Q

What do we suspect is this big mite with hooks in a kitty?

Cheyletiella blakei

A

What do we not expect to see with superficial pyoderma?

Draining tracts

137
Q

What is true for dogs with Cushings?
False was pruritic lesions, can’t see systemic/cutaneous simultaneously, not seeing PU/PD/PP rules out

Calcinosis is pathognomonic but rare

A

Symptoms of Alopecia X that fit in a pomeranian?

Normal minimum database

138
Q

What does this dermogram show?

Sarcoptic mange

A

T/F about anal glands (contain bacteria, keratinocytes, variable contents) -

True

138
Q

What is true about cats with demodex?

Contagious to other cats

A

Question given two pictures - one was showing horse with truncal lesions, one was showing cytology of railroad pattern -

DERMATOPHILOSIS

138
Q

How do you differentiate between EM and TED?

TED is related to pre-existing medication administration

A

How do you test in general for autoimmune disorders?

Routine histopathology of primary lesions

138
Q

What color will fluoresce?

Apple Green

A

What will fluoresce 50% of the time?

Microsporum canis

138
Q

What do you see with Pemphigus? ???????

A

What kind of inflammation is this and what caused it?
Was this the cat cytology?

Neutrophilic with intracellular bacteria

138
Q

Dog that recently went to the lake and now has a nodule. What else should you test for?

Ocular lesions/fundic exam

A

What test would you wanna run for this patient? (something fungal related)

I don’t remember the exact context, but i remember putting skin cytology and thoracic radiographs

138
Q

What would you be concerned about in a hunting dog?

Actinomyces - fell on a cactus

A

Dachshund with truncal bumps, painful, not walking -

sterile nodular panniculitis

138
Q

What kind of tumor is this with cytology image?

MCT

A

Cytology image, you tell owners it will likely spontaneously regress on its own, what is it:

Histiocytoma

138
Q

Poodle with white scaling keratinizing skin, follicular casting -

sebaceous adenitis

A

How do you confirm suspicion of poodles with sebaceous adenitis?

biopsy

138
Q

When does lice infect?

Winter

A

What is true about the Screwworm?

It is eradicated, only pops up occasionally

138
Q

What should be a differential for lick granuloma nodular something (don’t totally remember this one) -

neoplasia

A

What do you not see with hypothyroidism?

Nodular dermatitis

138
Q

Most common cause of pyoderma -

staphylococcus pseudintermedius

A

Saddle shaped mite =

cheyletiellosis

138
Q

Tufted papules →

Dermatophilosis

A

What is true about skin issues in cows?

We can treat based on symptoms (saves time and money)

138
Q

Early lesion of facial discoid lupus erythematosus is nasal depigmentation

A

6 week old lab puppy with facial swelling, submandibular lymph node enlargement, pustular otitis -

suspect juvenile cellulitis

138
Q

Diascopy test differentiates erythema vs hemorrhage

A

First question about a dog that is pruritic, has erythema, crusts, and alopecia.

The main problem is pruritus

138
Q

Which can be both a primary and a secondary problem:

alopecia

A

Comedones = dilated hair follicle filled with cornified cells and sebaceous material

138
Q

Hairy heel wart is caused by what bacteria?

Treponema

A

What is true about pigs with diamond disease?

Causes all of the above (fever, enlarged joints, lameness, rhomboid skin lesions)

138
Q

Fake image asking what is shown =

erosion (shallow epiderma defect not penetrating basement membrane)

A

Gold standard to diagnose blastomycosis:

cytological or histopathological identification of the fungal organism

138
Q

Dog with seasonal chronic recurrent otitis externa most likely has

atopic dermatitis

A

Question on contact dermatitis what is true =

neomycin and propylene glycol otitis medications have been implicated

139
Q

Test to determine if the cat has pruritus of primary alopecia =

trichogram

A

horse microscopic organism that looks similar to a fungus and has parallel rows of coccoid bodies =

dermatophilosis

139
Q

Main lesion in pyoderma and pemphigus:

papules

A

Cat owners often are unsure if their cat is pruritic -

(this was an answer choice to be true)

139
Q

What is true about insect bite hypersensitivity:

hypersensitivity to salivary proteins

A

AD is a very complicated disease that includes loss of barrier, activation of naive T lymphocytes, Th2 cell migration to skin, activate neurons, pro inflammatory cytokines

140
Q

Adenocarcinoma is a malignant neoplasm arising from glandular tissue

A

Oncogenes may promote cancer after undergoing which of the following mutations?

Dominant gain-of-function

141
Q

You identify suspected neoplasm on the skin of a dog and submit an excisional sample, however, due to the degree of anaplasia, they cannot confidently distinguish between carcinoma and sarcoma.

Immunohistochemistry would be the ancillary diagnostic the pathologist is likely to recommend

A

Typical cytologic features of malignancy are anisocytosis and anisokaryosis

142
Q

Cytology from dog with diffuse lymphadenopathy =

lymphoma

A

Which is a cytologic feature of epithelia neoplasms?

Clusters of polygonal cells

143
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed tumor of the ear canal in canines?

Ceruminous gland tumor

A

Soft tissue sarcomas are grouped together due to similar biologic behavior, which of the following is a common feature?

Very locally invasive

144
Q

5 yo FS DSH diagnosed with feline injection site sarcoma. Which diagnostics for complete staging?

3 view thoracic rads, CT of abdomen and pelvis, FNA of medial iliac lymph nodes

A

Which of the following is true regarding gastrointestinal stromal tumors?

The tumor arises from the interstitial cells of cajal

145
Q

Tigone is the most common site for tumors of the urinary bladder in dogs

A

10 yo yorkie with 2.5 cm oral mass, no metastasis in thoracic rads, but FNA of lymph nodes has concerns for metastatic disease, what is the WHO stage?

Stage III

146
Q

Which is false for cat nasal neoplasms?

Carcinoma is the most common feline nasal neoplasm (lymphoma is most common)

A

What percent of dogs with AGASACA will have bilateral disease?

10%

147
Q

Which is not common clinical signs of urinary carcinoma?

Azotemia

A

Where is another location for anal carcinoma to appear?

tail

148
Q

What is the most common cause for hypercalcemia?

⅔ Neoplasia

A

Perianal gland adenoma growth is stimulated by androgenic hormones

149
Q

Hypercalcemia causes PU and compensatory PD

A

Cats that are FeLV positive are more likely to develop lymphoma in certain anatomic locations such as mediastinal, nodal, and CNS

149
Q

On the thoracic radiographs of said dog, you find a 5 cm soft tissue mass in the periphery of the left caudal lung lobe. Which is the most useful diagnostic test to obtain a cytologic specimen?

Ultrasound guided percutaneous aspiration

A

Second step in the development of neoplasia?

Transformation (initiation, transformation, promotion)

150
Q

Which of the following statements about lymphoma in felines is false?

Diagnosing mediastinal lymphoma is typically very difficult, as this disease is commonly low grade and cancerous lymphocytes are small/mature

A

Which of the following is not a common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lymphoma in horses?

Laminitis

151
Q

Which statement is true regarding the presenting clinical signs in dogs and cats with primary lung tumors?

Cats can present with gastonintesinal sings

A

Dog with two week history of cough and normal PA, what is your first diagnosis?

3 view thoracic radiographs

152
Q

Carcinoma in situ is a preinvasive form of carcinoma that remains within the epithelial structures and is a premalignant lesion

A

Mast cells are least likely to metastasis to the lungs

153
Q

Which is false?

Thoracic radiographs can only detect mets that are 7-9mm making them an unuseful diagnostic to evaluate metastasis

A

Grade is the description of the tumor based on microscopic evaluation, stage is the evaluation based on metastasis

154
Q

Intrinsic cause of neoplasia=

germ cell mutation

A

Common feature of benign neoplasm:

compressive

155
Q

Cytology on dog who had previous MCT removed on hind limb and now has mass on thoracic limb =

plasma cell tumor

A

What is true about osteosarcoma:

towards the knee, away from the elbow

156
Q

Inappropriate step in diagnostics for dog with lytic bone lesion on radiographs on distal radius?

Amputations

A

Which case would you refer for further staging diagnostics?

Ear tumor, cat with tumor under tongue, nasal tumor = all of them

157
Q

Retrovirus cause for neoplasia=

FeLV

A

Jennings- SSC is locally invasive and has late metastasis

158
Q

Sarcoid is locally invasive, rare to metastasise

A

BLV is associated lymphoma

159
Q

What would you not refer =

either boxer with gingival hyperplasia or 6 month old cat with 2 mm rostral mass

A

Nasal tumor and refer for CT and nasal biopsy

160
Q

Dog with non traumatic hemoabdomen =

90% likelihood of being malignant

A

% Yield of cytology diagnosis bone lytic lesion?

161
Q
A
162
Q
A
163
Q
A
164
Q
A
165
Q
A
165
Q
A
166
Q
A

Diseases and Diagnosis (23 decks)

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