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anatomy lecture > Study Guide Exam 1 > Flashcards

Study Guide Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the levels of human structures? And explain them.

A
  • Organism (completely individual, can function on it’s own)
    • Organ systems (A group of organs that do specific functions)
    • Organs (composed of two or more tissue types)
    • Tissues (A mass of similar cells that work together to do a specific function)
    • Cells (Smallest living unit)
    • Organelles (Small structures in a cell that carry out specific functions in the cell)
    • Molecules (Particles of at least 2 atoms that are chemically bonded)
  • Atoms ( you know this already on the slides though)
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2
Q

Name the 11 Organ systems

A
  1. Skeletal system
  2. Muscular system
  3. Nervous system
  4. Endocrine system
  5. Circulatory system
  6. Lymphatic system
  7. Respiratory system
  8. Digestive system
  9. Urinary system
  10. reproductive system
  11. Integumentary system
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3
Q

What is the definition of Anatomy?

A

Anatomy is structure, The structural basis of body functions and other things

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4
Q

What is the definition of Physiology?

A

Physiology is function, The function that is relevant to a specific structure

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5
Q

What is the definition of morphology?

A

It is the shape or form of a structure

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6
Q

What is the definition of Gross Anatomy?

A

The study of body structures visible to the naked eye

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7
Q

What is the definition of Histology Anatomy?

A

Observing structures under the microscope

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8
Q

What is the definition of ultrastructural anatomy?

A

Structures at the subcellular to molecular level

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9
Q

What is the definition of surface anatomy?

A

External structure of the body (physical exams on a patient)

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10
Q

What is the definition of regional anatomy?

A

systems at once in that specific region

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10
Q

What is the definition of radiological anatomy?

A

Use of X rays

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11
Q

What is the definition of systemic anatomy?

A

Study of one organ system at one time

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12
Q

What is the Retroperitoneal?

A

outside the peritoneum, which is covered by peritoneum on the one side facing the peritoneal cavity

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13
Q

What are the Retroperitoneal organs?

A

kidneys, ureters, adrenal glands, most of the pancreas, and the abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava

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14
Q

What is the function of the Skeletal system

A

Support, movement, mineral storage,

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15
Q

What is the function of the Muscular system

A

movement, stability, heat production, communication

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16
Q

What is the function of the Nervous system

A

motor control, rapid internal communication, motor control

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17
Q

What is the function of the Endocrine system

A

hormone production

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18
Q

What is the function of the Circulatory system

A

distributes nutrients

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19
Q

What is the function of the Lymphatic system

A

detection of pathogens, production of immune cells

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20
Q

What is the function of the Respiratory system

A

absorbs oxygen and gets rid of CO2

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21
Q

What is the function of the Digestive system

A

nutrients breakdown and absorption, metabolism

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22
Q

What is the function of the Urinary system

A

elimination of waste, regulation of blood volume and pressure

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23
Q

What is the function of the Integumentary system

A

Protection, water retention, produce vitamin D, thermoregulation

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24
Q

What is the function of the reproductive system

A

reproductive roles like producing sperm and eggs and stuff like that

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25
Q

What organs do the thoracic cavity contain?

A

Lungs, heart, major blood vessels, esophagus, the trachea, bronchi and thymus

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26
Q

What organs do the abdominal cavity contain?

A

Contains most of the digestive organs
Spleen, kidneys, and ureters

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27
Q

What organs do the pelvic cavity contain?

A

distal large intestine, urinary bladder, urethra, and reproductive organs

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28
Q

What are the three serous membranes?

A

Peritoneum, Pleura, Pericardium

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29
Q

Where is the serous membrane Peritoneum located?

A

In the abdominal cavity

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30
Q

Where is the serous membrane Pleura located?

A

around the lungs

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31
Q

Where is the serous membrane Pericardium located?

A

around the heart

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32
Q

Define the Scanning electron microscope (SEM)

A
  • Has less resolution but produces 3-D images
  • Does not see through the object but can view only the surface of the specimen
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33
Q

Define the Light microscope (LM)

A

Limited to magnification you can see color but cannot see the plasma membrane

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34
Q

Define the Transmission electron microscope (TEM)

A
  • High resolution
    Slices the specimen and cannot reuse the specimen
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35
Q

What does cholesterol do in the plasma membrane?

A

Stiffens and not stiffens the membrane right by the phospholipids

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36
Q

Describe the glycolipids

A

Only on the extracellular face
Phospholipids with short carbohydrate chains bound to them
These glycolipids contribute to the

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37
Q

What part of the phospholipids are hydrophilic and which are hydrophobic?

A
  • The heads are hydrophilic
  • The tails are hydrophobic
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38
Q

What are peripheral proteins?

A

Proteins that are not imbedded in the lipid bi layer but are only on the outside intercellular or extracellular face

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39
Q

What are integral proteins?

A

they are proteins that are imbedded into the lipid bi layer

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40
Q

What are transmembrane proteins?

A

They go through the bilayer

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41
Q

What are receptor proteins?

A

It passes the message through to the inside of the bilayer

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42
Q

What are enzyme proteins?

A

they break down a certain thing when it attaches to it

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43
Q

What are channel proteins?

A

It lets stuff through

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44
Q

What are gated channel proteins?

A

it opens and closes and lets certain things through

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45
Q

what are cell-identity molecules?

A

it identifies the things that attach to it

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46
Q

what are Tight junctions?

A

it links the cells together like a zipper NOTHING GETS THROUGH

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47
Q

What are desmosomes of the cell junctions?

A

It prevents substances from pulling a part. It DOES NOT prevent things from going through or around them. It is like a snap on a onsie

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48
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

it links cells together and allow small substances to be transported between cells

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49
Q

DO THE QUIZLET AND LEARN ABOUT Demonstrate a basic understanding of each of the cell components and their function;

Outline the processes for moving material into and out of a cell

A
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50
Q

What does epithelial tissue do?

A

covers surface or secretes but also forms glands and is made out of epithelial cells. IT is avascular

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51
Q

What does connective tissue do?

A

binds/connects

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52
Q

What does muscle tissue do?

A

contracts or shortens

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53
Q

What does nervous tissue do?

A

conducts impulses

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54
Q

Where in the body does the Simple squamous epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Alveoli/ari sacs, flat one layer of cells, diffuses O2

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55
Q

Where in the body does the Simple cuboidal epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Kidney, Cube like one layer of cells, absorbs and secretes

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56
Q

Where in the body does the Simple columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the stomach/small intestine, in columns on layer of cell, has a brush border

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57
Q

Where in the body does the Pseudostratified columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Trachea/lungs, has goblet cells

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58
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified squamous epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the esophagus, female reproductive tract, and anal canal , flat two layer of cells,

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59
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified cuboidal epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Sweet gland, ovaries, and testes, Cube like two layers of cells

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60
Q

Where in the body does the Urothelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Bladder, can stretch

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61
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Salivary duct, pharynx, larynx, & male urethra , In columns two layers of cells

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62
Q

What are the 4 categories of connective tissue?

A
  1. fibroblasts (connective tissue proper)
  2. adipose tissue
  3. supportive tissue
  4. fluid connective tissue
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63
Q

What do fibroblasts do?

A

Produce fibers and ground substance

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64
Q

How do you classify Dense CT and Loose CT?

A

Dense CT- It has a lot of fibers and cells but little ground substance (not a lot of space)

Loose CT- not a lot of cells and fibers but A LOT of ground substance (space)

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65
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

The dominant cell type that is filled with fat. They are fat cells

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66
Q

What is supportive connective tissue?

A

It is bone tissue (hard CT)

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67
Q

What is areolar tissue?

A

It is loose CT that has a lot of empty space and surrounds organs and binds them to other organs and organ systems

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68
Q

What is reticular CT?

A

It is a loose CT that forms the structural framework of organs in the immune system

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69
Q

What is dense regular CT?

A

It is a dense CT that the fibers are parallel and closely packed together (like ligaments)

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70
Q

What is dense irregular CT?

A

Random arrangement of fibers that go many directions that help with unpredictable stress

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71
Q

What are the 2 forms of supportive connective tissue and their functions/definitions?

A

Compact bone- more complex and it forms the outside of the bone
Spongy bone- less organized and fills the heads of long bones and middle layer of flat bones

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72
Q

Define cartilage

A

A stiff connective tissue with a flexible rubbery matrix and is avascular

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73
Q

What is fluid connective tissue?

A

It is blood and other fluid stuff

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74
Q

Define muscle tissue

A

Contracts or shortens when there is no signal and very little extracellular matrix

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75
Q

Define skeletal muscles

A

Voluntary movement, Large and cylinder shaped with multiple nuclei and have striations

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76
Q

Define smooth muscles

A

Found in the viscera, are fusiform shaped and only have one nucleus that is in the center with no striations, involuntary movement

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77
Q

Define cardiac muscles

A

smaller cells, it branches out and only have one nucleus, involuntary movement

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78
Q

Define nervous tissue

A

Nervous tissue is specialized for communication via electrical and chemical signals

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79
Q

What is tissue growth?

A

When Tissues grow because their cells increase in number NOT size

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80
Q

What is metaplasia in different tissue types?

A
  • Metaplasia (a change from one type of mature tissue to another) CAN REVERSE
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81
Q

What is Differentiation in different tissue types?

A
  • Differentiation ( development of a more specialized form)
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82
Q

What is Dysplasia in different tissue types?

A
  • Dysplasia (an increasing degree of disordered growth of the tissue CAN REVERSE
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83
Q

What is Neoplasia in different tissue types?

A

Neoplasia ( is the development of a tumor) CANNOT REVERSE

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84
Q

What is Hyperplasia in different tissue types?

A

Hyperplasia (cell multiplication)
Hypertrophy (enlargement of preexisting cells)

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85
Q

What is the difference between the gland and a membrane?

A

gland- is a cell or organ that secretes substances for use elsewhere in the body or for elimination as waste

Membrane- A membrane is a thin sheet of tissue acting as a boundary or lining in the body. Membranes can be composed of epithelium, CT only or both

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86
Q

Why do cells grow in number instead of getter larger?

A

because once the size gets too big they have to divide which makes things grow in our bodies

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87
Q

What are compact bones?

A
  • Forms the outer shell of the bone and forms the majority of the bone
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88
Q

What is an osteon? What is it made out of?

A

central canal + its lamellae; the BASIC STRUCTURAL UNIT OR FUNCTIONAL SUBUNIT OF COMPACT BONE

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89
Q

What is the Concentric lamellae in a compact bone?

A

layers of matrix concentrically arranged around a central canal

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90
Q

What is a Central canal in a compact bone?

A

a neurovascular channel surrounded by concentric lamellae

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91
Q

What is a Perforating canals in a compact bone?

A

perpendicular passages which join central canals along their length, within osteons; contain blood vessels & nerves; also known as NUTRIENT CANALS

92
Q

What is a Circumferential lamellae in a compact bone?

A

lamellae that surround and line the outer surfaces of a long bone

93
Q

What is a Interstitial lamellae in a compact bone

A

– remains of old osteons that broke down as the bone grew and remodeled itself.

94
Q

What are osteoblasts/its functions?

A

secretes fibers and ground substance (makes it) bone forming cells

95
Q

What are osteocytes/its functions?

A

old osteoblasts which become entrapped in little cavities within the matrix called lacunae (sit in it) mature bone cells

96
Q

What are osteoclasts/its functions?

A

multinucleated giant cells that reabsorb bone tissue (tears it up) break down bone

97
Q

What are osteogenic/its functions?

A

stem cells found in the endosteum and the inner layer of periosteum and within the central canals; give rise to osteoblasts

98
Q

What is the epiphysis as a general feature of a long bone?

A

The end of a long bone

99
Q

What is the diaphysis as a general feature of a long bone?

A

the body or shaft of a long bone

100
Q

What is the Perorating fibers (sharpays fibers) as a general feature of a long bone?

A

Thick strands that anchor the periosteum into the bone

101
Q

What is the hyaline cartilage as a general feature of a long bone?

A

The ends of the adjoining bones (so at the joints) have hyaline cartilage instead of periosteum

102
Q

What is the medullary cavity as a general feature of a long bone?

A

the hollow part of the bone

103
Q

What is the metaphysis as a general feature of a long bone?

A

the part of the diaphysis that is right by the epiphysis growth plate

104
Q

What is the nutrient foramen as a general feature of a long bone?

A

little holes that allow the blood vessels of the periosteum to go through

105
Q

What is the nutrient canal as a general feature of a long bone?

A

it creates the outer shell of a long bone

106
Q

What is the difference between the epiphysial plate and the epiphysial line?

A

epiphysial plate: it is a growing plate in between osseous portions of a growing long bone

epiphysial line: It is the epiphysial plate but it just stops growing. it is the remnant of the growth plate

107
Q

Where are the paranasal sinuses located?

A

in the nasal cavity

108
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses? And how many are there?

A

2 x sphenoidal sinus
2 x front sinus
2 x ethmoidal sinus
2 x maxillary sinus

109
Q

LOOK AT PICTURE TO SEE WHERE ALL THE SINUSES ARE LOCATED IN THE NASAL CAVITY

A
110
Q

How many neurocranium bones are there?

A

8

111
Q

What are the neurocranium bones? And how many do we have of each?

A

Fontal bone 1
parietal bone 2
temporal bone 2
occipital bone 1
sphenoid bone 1
ethmoid bone 1

112
Q

How many facial bones do we have

A

14

113
Q

What are the names of the facial bones? And how many do we have of each?

A

2 Maxillae
2 Palatine bones
2 Zygomatic bones
2 Lacrimal bones
2 Nasal bones
2 Inferior nasal conchae
1 Vomer
1 Mandible

114
Q

How many cranial bones do we have?

A

22

115
Q

How many bones do we have in the ear (auditory ossicles)?

A

3

116
Q

How many true ribs do we have?

A

7

117
Q

How many false ribs do we have?

A

5

118
Q

How many bones do we have in our vertebral column?

A

26 (when they fuse)

119
Q

How many vertebral disks do we have?

A

23

120
Q

How many cervical vertebrae do we have?

A

7

121
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do we have?

A

5

122
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae do we have?

A

12

123
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae do we have?

A

4

124
Q

How many sacral vertebrae do we have?

A

5

125
Q

How many total ribs do we have?

A

12

126
Q

What is the sagittal suture?

A

The suture in the middle top of the head (parts the parietal bones)

127
Q

What is the coronal suture?

A

the anterior suture

128
Q

What is the lambdoid suture?

A

the posterior suture

129
Q

What is the squamous suture?

A

the lateral suture

130
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus of the vertebral disc?

A

The middle part of the disk that is soft and a jelly like substance

131
Q

What is the anulus fibrosus of the vertebral disc?

A

The hard outer ring that is a fibrocartilage

132
Q

What are synarthroses joints?

A

Joints that are united by fibrous tissue

133
Q

What are the three different types of synarthroses joints?

A

Sutures, syndesmosis, and gomphosis

134
Q

Define sutures as a synarthroses joint

A

Immobile joints that closely bind the bones of the skull to each other

135
Q

Define syndesmosis as a synarthroses joint

A

has a lot of collagen fibers between the skeletal components, it gives these joints a little more mobility

136
Q

Define gomphosis as a synarthroses joint

A

it is the socket that holds a tooth in place

137
Q

What are amphiarthroses joints?

A

Bones that are linked together by cartilage

138
Q

What are the two types of amphiarthroses?

A

Synchondrosis, and symphysis

139
Q

Define Synchondrosis amphiarthroses joint and an example

A

The bones are united by hyaline

example the first rib attachment to the sternum

140
Q

Define symphysis as a amphiarthroses joint and an example

A

the bones are united by fibrocartilage

example the cartilage between the two pubic bones of the hip bone

141
Q

What are synovial joints (diarthroses)?

A

They are joints in the elbow knees and knuckles

142
Q

What is articular cartilage in the synovial joints?

A

it is hyaline cartilage that covers facing surfaces of the bones

143
Q

What is joint capsule in the synovial joints?

A

Encloses joint cavity and retains fluid

144
Q

What is the outer fibrous capsule in the synovial joints?

A

is with the periosteum of the adjoining bones)

145
Q

What is the inner synovial membrane in the synovial joints?

A

produces synovial fluid

146
Q

What is articular disc in the synovial joints?

A

a fibrocartilage pad that grows across the joint capsule

147
Q

What is the meniscus in the synovial joints?

A

discs that extend inward but do not entirely cross the joint, it stabilizes the joint and reduces the chance of dislocation in regards to the femur

148
Q

What are tendons in the synovial joints?

A

attaches a muscle to bone most important in stabilizing a joint

149
Q

What are ligaments in the synovial joints?

A

Attachés bone to bone

150
Q

What is a bursa in the synovial joints?

A

a fibrous sac filled with synovial fluid located between muscles between bone and skin or where a tendon passes over a bone

151
Q

What is synovial fluid in the synovial joints?

A

(it is lubricant for the joint and is secreted by the synovial membrane

152
Q

What is tendon sheath in the synovial joints?

A

The stuff around a tendon

153
Q

What are the 6 major synovial joints?

A
  1. Ball and socket
    1. Pivot
    2. Saddle
    3. Hinge
    4. Plane
  2. Condylar
154
Q

How do the 6 major synovial joints move in regards to the planes? (example like multiaxial or the other ones) And what bones are in each major group that do that motion?

A
  1. Ball and socket (multiaxial joint the shoulder and the hip)
    1. Pivot (monoaxial elbow and knee)
    2. Saddle (biaxial metacarpal joints)
    3. Hinge (monoaxial elbow knee and finger and knuckles)
    4. Plane (biaxial the carpal bones)
  2. Condylar Biaxial the wrist and metacarpal bones)
155
Q

What does multiaxial, biaxial, and monoaxial mean?

A
  • Multiaxial (a joint which can move in any of the three fundamental perpendicular planes) Shoulder and hip do this
    • Biaxial ( a joint which moves in only two planes) metacarpal joints
  • Monaxial ( A joint which moves in only one plane) knee and elbow
156
Q

What part of the body is the most complex diathrosis?

A

The knee joint

157
Q

What bones form the talocrural joint?

A

The tibia, fibula, and talus

158
Q

What is flexion, extension, and hyperextension?

A
  • Flexion (decreases the joint angle)
    • Extension (straightens the joint angle)
  • Hyperextension (returning a joint from a fixed position and continuing beyond the zero position it does not feel comfortable)
159
Q

What is abduction, and adduction?

A
  • Abduction (moves away from the midline
    Adduction (movement back toward the midline)
160
Q

What is elevation and depression?

A
  • Elevation (movement that raises a body part vertically in the frontal plane)
    Depression (Lowers a body part in the same plane)
161
Q

What is protract and retract?

A
  • Protract (to reach in front of you)
    Retract (When you return it to the resting position or pulling your shoulders back)
162
Q

What is rotation, external rotation, and medial rotation?

A
  • Rotation (movement in which a bone spins on its long axis)
    • External rotation ( anterior surface spins away from the midline)
      Medial rotation (anterior surface spins toward the midline)
163
Q

What is supination and pronation?

A
  • Supination (moves palm to face anteriorly
    Pronation (moves palm to face posteriorly)
164
Q

What is dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, and eversion?

A
  • Dorsiflexion (foot elevates at the ankle actual flexion)
    • Plantar flexion ( foot points down at the ankle)
    • Inversion (soles face medially)
      Eversion (soles face laterally)
165
Q

What is radial flexion, ulnar flexion, palmar abduction, and opposition?

A
  • Radial flexion (tilts the hand toward the thumb)
    • Ulnar flexion (tilts it toward the little finger)
    • Palmar abduction (moving thumb away from the palm)
      Opposition (the thumb touches the fingers)
166
Q

What category of connective tissue is ALL types of dense CT and loose CT apart of?

A

fibroblasts (connective tissue proper)

167
Q

What is connective tissue proper?

A

Fibroblasts and Dense and Loose CT

168
Q

Define the Sudoriferous glands (Apocrine)

A

A sweat gland that releases stinky sweat and the duct opens in the hair follicle rather than the skin surface. It is active during puberty. Found int he groin and armpit

169
Q

Define the Sudoriferous glands (eccrine)

A

A sweat gland that cools the body by producing watery respiration on the skin. Helps with thermoregulation. Abundant in the palms and forehead

170
Q

Define the Sebaceous glands

A

Oil glands that produce oil called sebum everywhere except on thick skin

171
Q

Define the Ceruminous glands

A

It is a gland only int he external ear canal and it produces ear wax

172
Q

Define the mammary gland

A

A gland that produces milk

173
Q

What is the epidermis of the skin?

A

It is the epithelium of the skin (top layer), it lacks blood vessels and has many layers to it

174
Q

What is the dermis of the skin?

A

It is the connective tissue of the skin and it is beneath the epidermis. It has fibroblasts and contains smooth muscle

175
Q

What is the hypodermis of the skin?

A

It is areolar and adipose tissue just underneath the skin (fat). it is not a true layer of skin and it is highly vascular

176
Q

What is the papillary layer of the dermis?

A
  • Thin layer that consists of areolar tissue
  • Allow for mobility of cells like leukocytes to defend against organisms
177
Q

What is the reticular layer of the dermis?

A
  • Deep thick layer
    Consists of dense irregular connective tissue
178
Q

What is the stratum corneum as one of the epidermis tissue layers?

A
  • Keratinized and dead tissue cells
  • Stops water loss and penetration
  • top layer
179
Q

What is the stratum Lucidum as one of the epidermis tissue layers?

A
  • Only found in thick skin
  • Cells that lack organelles
  • second layer
180
Q

What is the stratum Granulosum as one of the epidermis tissue layers?

A
  • Consists of 3 to 5 layers of keratinocytes and some dendritic cells
  • They are stained dark
  • third layer
181
Q

What is the stratum Spinosum as one of the epidermis tissue layers?

A
  • Several layers of keratinocytes
    • The thickest layer of the epidermis
    • Mitosis takes place here
  • Has melanin
  • fourth layer
182
Q

What is the stratum Basale as one of the epidermis tissue layers?

A
  • Deepest layer
    • Only one cell thick
    • Mitosis takes place here
  • Has melanin
183
Q

How many layers does thick skin have? And where is thick skin on our body?

A

5, on the sole of the feet, palms surface, fingers and toes

184
Q

How many layers of skin does normal skin have?

A

4

185
Q

What is the sarcolemma in the muscle fiber?

A

it is essentially the plasma membrane and It forms the transverse tubules

186
Q

What are the transverse tubules?

A

It carries electrical signals from the cell surface into the interior which causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open

187
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) in the muscle fibers?

A

Where the fluid collects the Calcium and they forma network around each myofibril

188
Q

What does calcium do in muscle contration?

A

It activates the muscle contraction

189
Q

What is the terminal cisterns in the muscle fibers?

A

They are the dilated end sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). They are the calcium storage site

190
Q

What is the sarcoplasm in the muscle fiber?

A

It is the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

191
Q

What does the sarcoplasm contain? And explain them

A

glycogen:( a carb that provides energy for the cell)

myoglobin: ( a red pigment which provides some of the oxygen)

192
Q

What is the sarcomere in a muscle fiber?

A

it is the functional subunit of the muscle fiber

193
Q

What is a myofilament?

A

Fibrous protein strands that carry out the contraction process

194
Q

What are the three types of myofilaments?

A

Thick myofilaments (myosin)
Think myofilaments (actin)
Elastic filaments

195
Q

What are thick myofilaments (myosin)?

A

Made of myosin that looks like a golf club

196
Q

What are thin myofilaments (actin)?

A

Made out of actin that looks like a necklace and it has other components called tropomyosin, troponin, and the g region

197
Q

What does tropomyosin, and troponin do in thin myofilaments (actin)?

A

The tropomyosin is a large strand that goes around the actin

Troponin: is attached to the tropomyosin and it binds to calcium when it is excited

198
Q

What is the g region in thin myofilaments (actin)?

A

It is the part of the thin myofilament that binds to the head of the thick myofilament (myosin)

199
Q

What are elastic filaments?

A

They are springy protein called titin. Its function is that it goes through the core of each thick filament (myosin) and anchors it to the structures called the Z discs. Essentially it stabilizes the myofilaments

200
Q

How do you get the striated appearance in muscles?

A

It is the alternating pattern on thick and thin filaments

201
Q

What is the A band in the thick myofilaments (myosin)?

A

They are darker and alternate with the lighter I band

202
Q

What are in the A band in the thick myofilaments (myosin)?

A

the H band and the M line

203
Q

What is the H band and M line in the A band of the thick myofilament (myosin)?

A

H band: it is the central region of the A band that stains a little lighter due to the lack of thin myofilaments

M line: it anchors the thick filaments (myosin) together

204
Q

What zone are the A band and the M line apart of?

A

In the bare zone

205
Q

What is the I band?

A

the light stripe of the thin myofilaments (actin)

206
Q

What is the Z disc in the I band?

A

It is the midline of the I band that anchors thin and elastic filaments

207
Q

Describe where calcium goes during contraction of muscle fibers

A

The SR releases teh calcium after getting an electrical trigger

Then it binds to the troponin and does the contraction stuff

then after the contraction is done it goes off the troponin

208
Q

What is the simple version on how muscle fibers contract?

A

the myosin filaments pull actin filaments closer which shortens sarcomeres within a fiber

209
Q

How do muscle fibers relax?

A
  • The nerve signal stops
    • The SR reabsorbs the calcium
    • The troponin blocks the calcium from attaching
  • And tension subsides
210
Q

What are the two types of muscle fibers? (all of there names)

A

Slow Oxidative (SO), slow twitch, red, type 1

Fast Glycolytic (FG), fast twitch, white, type 2

211
Q

What is the difference between Fast Glycolytic (FG), fast twitch, white, type 2, and Slow Oxidative (SO), slow twitch, red, type 1 fibers?

A

Slow Oxidative (SO), slow twitch, red, type 1: Aerobic respiration and do not fatigue easily, uses oxygen to make ATP, good for endurance not good for fast twitch stuff

Fast Glycolytic (FG), fast twitch, white, type 2: Anaerobic ATP production is used, they fatigue quickly and more easily, good for fast twitch not endurance

212
Q

What is epimysium?

A

A fibrous sheath that surrounds the entire muscle on the outer surface

213
Q

What is perimysium?

A
  • Encloses each muscle fascicle
  • It is a thicker CT sheath
214
Q

What is endomysium?

A
  • Encloses each muscle fiber or myofiber
  • It is a thin sleeve of loose CT
215
Q

What is a prime mover?

A

A muscle that produces the main force

216
Q

What is an example of a prime mover?

A

Synergist muscle

217
Q

What is synergist muscle?

A

A muscle that aids the prime mover

218
Q

What is an antagonist muscle?

A

A muscle that opposes the prime mover

219
Q

What is a fixator muscle?

A

A muscle that prevents a bone from moving

220
Q

What is the difference between extrinsic muscles of a region and intrinsic muscles of a region?

A

Extrinsic: They are muscles that control a part of the body that they are not in (like an outside force)

Intrinsic: Muscles that control a part of the body that they are in

221
Q

How does force relate to levers?

A

When the force increases the speed or distance increases NOT BOTH INCREASE

222
Q

What is always considered the fulcrum in the body?

A

THE JOINTS

223
Q

Where is the fulcrum, effort, and resistance located on a first class lever?

A

The fulcrum is in the middle and the effort and resistance is on either side

224
Q

Where is the fulcrum, effort, and resistance located on a second class lever?

A

The fulcrum is on one end effort is on the other end and the resistance is in the middle

225
Q

Where is the fulcrum, effort, and resistance located on a third class lever?

A

The fulcrum is on one end and the resistance is on the other end and the effort is in the middle

226
Q

What does HA and LA = in regards to lever and force and fulcrum stuff?

A

HA = high power, low speed

LA= low power, high speed

227
Q

If the MA value is less than 1.0 how much speed/distance and force will the lever produce?

A

Less force but more speed or distance

228
Q

If the MA value is greater than 1.0 how much speed/distance and force will the lever produce?

A

More force but less speed or distance

anatomy lecture (11 decks)

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