Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy Lecture > FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

Define radiography

A
  • It gives off harmful radiation
    • The bone appears white and blocks off the radiation
    • The air behind appears black because the radiation can go through it
    • And organs appear grey
      Contrast medium is used for visualization of hollow organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define CT scans

A
  • This still uses radiation
    • It uses X rays and a computer generates images of thin slices of the body like a coin
    • The computer stacks a series of these images to construct a 3-D image of the body
    • It is used to identify tumors, kidney stones, aneurysms, cerebral hemorrhages
      DSR ( Dynamic Spatial Reconstructor) produces 3D video images
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define MRI

A
  • There is no exposure to harmful radiation
    • Another type of fMRI (functional moment to moment changes in physiology
    • It does soft tissue visualization
    • You lie in a tube a surround by a powerful electromagnet
      Can identify ANYTHING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define sonography

A
  • No radiation
    • Sonogram (obstetrics)
    • Echocardiography (beating heart)
    • It reflects the ultrasound waves
      Second oldest and second widely used method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define PET scans

A
  • Used to assess the metabolic state of tissue and uses radiation
    • It begins with an injection of radioisotopes into patients bloodstream labeled as glucose
    • The glucose produces a color image that shows which tissues were using the most glucose
    • Damaged tissue consumes little or no glucose and appears dark
    • Shows tissue death from heart attack
    • It is an example of nuclear medicine use of radioisotopes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What structures are in the axial region?

A

Head, Neck, Trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What structures are in the appendicular region?

A

Upper limbs, lower limbs, and all the girdles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is the epigastric region located?

A

The upper middle part of the body (stomach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the Ubmilical region located?

A

The middle part of the body (the region of the belly button and small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the hypogastric region located?

A

The lower middle part of the body (where the reproductive structures are)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the right and left hypochondriac regions located?

A

Top lateral areas on the trunk area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are the left and right lumbar regions located?

A

middle lateral areas on the trunk area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are the left and right Inguinal regions located?

A

Bottom lateral areas on the trunk area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 2 cavities in the trunk called? And where are they located?

A

Thoracic cavity (superior part of the trunk)

Abdominopelvic cavity (the inferior part of the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 2 cavities in the Abdominopelvic cavity called? What organs do they contain?

A

Abdominal cavity (digestive organs, spleen, kidneys ureters)

Pelvic cavity (Distal large intestine, urinary bladder, urethra, reproductive organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the serous membrane peritoneum and where is it located in the body?

A

It lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs in the cavity. It is located in the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the serous membrane Pleura and where is it located in the body?

A

It surrounds the lungs. It is located in the thoracic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the serous membrane Pericardium and where is it located in the body?

A

It surrounds the heart. It is located in the thoracic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal?

A

Intraperitoneal (the whole organ is covered in peritoneum)

Retroperitoneal (only one side of the organ is covered by peritoneum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between visceral serous membranes and parietal serous membranes?

A

Visceral (The inner membrane lining the body cavity and attaches to the organ directly)

Parietal (The outer membrane that lines the body cavity wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define the characteristics of epithelial tissues

A
  • held together by cell junctions
  • no extracellular matrix
  • It covers organs a surfaces and forms glands
  • There for protections, secretion, and absorption
  • It is avascular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define the characteristics of connective tissue

A
  • highly vascular
  • it is the most abundant tissue in the body
  • produce fibers (fibroblasts)
  • eat bacteria and debris (macrophages
  • Are white blood cells (Leukocytes)
  • Produce antibodies (Plasma cells)
  • Secrete heparin and Histamine (mast cells)
  • have fat cells (adipocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define the characteristics of muscle tissue

A
  • It contracts and shortens
  • It conducts or impulses
  • very little extracellular matrix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define the characteristics of nervous tissue

A
  • It is specialized for communication via electrical and chemical signal
  • Neurons (detect stimuli respond quickly and transmit info
  • Glial cells (supports the neurons)s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where in the body does the Simple squamous epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Alveoli/ari sacs, flat one layer of cells, diffuses O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where in the body does the Simple cuboidal epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Kidney, Cube like one layer of cells, absorbs and secretes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where in the body does the Simple columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the stomach/small intestine, in columns on layer of cell, has a brush border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where in the body does the Pseudostratified columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Trachea/lungs, has goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified cuboidal epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Sweet gland, ovaries, and testes, Cube like two layers of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified squamous epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the esophagus, female reproductive tract, and anal canal , flat two layer of cells,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where in the body does the Urothelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Bladder, can stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where in the body does the Stratified columnar epithelium surround/belong to in the body? And describe it

A

Found in the Salivary duct, pharynx, larynx, & male urethra , In columns two layers of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Tissue growth through cell multiplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do tissues grow?

A

Their cells increase in number or in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do skeletal muscles and adipose tissues grow?

A

Through hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Where cells just get bigger they do not multiply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the stratum corneum of the epidermis?

A
  • Keratinized and dead tissue cells
    • Stops water loss and penetration
  • top layer of the epidermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the stratum lucidum of the epidermis?

A
  • Only found in thick skin
  • Cells that lack organelles
  • second layer of the epidermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the stratum granulosum of the epidermis?

A
  • Consists of 3 to 5 layers of keratinocytes and some dendritic cells
  • They are stained dark
  • third layer of the epidermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the stratum spinosum of the epidermis?

A
  • Several layers of keratinocytes
    • The thickest layer of the epidermis
    • Mitosis takes place here
  • Has melanin
  • fourth layer of the epidermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the stratum basale of the epidermis?

A
  • Deepest layer
    • Only one cell thick
    • Mitosis takes place here
      Has melanin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are keratinocyte cells as cells of the epidermis?

A
  • Synthesize keratin
  • Cells that die and flake off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are stem cells as cells of the epidermis?

A

Undifferentiated cells that divide and give rise to keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are melanocyte cells as cells of the epidermis?

A

Make melanin (the brown or black pigment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are tactile (merkel) cells as cells of the epidermis?

A

Touch receptors that join with nerves (few of these)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are dendritic (langerhans) cells as cells of the epidermis

A

Stand guard against the pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the dermis?

A
  • Connective tissue of skin
    • Beneath the epidermis
    • Has fibroblasts
    • Contains smooth muscle
  • Fibroblasts are CT cells of the dermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is hyaline cartilage?

A

It is the cartilage at the end of adjoining bones (at the joints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the hypodermis?

A
  • Areolar and adipose tissue just underneath the skin (fat)
    • Not a true layer of skin
  • Highly vascular
  • drugs are injected here
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is osseous tissue?

A

Essentially it is connective tissue with a hard matrix. it has collagen to help with bending and stress on the bone. It also has minerals to help the bone resist compression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is bone marrow and where is it found?

A

It is found in the medullary cavity of bones. Red bone marrow forms all types of blood cells and yellow bone marrow is fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is fibrocartilage?

A

Has collagenous that resist tearing and helps with strength and is found in intervertebral discs. And is in between hyaline cartilage and dense regular CT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

How bones grow in diameter and thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the organs of the skeletal system?

A

Bone, Blood, Bone marrow, Cartilage, Adipose tissue, Nervous tissue, Fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is elongated growth?

A

They grow in length using growth plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why do adults have less bones than children do?

A

Because the bones fuse together so therefore there are less bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define the characteristics of the C1 vertebra

A

It is a flat bone that does the yes motion and articulates with the occipital bone of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define the characteristics of the hyoid bone

A

It is at the base of the tongue and does not articulate with any other bone (it is floating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

It is where cartilage is replaced to become bone to form the skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the epiphyseal line?

A

It is the result of the epiphyseal plate that has been ossified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the secondary curvatures (lordosis) of the spine?

A

Cervical and lumbar curvatures that appear after crawling and walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the primary curvature (kyphosis) of the spine?

A

Thoracic and pelvic curvatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is Scoliosis of the spine?

A

abnormal lateral curvature, most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Hyperkyphosis
(hunchback) of the spine?

A

Abnormal posterior thoracic curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Hyperlordosis
(swayback) of the spine?

A

abnormal anterior lumbar curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the latin names for Fibrous joints, Cartilaginous joints, Bony joints, and Synovial joints?

A

Fibrous joints- Synarthrosis
Cartilaginous joints- Amphiarthrosis
Bony joints- Synostosis
Synovial joints- Diarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are fibrous joints?

A
  • Joints that are united by fibrous tissue
    Have little to no movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are cartilaginous joints?

A
  • Bones are linked by cartilage
  • little movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are bony joints?

A
  • Immovable joints that form when the gap between two bones ossifies
  • only in the cranium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are synovial joints?

A
  • they are joints that move
  • they are joints in the elbow and knees and knuckles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are sarcolemma?

A
  • This forms tunnels called transverse tubules (t) tubules
  • The t-tubules carries electrical signals from the cell surface into the interior which causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A
  • This is a place where fluid collects for Ca2+
    • The Ca2+ activates muscle contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are terminal cisterns?

A
  • Is part of the SR and they are dilated end sacs
    They are calcium storage site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are sarcoplasm?

A
  • Is the cytoplasm in a muscle fiber
    • This contains glycogen ( a carb that provides energy for the cell)
  • And it also contains myoglobin ( a red pigment which provides some of the oxygen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the sarcomere?

A
  • A segment of myofibril
  • The sarcomere is the contractile unit of the muscle fiber (the functional subunit)
  • it shortens during contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are myofilaments?

A
  • Fibrous protein strands that carry out the contraction process
  • The three kinds of myofilaments are thick (myosin), thin (actin), and elastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are thick myofilaments?

A
  • Made of several hundred molecules of a motor protein called myosin
    • Other word for it is myosin
  • Looks like a golf club
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are thin myofilaments?

A
  • Composed of intertwined strands of protein called ACTIN or FIBROUS ACTIN
  • Looks like a necklace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the difference between tropomyosin and troponin

A

Tropomyosin- large strand that goes around the actin

Troponin- It is attached to the tropomyosin and binds to calcium when excited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the G region in the trorpomyosin?

A

It binds to the head of the thick myofilament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are elastic filaments?

A
  • It goes through the core of a each thick filament (myosin) and anchors tit to structures called the z discs
  • They stabilize the myofilaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why do muscles shorten?

A

Because their individual sarcomeres shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Define the characteristics of skeletal muscles

A

Voluntary movement, is striated, and attach to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Define the characteristics of cardiac muscles

A

Involuntary movement, striated, they cannot regenerate easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a second class lever?

A

The fulcrum is on one end effort is on the other end and the resistance is in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Define the characteristics of smooth muscles

A
  • Involuntary movement
  • Nonstriated.
  • Fusiform cell shape.
  • Tapered at ends.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a first class lever?

A

The fulcrum is in the middle and the effort and resistance is on either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is a third class lever?

A

The fulcrum is on one end and the resistance is on the other end and the effort is in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What happens when the MA value of a lever is greater than 1.0?

A

the lever produces more force but less speed or distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What happens when the MA value of a lever is less than 1.0?

A

the lever produces more speed or distance but less force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does HA and LA equal to?

A

HA- High power, lower speed

LA = Low power, high speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the direct attachment of muscle-bone attachment?

A

Close association with bone, little separation between bone and muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the indirect attachment of the muscle-bone attachment?

A

The muscle ends short of the bony destination, Tendon attaches muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are Oligodendrocytes as glial cells in the CNS?

A
  • It makes myelin in CNS
  • Forms myelin in brain and spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are Ependymal cells as glial cells in the CNS?

A

They line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cords. Similar to cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are Microglia cells as glial cells in the CNS?

A

They are basically white cells that go through the CNS looking for debris or other problems and get rid of those problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are Astrocytes as glial cells in the CNS?

A
  • Most abundant cell in the CNS
  • They provide support and nourishment for neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are schwann cells as glial cells in the PNS?

A
  • Forms a sheath around the nerve fibers of the PNS
  • They assist in conduction in PNS cells and regeneration of damaged nerve fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are Satellite cells as glial cells in the PNS?

A
  • Provide support and nourishment
  • They surround somas of neurons in the ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define the term neuron

A

Carry out the system’s communicative role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the properties that a neuron does? And describe them

A

Excitatory- All cells respond environmental changes
Conductive- responds to stimuli by producing electrical signals

Secretion- When the electrical signal reaches the end of a nerve fiber it secrets a chemical called the neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are Sensory (Afferent) Neurons?

A

convey info to the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are Interneurons?

A

always lie within CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are Motor (Efferent) Neurons?

A

send signals to muscles and
glands (effectors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What type of nerve are spinal nerves?

A

They are mixed nerves, they do sensory and motor stuff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What do spinal nerves create when they come together?

A
  • When spinal nerves come together they create a posterior and anterior ramus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where is the phrenic nerve located?

A

In the cervical plexus C1 to C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Why is the phrenic nerve so important?

A

It plays an essential role in breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Where is the cervical plexus located

A

Located in the neck C1-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Where is the brachial plexus located and define the general anatomy

A

Located in the shoulder, C5-C6 form the superior tunk, C7 forms the middle trunk, C8 to T1 from the inferior trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Where is the lumbar plexus located and define the general anatomy

A

Located in the lower back, formed by anterior rami of nerves L1 to L5, have 5 roots and 2 divisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Where is the sacral plexus located and define the general anatomy

A

Located below the lumbar, formed by anterior rami of nerves L4, L5
and S1 through S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Where is the coccygeal plexus located and define the general anatomy

A

Located in the lower sacrum and coccygeal, formed by anterior rami of S4, S5, and Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the different components of the of the midbrain?

A
  • metencephalon
  • myelencephalon
  • medulla oblongata
  • pons
  • cerebellum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the medulla oblongata responsible for as part of the midbrain?

A

Responsible for regulating the most basic functions of life:
blood pressure, breathing, and heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does the midbrain become?

A

The mesencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the three divisions of the forebrain?

A

-Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Epithalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Define the thalamus

A

involved in sensory processing
and in the memory and emotional functions of the limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Define the hypothalamus

A

Major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Define the epithalamus

A

The epithalamus is a very small mass of tissue composed mainly of the pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Define the lateral ventricles and state how many there are in the body

A
  • There are 2
  • Largest; form an arc in each cerebral hemisphere; interventricular foramen
    connects lateral ventricles to third ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Define the fourth ventricles and state how many there are in the body

A
  • There are 1
  • Between pons and cerebellum; forms the
    central canal which extends through the
    medulla oblongata into the spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Define the third ventricles and state how many there are in the body

A
  • There are 1
  • A canal called the ‘cerebral aqueduct’
    passes down the core of midbrain and
    leads to fourth ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the brain barrier system?

A

strictly regulates what substances get from the bloodstream TO THE brain TISSUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the Blood–CSF barrier as another component of the brain barrier system?

A
  • Seals nearly all of the blood capillaries throughout the brain tissue.
  • Astrocytes stimulate the formation of tight junctions BETWEEN endothelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the main differences of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A

Sympathetic - This is the flight or fight nervous system. It reduces blood flow to the skin and digestive tract, increases blood glucose and heart rate, pupils dilate, and decreases digestion and waste elimination.

Parasympathetic - It is the calming effect on many body functions. “rest and digest”. Decreases heart rate and stimulate (increases) digestion and waste elimination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

The eye

A

Parasympathetic- Constricts pupil

Sympathetic- Dilates pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

salivary gland

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates salivary gland secretion

Sympathetic- Inhibits salivary gland secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

lungs

A

Parasympathetic- Constricts bronchi in lungs

Sympathetic- relaxes bronchi in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Heart

A

Parasympathetic- slows heart

Sympathetic- accelerates heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Stomach and Intestines

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates activity of stomach and intestines

Sympathetic- inhibits activity of stomach and intestines

125
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Pancreas

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates activity in pancreas

Sympathetic- inhibits activity in pancreas

126
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Gallbladder

A

Parasympathetic- stimulates gallbladder

Sympathetic- inhibits gallbladder

127
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Bladder

A

Parasympathetic- promotes emptying bladder

Sympathetic- inhibits emptying bladder

128
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Genitalia

A

Parasympathetic- promotes erection of genitalia

Sympathetic- promotes ejaculation and vaginal contractions

129
Q

Compare and contrast the origin in CNS in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Thoracolumbar

Parasympathetic - Craniosacral

130
Q

Compare and contrast the Location of ganglia in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- paravertebral ganglia adjacent to spinal column

Parasympathetic - terminal ganglia neat or within target organs

131
Q

Compare and contrast the fiber lengths in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Short preganglionic, long postganglionic

Parasympathetic - long preganglionic, short postganglionic

132
Q

Compare and contrast the neuronal divergence in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Extensive

Parasympathetic - Minimal

133
Q

Compare and contrast the effects of system in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- widespread and general

Parasympathetic - more local and specific

134
Q

What is the purpose of the middle ear?

A

it functions
to magnify vibrations of the
tympanic membrane by
passing through the auditory
ossicles

135
Q

What is the purpose of the inner ear?

A

To help keep your balance

136
Q

What are the structures in the middle ear?

A
  1. Tympanic membrane
  2. Tympanic cavity
  3. Auditory tube (Eustachian tube)
  4. Auditory ossicles
  5. Tensor tympani muscle
  6. Stapedius muscle
137
Q

What are the structures in the inner ear?

A
  • Osseous Labyrinth
  • cochlea
  • Vestibule
  • semicircular ducts
  • perilymph
  • cochlear duct
  • utricle
  • semicircular canal
  • endolymph
  • membranous labyrinth
138
Q

Where is the anterior chamber located in the eye? And what is it filled with? And what does it prevent?

A

The space between the cornea and the iris, it is filled with aqueous fluid, and it keeps the anterior region of the eyeball from collapsing

139
Q

Where is the posterior chamber located in the eye? And what is it filled with? And what does it prevent?

A
  • Located between the iris and the
    lens
  • Also filled with aqueous fluid
    -it keeps the posterior region of the eyeball from collapsing
140
Q

Where is the vitreous chamber located in the eye? And what is it filled with? And what does it prevent?

A
  • Located between retina and lens
  • Filled with vitreous humor, keeps
    posterior portion of eyeball from
    collapsing
141
Q

What is the TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone)?

A

promotes secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone and prolactin

142
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce? (6)

A
  1. Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
  2. Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone
  3. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
  4. Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
  5. Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone
  6. Growth Hormone Inhibiting Hormone
143
Q

What is the CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone)?

A

Promotes secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone

144
Q

What is the GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone)?

A

Promotes secretion of growth hormone

145
Q

What is the PIH (prolactin inhibiting hormone)?

A

inhibits secretion of prolactin

146
Q

What is the GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone)

A

Promotes secretion of follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

147
Q

What is the GHIH (growth hormone inhibiting hormone)?

A

Inhibits secretion of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone

148
Q

What is the alpha cell of the pancreatic islets?

A

Secrete glucagon in between meals &
when glucose levels are low; causes a rise in blood sugar

149
Q

What is the beta cells of the pancreatic islets?

A

secrete insulin during and immediately after a
meal in response to rising levels of glucose and amino acids

150
Q

What are the delta cells of the pancreatic islets?

A

secrete somatostatin
(growth hormone-inhibiting hormone)

151
Q

What are the PP cells of the pancreatic islets?

A

secrete pancreatic polypeptide (PP) for 4 to 5 hours after a meal

152
Q

What are the names of the hormones produced by the pituitary gland? (7)

A
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  2. Thyroid stiulantina hormone (TSH)
  3. Growth hormone (GH)
  4. Prolactin (PRL)
  5. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  6. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  7. Growth hormone (GH
153
Q

What is the function of the Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

A

secretion of glucocorticoids

154
Q

What is the function of the Thyroid stiulantina hormone (TSH)?

A

growth of thyroid and secretion of thyroid hormone

155
Q

What is the function of the Growth hormone (GH)?

A

Stimulates growth

156
Q

What is the function of the Prolactin (PRL)? (in males and females)

A

Female = making milk

Male = testosterone secretion and increase LH sensitivity

157
Q

What is the function of the Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)? (in males and females)

A

Female = growth of ovarian follicles and secretes estrogen

Male = sperm production

158
Q

What is the function of the Luteinizing hormone (LH)? (in males and females)

A

Female = ovulation production

Male = testosterone secretion

158
Q

What happens during Hematopoiesis in the red blood cell life cycle?

A

It makes the red blood cells, white blood cells, and paletes

159
Q

What happens during Hematopoietic tissues in the red blood cell life cycle?

A

Tissues that produce blood cells

159
Q

What happens in the utero during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

Stem cells rise and give rise to red blood cells

160
Q

What happens at birth during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

the liver stops producing red blood cells

161
Q

What happens just after birth during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

The spleen stops producing red blood cells but it continues to produce white blood cells

162
Q

What happens when you are growing up and living life during the life cycle of red blood cells? (everything after birth)

A

The red bone marrow produces red blood cells

162
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Red blood cell production

163
Q

Explain how a stem cell becomes a red blood cell through erythropoiesis

A

The stem cell becomes an erythrocyte colony-forming unit (ECFU), then it gets a hormone attached to it called the hormone erythropoietin which turns it into an erythroblast (which synthesizes hemoglobin). After the hormone is attached the nucleus dies and it turns into a reticulocyte and is ready to turn into a red blood cell.

164
Q

Describe the composition of blood plasma

A

It is made up of 92% water. Then the rest of it is made up of nutrients, proteins, electrolytes, nitrogenous wastes, hormones, and gases

165
Q

Describe the Neutrophils as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

They are are aggressively antibacterial cells.

165
Q

Describe the Basophils as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

secrete two chemicals that aid in the body’s defense processes: histamine and heparin

165
Q

Describe the Eosinophils
as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

Defends against allergies, parasitic infections, collagen diseases, and diseases of the spleen and CNS (central nervous system), and they phagocytize

166
Q

Describe the Lymphocytes as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

Do many different immune functions, which include destructions of cancer cells and warding off microbial pathogens

167
Q

Describe the Monocytes as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

They transform into large tissue cells and they do it during inflammation and viral infections

168
Q

What is the epicardium of the heart wall?

A

The most outside layer of the heart (most superficial layer). Most have simple squamous epithelium but there are some areas that are thicker and have visceral pericardium.

169
Q

What is the myocardium of the heart wall?

A

They are composed of cardiac muscle, and performs the work of the heart. Thickness varies

170
Q

What is the endocardium of the heart wall?

A

Line the interior part of the heart chambers. It also covers the valves and inner lining of blood vessels. HAS NO ADIPOSE TISSUE

171
Q

What is the outer wall of the pericarium?

A

It is a fibrous sac called the fibrous pericardium that is not attached but surrounds the heart

172
Q

What does the foramen ovale allow in fetal circulation?

A

Allows some blood to bypass pulmonary circulation by flowing from RA to LA and from there it will flow from the LV to aorta

173
Q

What does the Ductus Arteriosus allow in fetal circulation?

A
  • Allows most of the blood in pulmonary trunk to bypass lungs
    by sending it directly to the aorta arch
  • Most blood uses this bypass
174
Q

What does the Ductus Arteriosus turn into after it closes?

A

the “ligamentum arteriosum”

175
Q

What does the foramen ovale turn into after it closes?

A

The fossa ovalis

176
Q

How does blood flow into the heart?

A

Blood enters the right atrium from the superior (SVC) and inferior vena cava

177
Q

How does blood flow out through the heart? (4 steps) (in to out)

A
  1. Blood in the right atrium flows through the right AV valve into the right ventricle
  2. Then the ventricle contracts and it forces the pulmonary valve open
  3. Blood then flows through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary trunk
  4. Blood is then distributed by the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lungs
178
Q

How does blood return back into the heart?

A

It returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins to the left atrium

179
Q

How does the blood flow in the heart when it returns from the lungs? (5)

A
  1. Blood in the Left atrium flows through left AV valve into LV
  2. The LV (left ventricle) contracts and forces the aortic valve open
  3. Blood then flows through the aortic valve into ascending aorta
  4. Then the blood in the aorta is distributed to every organ in the body
  5. then the blood returns again to the RA via the vena cavae
180
Q

Define the characteristics of the Squamous alveolar cells (type I)

A
  • Cover 95% of the alveolar surface area
  • Their thinness allows for rapid gas exchange
    between the alveolus and bloodstream
181
Q

Define the characteristics of Great alveolar cells (type II)

A
  • Produce surfactant which prevents the smallest bronchioles & alveoli from
    collapsing when one exhales
  • They repair alveolar epithelium when damaged
  • 5% of surface area.
  • Outnumber type I cells even though the surface
    area is less
182
Q

Define the characteristics of Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

A
  • These keep the alveoli free of debris
  • These are the most numerous cells in the lungs
183
Q

What are the differences between the upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract?

A

upper respiratory tract- Has the Nose, pharynx (throat), and larynx (voice
box); from the nose through the larynx;
respiratory organs in head and neck

lower respiratory tract- Trachea, bronchi and lungs; from trachea
through lungs; respiratory organs of the
thorax

184
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage epiglottic

A
  • Unpaired
  • Most superior one
  • Guards the opening into the larynx
  • made of elastic cartilage
185
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage thyroid

A
  • Unpaired
  • Largest cartilage
  • it covers the anterior and lateral aspects of the larynx
  • made of hyaline cartilage
  • The anterior peak is called the laryngeal prominence (adam’s apple)
186
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage cricoid

A
  • Unpaired
  • Inferior to the thyroid cartilage
  • Is ring like
  • Has the cricothyroid ligament that suspends the cricoid cartilage from the thyroid cartilage
  • makes the box of the voice box
187
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage arytenoid

A
  • Paired
  • Posterior to the thyroid cartilage
  • The intrinsic laryngeal muscles regulate speech by rotating the arytenoid cartilages
188
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage corniculate

A
  • Paired
  • Little horns attached to the upper ends of
    the arytenoid cartilages
  • The arytenoid and corniculate cartilages
    function in speech
189
Q

Define the laryngeal cartilage cuneiform

A
  • Paired
  • Supports the soft tissues between the arytenoids and epiglottis
190
Q

What is the function of the primary (main bronchi) of the bronchial tree?

A

inhaled (aspirated) objects lodge more in the right bronchus than the left

191
Q

What is the function of the Lobar (secondary) bronchi of the bronchial tree? And how much are there on the right and left side

A

enter and supply the individual
lobes of the lungs); come directly off primary bronchi
- right 3
- left 2

192
Q

What organs are in the right upper quadrant?

A

Gallbladder, right lobe of the liver

193
Q

What is the function of the Segmental (tertiary) bronchi of the bronchial tree? And how much are there on the right and left side

A

Each of these ventilates on functionally independent unit of lung tissue called a bronchopulmonary segment
- right 10
- left 8

194
Q

What are bronchioles?

A

Continuations of the airway that lack supportive cartilage

195
Q

What organs are in the right lower quadrant?

A

Appendix, cecum, right ovary, right ureter

196
Q

What organs are in the upper left quadrant?

A

Spleen, Stomach, left lobe of the liver

197
Q

What organs are in the left lower quadrant?

A

Sigmoid colon, left ovary, left ureter

198
Q

What are terminal bronchiole?

A

gives off two or more smaller RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLES which have alveoli budding from their walls

199
Q

What is the differences between Humoral immunity and Cellular immunity?

A

Humoral Immunity- Performed by B lymphocytes and antibodies

Cellular Immunity - Performed or carried out by cytotoxic T cells or T lymphocytes. The T cells attack enemy cells with lethal hit of toxic chemicals

200
Q

What areas are lymph nodes concentrated in? (7)

A
  • Cervical
  • Axillary
  • Thoracic
  • Abdominal
  • Intestinal & Mesenteric lymph nodes
  • Inguinal
  • Popliteal
201
Q

What is the difference between the Right Lymphatic Duct and the Thoracic duct? (draw which part of the body they drain)

A

Right Lymphatic duct- Contains the right jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunk. It drains the upper right limb, thorax, and head. And Empties into the right subclavian vein

Thoracic duct- It drains the rest of the body that the right lymphatic duct doesn’t. And contains the rest of the trunks. And it empties into the left subclavian vein

202
Q

What are the different secondary lymphatic organs? (3) Why are they considered secondary lymphatic organs?

A
  • Lymph nodes
  • tonsils
  • spleen
  • Because the T and B cells migrate to these organs after they mature
203
Q

What are the different Primary lymphatic organs? (2) Why are they considered Primary lymphatic organs?

A
  • Red bone marrow (B cells)
  • thymus (T cells)
  • Because B and T cells learn to recognize antigens
204
Q

What happens in the Thymus?

A
  • Houses developing lymphocytes and secretes hormones
  • Cortical epithelial cells seal off blood vessels
    (form blood–thymus barrier) which isolates
    developing lymphocytes from premature exposure
    to bloodborne pathogens & develops T cells
205
Q

What are the functions of the lymph nodes?

A
  • cleanse lymph and to act as a
    site of T and B cell activation
  • Germinal centers - where B cells multiply &
    differentiate into plasma cells
  • They only have afferent lymphatic vessels
206
Q

What are some features of the tonsils that are important?

A
  • They have tonsillar crypts that are made of epithelium tissue
  • it has a single pharyngeal tonsil
  • a pair of palatine tonsils
  • Has numerous lingual tonsils
207
Q

What are some features of the spleen that are important?

A
  • It is the largest lymphatic organ
  • has red pulp and white pulp
  • erythrocytes rupture in the spleen
208
Q

What is the difference between red pulp and white pulp in the spleen?

A

Red Pulp- has a concentration of erythrocytes

White Pulp- Has lymphocytes and macrophages

209
Q

Which of these cells are Innate immunity, Adaptive immunity, or both?

Basophil
Eosinophil
Neutrophil
Dendritic cell
Natural killer cell
Macrophage
B cell
T cell
Antibodies
CD4 + T cell
CD8 + T cell
Natural killer T cell

A

Innate
Basophil
Eosinophil
Neutrophil
Dendritic cell
Natural killer cell
Macrophage

Adaptive
B cell
T cell
Antibodies
CD4 + T cell
CD8 + T cell

Both
Natural killer T cell
T cell

210
Q

What is the tissue type that allows for rapid diffusion of gases?

A

simple squamous alveolar cell tissue

211
Q

Trace the airflow from where air enters into pulmonary alveoli (10 structures)

A
  1. It stars in the Nose
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea
  5. Primary Bronchi
  6. Secondary bronchi
  7. Tertiary Bronchi
  8. Broncoiles
  9. Terminal Bronchioles
  10. Pulmonary Alveoli
212
Q

Explain the flow of lymph into the bloodstream (5)

A
  1. Lymphatic capillaries converge to form collecting vessels
  2. Collecting vessels form lymphatic trunks
  3. Lymphatic trunks converge to form 2 collecting ducts
  4. The 2 collecting ducts make subclavian veins
  5. The subclavian veins send the lymph to the bloodstream
213
Q

What are B and T cells when they begin their development?

A

They are Hematopoietic stem cells

214
Q

What do B and T cells need to develop before doing immune reactions?

A

They need to develop antigen receptors on their surfaces which gives them immunocompetence

215
Q

What is immunocompetence?

A

The ability to recognize, bine, and respond to an antigen

216
Q

What would happen if we did not have negative selection?

A

We would get an autoimmune disease and it would be more common

217
Q

What is negative selection?

A

It is when B and T cells react against the body’s own antigens and get destroyed because of it.

218
Q

What are the 2 regions in the digestive tract?

A
  1. Digestive tract (alimentary canal/gut)
  2. Accessory organs
218
Q

What is the digestive tract?

A

muscular tube extending from mouth to anus; measures about 16 ft long

219
Q

What organs are apart of the digestive tract?

A

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine

220
Q

What does the stomach and intestines make?

A

the Gastrointestinal tract (GI tract)

221
Q

What organs are considered accessory organs in the digestive system?

A

eeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

222
Q

What is the mucosa as a tissue layer of the wall of the digestive tract?

A
  • Lines the inner part of the digestive tract
  • has a lot of lymphocytes
  • has three layers to it
223
Q

What is the muscularis externa as a tissue layer of the wall of the digestive tract?

A
  • responsible for peristalsis and other movements that mix food & digestive enzymes & propel material through tract
  • It is smooth muscle
224
Q

What is the submucosa as a tissue layer of the wall of the digestive tract?

A

thicker layer of loose connective tissue
with blood vessels

225
Q

What is the serosa as a tissue layer of the wall of the digestive tract?

A

-Composed of a thin layer of areolar tissue
- The pharynx, most of the esophagus & the rectum have no serosa

226
Q

What are the three layers of the mucosa?

A
  • epithelium
  • Lamina Propria
  • Muscularis mucosae
227
Q

What is the epithelium tissue layer in the mucosa?

A
  • It is simple columnar epithelium in the digestive tract, stomach, and intestines. Because it is softer
228
Q

What is the lamina propria tissue layer in the mucosa?

A

loose connective tissue layer

229
Q

What is the Muscularis mucosae tissue layer in the mucosa?

A
  • thin layer of smooth muscle
    -creating grooves & ridges that enhance surface area
  • improves digestion
230
Q

What type of epithelium tissue are in the mouth, pharynx, esophagus & anal canal? And why?

A

stratified squamous epithelium, because it is more tough and has more layers

231
Q

What kind type of tissue is in the pharynx esophagus and rectum since they have no serosa tissue?

A

adventitia

232
Q

What are the 2 layers in the muscularis externa?

A
  1. Circular layer
  2. Longitudinal layer
233
Q

What is the circular layer in the muscularis externa?

A
  • inner layer that encircles the tract
234
Q

What is the longitudinal layer in the muscularis externa?

A
  • outer layer that runs longitudinally
235
Q

what is the tissue layer in the esophagus? and What type of epithelium tissue is it?

A

mucosa and it is stratified squamous
epithelium

236
Q

What is the function of the esophageal glands?

A

secrete lubricating mucus into the lumen

237
Q

What is the muscularis externa tissue made of in the upper third of the esophagus?

A

ONLY Skeletal muscles

238
Q

What is the muscularis externa tissue made of in the middle third of the esophagus?

A

skeletal and smooth muscles

239
Q

What is the muscularis externa tissue made of in the lower third of the esophagus?

A

ONLY smooth muscles

240
Q

Where is the superior opening of the esophagus located?

A

In between C6 and the Cricoid cartilage

241
Q

How many liters can the stomach hold up to?

A

4 liters

241
Q

Define the cardiac part of the stomach

A

small area within about 3cm of the
cardiac orifice

242
Q

Where does the esophagus meet the stomach?

A

Where T7 vertebrae is

243
Q

Define the fundus of the stomach

A

domelike roof superior to the
esophageal attachment

243
Q

define the body of the stomach

A

makes up most of the stomach distal to
the cardiac orifice

244
Q

define the pyloric part of the stomach

A

is a slightly narrower pouch at the
distal end of the stomach

245
Q

Define the pylorus of the stomach

A

gateway from the stomach to the
duodenum

246
Q

Define the pyloric sphincter of the stomach

A
  • regulates the passage
    of chyme into the duodenum
  • surrounds the pylorus
247
Q

What types of glands are in the cardiac part , pyloric part, and the rest of the stomach?

A

Cardiac- Cardiac glands

Pyloric- Pyloric glands

Rest of the stomach- Gastric glands

247
Q

What happens to the mucosa and submucosa tissue types in the stomach when it is full?

A

They become flat and smooth and empties stuff into the gastric rugae

248
Q

What are the different types of cells in the Cardiac, pyloric, and Gastric glands?

A
  1. Mucous cells
  2. Regenerative (stem) cells
  3. Parietal cells
  4. Chief cells
  5. Enteroendocrine cells
248
Q

What is the function of the mucous cell in the Cardiac, Pyloric, and gastric glands?

A

secrete mucus

249
Q

What is the function of the Regenerative (stem) cells cell in the Cardiac, Pyloric, and gastric glands?

A

Make new cells

250
Q

What is the function of the Parietal cells cell in the Cardiac, Pyloric, and gastric glands?

A

secrete HCl, intrinsic factor, & ghrelin

251
Q

What is the function of the Chief cells cell in the Cardiac, Pyloric, and gastric glands?

A

produce pepsinogen, secrete fat digesting enzyme called gastric lipase; activated by HCl by parietal cells

252
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Bile production

253
Q

What is the function of the Enteroendocrine cells in the Cardiac, Pyloric, and gastric glands?

A

hormones

254
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

Stores and concentrates bile

255
Q

How many layers does the muscularis externa tissue have in the stomach? And which one is inner, middle, and outer layers?

A
  1. longitudinal muscle (outer)
  2. Circular muscle (middle)
  3. Oblique muscle (inner)
256
Q

What type of epithelium tissue are the gastric pits lined with?

A

columnar epithelium

257
Q

Where is the kidney situated in the body?

A

They are on the posterior abdominal wall.

258
Q

What vertebra are the kidneys in between? And what number rib crosses the middle of the left kidney?

A

T12 to L3, and rib number 12

259
Q

Where is the adrenal gland in relation to the kidney?

A

It is right above it

260
Q

What are cortical nephrons?

A
  • Nephrons that are beneath the renal capsule close to the kidney surface.
  • have short nephron loops that go to the outer medulla before turning back
261
Q

What are Juxtamedullary nephrons?

A
  • Nephrons that are close tot he medulla.
  • have long loops
  • they are responsible for maintaining osmotic gradient for the medulla
262
Q

What would happen if we did not have juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

We would not be able to concentrate the urine and conserve body water

263
Q

What is the main difference between the arterial blood flow and the venous blood flow in the kidney?

A

The arterial blood flow has segmental arteries.

The venous blood flow DOES NOT HAVE segmental veins.

264
Q

What is the function of the renal parenchyma in the kidney?

A

It produces urine

265
Q

What structures of the kidney are in the renal sinus?

A

renal pelvis, renal calyces, blood, lymphatic vessels, nerves, etc

266
Q

What is the renal cortex in the kidney?

A

The outer layer of the kidney

267
Q

What is the renal medulla in the kidney?

A

The inner layer of the kidney which faces the sinus

268
Q

What are renal columns and what do they lead to?

A

They are the extensions of the renal cortex and divide into renal pyramids.

269
Q

What are the renal pyramids and what do they have in them?

A

They are the pyramid looking things, and they have Renal papilla facing the sinus

270
Q

What are the renal papilla and what are the nestled in?

A

They are the things that go off the pyramids going in, and they are nestled in the minor calyx

271
Q

What do 2 or 3 minor calyxes make?

A

The major calyx

272
Q

What do 2 or 3 major calyxes make?

A

The renal pelvis

273
Q

How does arterial blood flow work in the kidney? (7 steps)

A
  1. It starts in the aorta
  2. Goes to the renal artery
  3. Then to the Segmental artery
  4. Then to the Interlobar artery
  5. Then to the Arcuate artery which travels along the base of the pyramids in the kidney to the
  6. Cortical radiate artery that flows upward into the cortex
  7. To the Afferent arteriole
274
Q

How does venous drainage/blood flow in the kidney? (8)

A
  1. It starts in the glomerulus
  2. To the Efferent arteriole
  3. To the Peritubular capillaries
  4. To the cortical radiate veins
  5. To the arcuate veins
  6. To the interlobar veins
  7. To the renal veins
  8. Then it drains into the inferior vena cava
275
Q

How does venous drainage/blood flow in the kidney if the efferent arteriole doesn’t flow the blood to the peritubular capillaries?

A

It flows the blood to the vasa recta and the vasa recta flows the blood to the cortical radiate vein, or the arcuate vein. Then it does the normal flow.

276
Q

Which kidney is positioned higher than the other?

A

The left kidney is higher than the right kidney

277
Q

What are some excretion products of the kidney?

A

Toxic wastes, urea, uric acids, creatine, nitrogenous wastes

278
Q

Are kidneys peritoneum organs or retroperitoneal organs?

A

They are retroperitoneal organs

279
Q

What is the functional subunit of the kidneys?

A

The nephrons

280
Q

Explain what the ureters are

A

A retroperitoneal muscular tube that extends from kidney to urinary bladder

281
Q

what easily disrupts the ureters?

A

Kidney stones

282
Q

What acts like a valve in the ureters?

A

A small flap of bladder mucosa

283
Q

What is the urinary bladder?

A

The Muscular sac on the floor of pelvic cavity

284
Q

What is the Detrusor muscle in the urinary bladder?

A

muscular layer of bladder wall which consists of three indistinctly separated layers of smooth muscles

285
Q

What is the Rugae in the urinary bladder?

A

wrinkles of mucosa

286
Q

What is the Trigone in the urinary bladder?

A

triangular region on floor of bladder defined by the openings of the two ureter inlets and one urethra outlet.

287
Q

What is the function of the urethra?

A

It conveys urine out of the body

288
Q

Define simple diffusion

A

(moves molecules and small things high to low concentration NO ENERGY)

289
Q

Define Osmosis

A

(moves molecules and small things by WATER MORE WATER TO LESS WATER high to low concentration)

290
Q

Define facilitated diffusion

A

(moves molecules and small things uses a transport protein to move things)

291
Q

Define Active transport

A

(moves molecules and small things Low to High concentration it needs ATP and uses transport proteins)

292
Q

What is the function of the rough ER?

A

To make proteins and the membranes of the entire cell.

293
Q

Where is the hypodermis abundant and lack in the body?

A

It is not in the scalp but it is abundant in breasts, thighs, hips, and abdomen

294
Q

What is a muscle fascicle?

A

is a bundle of muscle fibers
within a muscle; enclosed in a fibrous
perimysium

295
Q

What other functions do myosin and actin do in other cells/body?

A

they function in cellular motility, mitosis and transport of intracellular materials

296
Q

What are striations in sarcomeres?

A

It is the alternating arrangement of myofilaments (myosin and actin) that gives it this striated appearance

297
Q

What is the A band, H band, and M band in sarcomeres?

A

A band- thick myofilaments lying side by side

H band- central region of A band that stains a little lighter due to lack of thin myofilaments

M band- anchors thick myofilaments together

298
Q

What is the I band, and Z disc in sarcomeres?

A

I band- light stripe of thin myofilaments only

Z disc- midline of I band

299
Q

What is multiunit and unitary in smooth muscle cells?

A

Multiunit- Each smooth muscle contracts by its self

Unitary- Several smooth muscle cells excite at once

300
Q

What are the pubis and ischium united by?

A

Synostosis

301
Q

what is the most common structural type of neuron?

A

The unipolar neurons

302
Q

Are spinal nerves avascular or vascular?

A

Avascular

303
Q

What forms the Blood-CSF barrier system?

A

ependymal cells that are held together by tight junctions in the blood-CSF barrier

304
Q

What is the neurotransmitter that makes it possible for two organs to have different responses?

A

norepinephrine (NE)

305
Q

What part of the ear makes it possible for a throat infection to spread to the ear?

A

The auditory tube

306
Q

What does glucagon do to blood glucose levels and what type of cells secrete glucagon?

A

It raises blood glucose levels and alpha cells secrete glucagon

307
Q

What organ is responsible for destroying old erythrocytes?

A

The Spleen (maybe kidney)

308
Q

What type of cells activate B cells?

A

Helper T cells

309
Q

What type of nephrons are beneath the renal capsule?

A

The cortical nephrons

Anatomy Lecture (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions