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Anatomy Lecture > Study guide Exam 2 > Flashcards

Study guide Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the PNS system?

A
  • It is nerves and ganglia (everything besides the spinal cord and brain)
  • Sensory and motor divisions (then it is divided into visceral and somatic sensory divisions)
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2
Q

What is the CNS system?*

A
  • It is the brain and spinal cord
  • It is protected by the cranium and vertebral column
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3
Q

What is the sensory division?

A

sends the sensory signal to the brain and the spinal cord CNS

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4
Q

What is the visceral sensory division?

A

Carries signals mainly from the thoracic and abdominal cavity

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5
Q

What is the somatic sensory division?

A

Carries signals from receptors in skin, muscle, bones and joints to the CNS

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6
Q

What is the motor division?

A

carries signals from CNS to the effectors

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7
Q

What is the somatic motor division?

A
  • Carries signals to the skeletal muscles
  • The voluntary and involuntary contractions are called somatic reflexes
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8
Q

What is the visceral motor division? (also known as the ANS)

A
  • Carries signals to glands, cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
  • No voluntary control they are called visceral reflexes
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9
Q

What is the sympathetic divsion?

A

Tends to arouse the body for action

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10
Q

What is the parasympathetic division?

A

Adapts the body for energy intake and conservation

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11
Q

What is the Oligodendrocytes glial cell in the CNS?*

A
  • It makes myelin in CNS
  • Forms myelin in brain and spinal cord
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12
Q

What is the Ependymal glial cell in the CNS?*

A

They line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cords. Similar to cuboidal epithelium

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13
Q

What is the Microglia glial cell in the CNS?*

A

They are basically white cells that go through the CNS looking for debris or other problems and get rid of those problems

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14
Q

What is the Astrocytes glial cell in the CNS?*

A
  • Most abundant cell in the CNS
  • They provide support and nourishment for neurons
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15
Q

What happens to the glial cells in the CNS when someone has multiple sclerosis?*

A

This happens because the oligodendrocytes and myelin sheath of the CNS system turn into hardened scar tissue. And the nerve conduction is disrupted.

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16
Q

What is the Satellite cells glial cell in the PNS?

A
  • Provide support and nourishment
  • They surround somas of neurons in the ganglia
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17
Q

What is the Schwann cells or neurolemmocytes glial cell in the PNS?

A
  • Forms a sheath around the nerve fibers of the PNS
  • They assist in conduction in PNS cells and regeneration of damaged nerve fibers
  • and they make myelin in the PNS
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18
Q

What are the two things needed for nerve regeneration?

A

Endoneurium and neurilemma

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19
Q

What are endoneurium and neurilemma?

A
  1. Endoneurium
    • This is a thin sleeve of connective tissue around a Schwann cell
      2. Neurilemma
      - Secretes nerve growth factors that stimulate regrowth of the axon
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20
Q

Explain how nerve regeneration works in the PNS*

A

The Schwann cells and endoneurium together form a regeneration tube that guides the growing axon.

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21
Q

What are chemical synapses?*

A

It is a junction at which the presynaptic neuron releases a neurotransmitter to stimulate the postsynaptic cell and it moves in one direction

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22
Q

What are electrical synapses?*

A
  • This has no neurotransmitter
    • It is joined by gap junctions
    • It is a quick transmission
  • There is no integration of decision making
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23
Q

What is the cerebrum? (describe it)

A
  • Consists of a right and left cerebral hemispheres
    • Gyri folds and separate by sulci shallow grooves
  • Longitudinal fissure (big sulcus between hemispheres, it separates them)
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24
Q

What is the cerebellum? (describe it)

A
  • Lies inferior to the cerebrum in the posterior cranial and is separated by the transverse cerebral fissure
    • This is the second largest region of the brain
  • Contains over 50% of its neurons
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25
Q

What is the brainstem? (describe it)

A
  • Crucial for survival
    • Does life support functions
  • This is the smallest part of the brain
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26
Q

What is dura mater? (describe it)*

A
  • It has two layers that are called the periosteal layer (the outer layer), and the meningeal layer (the inner layer).
  • it attaches to the cranial bone
  • the meningeal layer folds inward
  • it contains these other components called flax cerebelli, flax cerebri, and tentorium cerebelli
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27
Q

What is the arachnoid mater? (describe it)*

A
  • It is a transparent membrane over the brain surface
  • The subarachnoid space separates the arachnoid from the pia*
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28
Q

What is the pia mater? (describe it)*

A

It is very thin delicate membrane that closely follows all the contours of the brain surface

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29
Q

Explain the flow of cerebral spinal fluid through the brain (8 steps)

A
  1. The CSF is made and secreted by the choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles
  2. The CSF flows through the interventricular foramina into the third ventricle
  3. More CSF is added in the third ventricle by the choroid plexus
  4. The CSF flows down the cerebral aqueduct and one median aperture from the subarachnoid space
  5. more CSF is added in the fourth ventricle by the choroid plexus
  6. The CSF flows out two lateral aperture and one medican aperture from the subarachnoid space
  7. The CSF covers the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord and fills the subarachnoid space
  8. The CSf is then reabsorbed into venous blood of the dural venous sinuses and the CSF returns to the bloodstream in the arachnoid granulations
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30
Q

What structures are involved in the flow of the cerebrospinal fluid?

A
  • the choroid plexus (adds CSF)
  • lateral ventricles
  • third ventricle
  • fourth ventricle
  • interventricular foramina
  • cerebral aqueduct
    -lateral apertures
  • one median aperture
  • subarachnoid space
  • arachnoid granulations
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31
Q

What does the substantia nigra do?

A

It suppresses unwanted muscle contractions

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32
Q

What happens to the Substantia Nigra when someone has parkinson’s disease?

A

It is when the nerve cells in the Substantia Nigra degenerate (die) and can not suppress the unwanted muscle contractions

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33
Q

Which cranial nerves are only motor nerves? (5)*

A

Oculomotor(3), trochlear(4), abducens(6), accessory (11), hypoglossal nerves(12)

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34
Q

Which cranial nerves are only sensory nerves?(3)*

A

Olfactory (1), Optic (2), Vestibulocochlear (8) nerves

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35
Q

Which cranial nerves are mixed? *(both motor and sensory nerves) (4)

A

Trigeminal (5), Facial (7), glossopharyngeal (9), Vagus (10) nerves

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36
Q

What are the two different cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors

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37
Q

What are nicotinic receptors?

A

They occur at synapses where autonomic preganglionic neurons stimulate the postganglionic cells, they excit all cells with nicotinic receptors

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38
Q

What are muscarinic receptors?

A

they are involuntary effectors (like cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and gland cells), they excite some cells and inhibit others

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39
Q

Compare and contrast the effectors of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

Somatic- Skeletal muscle

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40
Q

Compare and contrast the control of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- usually involuntary

Somatic- usually voluntary

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41
Q

Compare and contrast the Efferent pathways of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- two nerve fibers from CNS to effector with ganglion

Somatic- one nerve fiber from CNS to effector no ganglion

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42
Q

Compare and contrast the Distal nerve endings of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- Varicosities

Somatic- Neuromuscular junctions

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43
Q

Compare and contrast the neurotransmitters of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- ACh and norepinephrine (NE)

Somatic- Acetylcholine (ACh)

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44
Q

Compare and contrast the effect on target cells of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- excitatory or inhibitory

Somatic- always excitatory

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45
Q

Compare and contrast the effect of denervation of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

A

Autonomic- Denervation hypersensitivity

Somatic- Flaccid paralysis

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46
Q

How do somatic neural pathways work?

A

It is a motor neuron that is myelinated that reaches all the way to a skeletal muscle

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47
Q

How to autonomic neural pathways work?

A

the signal travels across two nerve fibers to get to the target organ. then the signal crosses a synapse where the neurons meet in an autonomic ganglion

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48
Q

Compare and contrast the origin in CNS in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Thoracolumbar

Parasympathetic - Craniosacral

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49
Q

Compare and contrast the Location of ganglia in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- paravertebral ganglia adjacent to spinal column

Parasympathetic - terminal ganglia neat or within target organs

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50
Q

Compare and contrast the fiber lengths in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Short preganglionic, long postganglionic

Parasympathetic - long preganglionic, short postganglionic

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51
Q

Compare and contrast the neuronal divergence in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- Extensive

Parasympathetic - Minimal

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52
Q

Compare and contrast the effects of system in sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- widespread and general

Parasympathetic - more local and specific

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53
Q

What are the main differences of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A

Sympathetic - This is the flight or fight nervous system. It reduces blood flow to the skin and digestive tract, increases blood glucose and heart rate, pupils dilate, and decreases digestion and waste elimination

Parasympathetic - It is the calming effect on many body functions. “rest and digest”. Decreases heart rate and stimulate (increases) digestion and waste elimination

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54
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

The eye

A

Parasympathetic- Constricts pupil

Sympathetic- Dilates pupil

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55
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

salivary gland

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates salivary gland secretion

Sympathetic- Inhibits salivary gland secretion

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56
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

lungs

A

Parasympathetic- Constricts bronchi in lungs

Sympathetic- relaxes bronchi in lings

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57
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Heart

A

Parasympathetic- slows heart

Sympathetic- accelerates heart

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58
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Stomach and Intestines

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates activity of stomach and intestines

Sympathetic- inhibits activity of stomach and intestines

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59
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Pancreas

A

Parasympathetic- Stimulates activity in pancreas

Sympathetic- inhibits activity in pancreas

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60
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Gallbladder

A

Parasympathetic- stimulates gallbladder

Sympathetic- inhibits gallbladder

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61
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Bladder

A

Parasympathetic- promotes emptying bladder

Sympathetic- inhibits emptying bladder

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62
Q

Compare and contrast the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems based on what they do to a certain region of the body.

Genitalia

A

Parasympathetic- promotes erection of genitalia

Sympathetic- promotes ejaculation and vaginal contractions

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63
Q

What parts of the body are effected by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

A
  • heart
  • lungs
  • digestive tract
  • urinary tract
  • blood vessels
  • sweat glands
  • arrector muscles
  • pupils
  • genitalia
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64
Q

Heart rate increases with sympathetic stimulation and decreases with parasympathetic stimulation. How can these contrasting effects be explained?

A

The heart contains different receptors for the NE and Ach

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65
Q

How do preganglionic fibers and postganglionic fibers communicate?

A

Postganglionic - they communicate in the gray ramus

Preganglionic - they communicate in the white ramus

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66
Q

What are paravertebral ganglia?

A

THey are a series of ganglia along each side of the vertebral column

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67
Q

What are prevertebral ganglia?

A

They contribute to a network called the abdominal aortic plexus

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68
Q

How does the brain recieve pain from our body?

A

By nociceptors

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69
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

they are dense receptors in the skin and mucous membranes and are everywhere except the brain and liver

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70
Q

What are the two main pathways that pain signals reach the brain? (pain coming from the head and pain from below the head)

A

pain from the head - the cranial nerves to the brain

pain from below the head - it travels through the spinothalamic tract, spinoreticular tract and gracile fasciculus

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71
Q

What are the two different nocioreceptors? And explain them

A

Myelinated - “fast pain” or first pain that feels sharp, localized and stabbing pain

Unmyelinated - “ slow pain” or second pain which is longer lasting, dull, and diffuse feeling

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72
Q

What are all the components of the middle ear? (5)

A
  • tympanic membrane
  • tympanic cavity
  • auditory tube
  • auditory ossicles
  • muscles of the middle ear
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73
Q

What is the role of the tympanic membrane?

A

It closes the inner end of the auditory canal and separates it from the middle ear

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74
Q

What is the role of the tympanic cavity? and explain it

A

It is filled with air that enters by way of the auditory tube. It has continuous air filled spaces called mastoid cells because of the mastoid process

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75
Q

What is the role of the auditory tube? and explain it

A

It equalizes air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. It is a passage way for airflow

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76
Q

What is the role of the auditory ossicles? and explain it

A

The auditory ossicles transmit sound vibration from the tympanic membrane across the tympanic cavity to the inner ear

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77
Q

What are the names of the three auditory ossicles?

A

Malleus
incus
stapes

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78
Q

Describe each of the three bones of the auditory ossicles

A

Malleus- attaches to the medial side of the tympanic membrane and transfers the vibrations to the incus

Incus - it a triangular shape that touches the malleus and transfers the vibrations to the stapes

Stapes- smallest bone in the body and transfers sound vibration to inner eat

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79
Q

What is the role of the skeletal muscles in the middle ear? and explain it

A

When there are loud noises the muscles contract and dampen the vibrations of the ossicles. Essentially they protect the ossicles

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80
Q

What are the name of the two skeletal muscles in the middle ear and where are they located in the ear?

A

Stapedius muscle - it is on the posterior wall of the cavity and is on the stapes

Tensor tympani muscle - it is on the auditory tube wall

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81
Q

What is the purpose of the semicircular ducts?

A

They help with head rotation

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82
Q

What are the names of the three different semicircular ducts? And their functions

A

Posterior duct- tilting of head from one shoulder to another
Lateral duct- the NO rotation of the head movements
Anterior duct- does the nodding yes head movements

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83
Q

What are the purposes of the Utricle and saccule?

A

Utricle- it detects the horizonal motions (forward and backward, left and right motions)

Saccule- it detects the vertical motions (standing up and sitting down)

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84
Q

What is the difference between the endolymph and perilymph watery fluids in the ear?

A

endolymph- inner fluid of the ear suspended in perilymph

perilymph- outer fluid within the osseous labyrinth filled with CSF and connected to the subarachnoid space

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85
Q

What does accommodation mean in regards to control of lens in the eye?

A

When the lens changes its anterior/posterior thickness to focus on images properly

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86
Q

What happens to the lens of an eye for us to read?

A

The lens must be thicker

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87
Q

What happens to the lens of the eye for us to look at things in the distance?

A

The lens must be thinner

88
Q

What is the difference between myopia and hyperopia in control of lens?

A

Myopia- You can see close up but not far away, the eyeball is too long

Hyperopia- You can see far away but not close up, the eye ball is too short

89
Q

What are the different hormones in the hypothalamo-hypophysial tract?

A
  1. Oxytocin
  2. Anti-diuretic h.
90
Q

What are the different features of the pituitary gland?

A

The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and is partially enclosed in the sella turcica. It also had the anterior and posterior pituitary as part of the gland

91
Q

What are some important components of the anterior pituitary gland?

A

It has NO nervous connection and has a portal system called the hypophysial portal system.

92
Q

What is the hypophysial portal system in the anterior pituitary?

A

It is a portal system which allows blood to flow through two capillary beds

93
Q

What is the posterior pituitary?

A

It is just a mass of nervous tissue

94
Q

What are the different thyroid horomones?

A
  1. T3 (triiodothyronine)
  2. T4 (Tetraiodothyronine)
  3. Calcitonin
95
Q

What are the functions of the thyroid hormones T3 (triiodothyronine), T4 (Tetraiodothyronine), and calcitonin?

A
  1. T3 (triiodothyronine) - stimulates prenatal and childhood development and bone growth
  2. T4 (Tetraiodothyronine)- this is inactive mostly
  3. Calcitonin- decreases blood calcium
96
Q

What are is the parathyroid hormone? and what is it’s function?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)- It raises calcium levels in the blood

97
Q

What is the function of the hormones that the thymus produces?

A

Makes and matures for certain white blood cells

98
Q

What is the function of the hormones that the pancreas produces?

A

It is called glucagon and it promotes the breaking down of glycogen to glucose in the liver

99
Q

What makes the hormones special in the adrenal gland?

A

It makes more than 25 steroid hormones called corticosteroids

100
Q

What is the CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone)?

A

Promotes secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone

101
Q

What is the TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone)?

A

promotes secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone and prolactin

102
Q

What is the GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone)?

A

Promotes secretion of growth hormone

103
Q

What is the PIH (prolactin inhibiting hormone)?

A

inhibits secretion of prolactin

104
Q

What is the GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone)

A

Promotes secretion of follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

105
Q

What is the GHIH (growth hormone inhibiting hormone)?

A

Inhibits secretion of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone

106
Q

What are the differences between the endocrine system and the nervous system?

A

Endocrine- It releases hormones into the blood that are not sent to one specific tissue or organ but eventually get there. It acts slower and is long lasting

Nervous- It uses very specific mechanisms to influence target cells that only effect that tissue. It acts faster and is not long lasting

107
Q

Explain the anatomy of the spinal cord

A

It is the information highway that connects the brain with the lower body. It is a cylinder of nervous tissue that arises from the brainstep

108
Q

What are the cervical enlargement and lumbosacral enlargement?*

A

Cervical enlargement- gives rise to nerves of the upper limbs

Lumbosacral enlargement- gives rise to the nerves of the lower limb and pelvic region. and forms the cauda equina

109
Q

What is the function of the cauda equina?

A

It innervates the pelvic organs and lower limbs

110
Q

What are spinal meninges in the spinal cord?

A

They are protective layers of the spinal cord that separate the soft tissue of the central nervous system from the bones of the vertebra

111
Q

What is the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and the pia mater as a spinal meninge?

A

Dura mater- the outermost layer that is tough

Arachnoid mater- the middle layer that is delicate and web like strands that extend inward and fuse to the pia mater

Pia mater- The innermost layer that is directly attached to the spinal cord

112
Q

What is the epidural space?

A

It is a space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater that has blood vessels, loose CT, and adipose tissue

113
Q

What is the subarachnoid mater?

A

The space between the stands in the arachnoid mater that is filled with CSF and occupied by the cauda equina

114
Q

What is the difference between the gray matter and white matter?*

A

Gray matter- is the site of synaptic contact between neurons and is the site of synaptic integration

White matter- it provides ways of communication within the CNS and has myelinated axons

115
Q

What are the 6 ascending tracts?

A

Gracile fasciculus

Cuneate fasciculus

Spinothalamic

Spinoreticular

Posterior spinocerebellar

Anterior spinocerebellar

116
Q

What are the functions of the 6 ascending tracts?*

A

Gracile fasciculus- sensations of limb and trunk position and movement, visceral pain and vibration all below T6

Cuneate fasciculus- sensations of limb and trunk position and movement, visceral pain and vibration all T6 and above

Spinothalamic- sensations of light touch, tickle, itch, temperature, pain, and pressure

Spinoreticular- sensation of pain from tissue injury

Posterior spinocerebellar- Feedback from muscles

Anterior spinocerebellar- Feedback from muscles

117
Q

What are the differences between somatic and visceral reflexes?

A

Somatic- They are responses of skeletal muscles, controlled by the nervous system

Visceral- They are responses of glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. Controlled by the autonomic system

118
Q

Explain the proximal branches of the spinal nerve

A

There are 6 to 8 rootlets that form the anterior root and posterior root of the spinal nerve. The two roots then merge to form the spinal nerve

119
Q

How does the anterior ramus differ from one region of the trunk to another?*

A

It differs because in the thoracic region it forms an intercostal nerve. And everywhere else the anterior ramus forms the nerve plexuses

120
Q

What is the scientific definition for blood?

A

Liquid connective tissue composed of extracellular matrix & cells

121
Q

What is matrix in your blood?

A

It is blood plasma

122
Q

What does cells + platelets = >

A

Formed elements

123
Q

What are the formed elements in blood? And what are they?

A

Erythrocytes (red blood cells)
Platelets (fragments of bone marrow cells) – lack nuclei
Leukocytes (white blood cells) x 5 types

124
Q

How many liters of blood does an average adult body have? (male and female)

A

Female 4-5L

Male 5-6L

125
Q

What is blood plasma mostly made out of?

A

Mostly water 92%

126
Q

What else is blood plasma made out of besides mostly water?

A
  • proteins
    -nutrients (glucose, amino acids, lactic acids, lipids, and others)
    -electrolytes
  • nitrogenous wastes
    -hormones
  • gases
127
Q

What are albumins as a plasma protein?

A

They are plasma proteins that contribute to viscosity (the thickness) and osmolarity (the concentration of particles that cannot pass through) in the blood

128
Q

What are globulins as a plasma protein?

A

They are antibodies and play roles in solute transport, clotting and immunity

129
Q

What are fibrinogen as a plasma protein?

A

They are clotting proteins

130
Q

What specific type of globulin does antibodies?

A

The gama globulins

131
Q

What are the two main functions of red blood cells?

A
  • To transport oxygen to tissues
  • pick up CO2 and unload it in the lungs
132
Q

What do red blood cells lack? (like organelles and stuff)

A
  • nucleus, mitochondria, DNA and almost all organelles
133
Q

What doe red blood cells rely on to produce ATP?

A

Anaerobic fermentation

134
Q

Why can red blood cells transport oxygen?

A

Because they do not do anaerobic respiration

135
Q

What does the biconcave shape of the red blood cell allow it to do? (why do they have it?)

A

So they can bend, stretch, fold and pass through the tiniest of blood vessels

136
Q

What type of molecules do red blood cells carry with them?

A

Hemoglobin

137
Q

What is the product made when red blood cells breakdown? What disease does it cause?

A

Bilirubin and it causes jaundice

138
Q

What happens during Hematopoiesis in the red blood cell life cycle?

A

It makes the red blood cells, white blood cells, and paletes

139
Q

What happens during Hematopoietic tissues in the red blood cell life cycle?

A

Tissues that produce blood cells

140
Q

What happens in the utero during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

Stem cells rise and give rise to red blood cells

141
Q

What happens at birth during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

the liver stops producing red blood cells

142
Q

What happens just after birth during the life cycle of red blood cells?

A

The spleen stops producing red blood cells but it continues to produce white blood cells

143
Q

What happens when you are growing up and living life during the life cycle of red blood cells? (everything after birth)

A

The red bone marrow produces red blood cells

144
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Red blood cell production

145
Q

Explain how a stem cell becomes a red blood cell through erythropoiesis

A

The stem cell becomes an erythrocyte colony-forming unit (ECFU), then it gets a hormone attached to it called the hormone erythropoietin which turns it into an erythroblast (which synthesizes hemoglobin). After the hormone is attached the nucleus dies and it turns into a reticulocyte and is ready to turn into a red blood cell.

146
Q

What are the 5 types of leukocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Eosinophil
  4. lymphocytes
  5. monocytes
147
Q

Describe the Neutrophils as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

They are are aggressively antibacterial cells.

148
Q

Describe the Basophils as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

secrete two chemicals that aid in the body’s defense processes: histamine and heparin

149
Q

Describe the Eosinophils
as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

Defends against allergies, parasitic infections, collagen diseases, and diseases of the spleen and CNS (central nervous system)

150
Q

Describe the Lymphocytes as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

Do many different immune functions, which include destructions of cancer cells and warding off microbial pathogens

151
Q

Describe the Monocytes as on of the 5 types of the leukocytes

A

They transform into large tissue cells and they do it during inflammation and viral infections

152
Q

What is anemia?

A

Decreased oxygen carry in the red blood cells

153
Q

What is Polycythemia? (blood disease)

A

Too many red blood cells in a hemocrit count. Results are cancer in blood marrow

154
Q

What is leukopenia disorder?

A

It is white blood cell deficiency

155
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Too much white blood cells and too little of platelets

156
Q

What is thrombocytopenia disorder?

A

Too little of platelets

157
Q

How does blood flow into the heart?

A

Blood enters the right atrium from the superior (SVC) and inferior vena cava

158
Q

How does blood flow out through the heart? (4 steps) (in to out)

A
  1. Blood in the right atrium flows through the right AV valve into the right ventricle
  2. Then the ventricle contracts and it forces the pulmonary valve open
  3. Blood then flows through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary trunk
  4. Blood is then distributed by the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lungs
159
Q

How does blood return back into the heart?

A

It returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins to the left atrium

160
Q

How does the blood flow in the heart when it returns from the lungs? (5)

A
  1. Blood in the Left atrium flows through left AV valve into LV
  2. The LV (left ventricle) contracts and forces the aortic valve open
  3. Blood then flows through the aortic valve into ascending aorta
  4. Then the blood in the aorta is distributed to every organ in the body
  5. then the blood returns again to the RA via the vena cavae
161
Q

What are the differences between the right atrium and left atrium?

A

Right Atrium- the right atrium is part of the pulmonary circuit, pumps blood to the lungs,

Left Atrium- Is part of the systemic circuit, pumps blood to the body, visible from the posterior side

162
Q

What are the differences between the left ventricle and the right ventricle?

A

Left Ventricle- It forms the apex and inferoposterior position, Part of the systemic circuit

RIght Ventricle- It is the most anterior portion of the heart, part of the pulmonary circuit

163
Q

What are the roles of veins and arteries in regards to blood flow?

A

Arteries- takes oxygenated blood away from the heart

Veins- take deoxygenated blood to the heart

164
Q

What is the epicardium of the heart wall?

A

The most outside layer of the heart (most superficial layer). Most have simple squamous epithelium but there are some areas that are thicker and have visceral pericardium.

165
Q

What is the myocardium of the heart wall?

A

They are composed of cardiac muscle, and performs the work of the heart. Thickness varies

166
Q

What is the endocardium of the heart wall?

A

Line the interior part of the heart chambers. It also covers the valves and inner lining of blood vessels. HAS NO ADIPOSE TISSUE

167
Q

What are coronary sulcus associated with the chambers?

A

Encircles the heart near the base and separates the atria above from the ventricles

168
Q

What are the anterior interventricular sulcus associated with the chambers?

A

extend down the heart from the coronary sulcus to the apex (out front)

169
Q

What are the posterior interventricular sulcus associated with the chambers?

A

Extend down the heart from the coronary sulcus to the apex (down the back)

170
Q

What are the pectinate muscles associated with the chambers?

A

Internal ridges found in the right atrium and in both of the auricles

171
Q

What are the trabeculae carneae associated with the chambers?

A

Internal ridges found in both the ventricles

172
Q

What structures are involved in the cardiac conduction system? and define them (4)

A
  • SA nodes (It is the pacemaker of the heart which initiates each heartbeat and determines the heart)
  • AV nodes (located at the lower end of the interatrial septum near the right AV valve)
  • AV bundles (A cord of modified cardiomyocytes)
  • Subendocardial conducting network (distributes excitation through ventricular myocardium)
173
Q

Explain the steps on how the cardiac conduction system works (how it flows)

A
  1. The SA nodes fire
  2. The excitation spread through the atrial myocardium
  3. AV node fires
  4. The excitation spreads down the AV bundle and forks into right and left bundle branches
  5. The bundle branches give rise to the conducting cardiac myofibers and spread throughout the ventricular myocardium
174
Q

What are the different names for the right atrioventricular valve?

A
  • R-AV valve
  • Tricuspid valve
175
Q

What are the different names for the left atrioventricular valve?

A
  • L-AV valve
  • Bicuspid valve
  • mitral valve
176
Q

What are the different names for the aortic valve

A

Semilunar valve

177
Q

What are the different names for the pulmonary valve?

A

Semilunar valve

178
Q

Define the right atrioventricular valve

A

Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle, 3 cusps, THEY HAVE CHORDAE TENDINEAE

179
Q

Define the Left atrioventricular valve

A

Located between the left atrium and left ventricle, 2 cusps, THEY HAVE CHORDAE TENDINEAE

180
Q

Define the pulmonary valve

A

Located between and controls the opening from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk, 3 cusps, THEY HAVE NO CHORDAE TENDINEAE

181
Q

Define the aortic valve

A

Located between and controls the ventricles into the aorta, 3 cusps, THEY HAVE NO CHORDAE TENDINEAE

182
Q

What is Chordae Tendineae?

A

The connect the valves to papillary muscles (they are like the lines of a parachute)

183
Q

What are papillary muscles?

A

They contract along the ventricular myocardium to prevent inversion, and they tug on the chordae tendineae.

184
Q

What is the main purpose of the papillary muscles?

A

Prevents the AV valve from bulging excessively into the atria or flipping inside out like an umbrella can

185
Q

What does the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus cause in a fetal heart?

A

Causes most of the blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit

186
Q

What happens to the foramen ovale when the flap seals in a fetal heart?

A

It turns into fossa ovalis

187
Q

What happens to the ductus arteriosus several hours after birth in a fetals heart?

A

It becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

188
Q

Define foramen ovale

A

Allows some blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit

189
Q

Define Ductus arteriosus

A

Allows most of the blood in pulmonary trunk and aortic trunk to bypass lungs by spending it directly to the aorta. MOST BLOOD USES THIS BYPASS

190
Q

What are the structures involved in fetal circulation?

A
  • Foramen ovale
  • ductus arteriosus
  • fossa ovalis
  • ligamentum arteriosum
  • umbilical arteries
  • medial umbilical ligaments
  • umbilical veins
  • round ligament of liver
191
Q

Explain how nerve regeneration works in the CNS*

A

IT IS IMPOSSIBLE IT CANNOT BE DONE

192
Q

Where does the cauda equina run through?

A

L2 to S5 and is horsetail like

193
Q

What part of the brain does parkinson’s disease attack?*

A

Substantia Nigra

194
Q

What does the ANS system control?

A

glands, cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

195
Q

What does it mean to be a cholinergic receptor?

A

It binds with the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

196
Q

What is another name for prevertebral ganglion?

A

Collateral ganglion

197
Q

what is the modiolus?

A

The screw like axis of spongy bone that the cochlea winds around

198
Q

What surrounds the membranous labyrinth?

A

the perilymph

199
Q

What hormones does the thymus produce?

A

Thymopoietin, thymosin, thymulin

200
Q

What is the function of the luteinizing hormone?

A

To boost testosterone, and help with the menstrual cycle

201
Q

What is critical to survival? (pertaining the red blood cells)

A

Erythrocytes carrying Oxygen

202
Q

What type of things do red bone marrow produce?

A

White blood cells, red blood cells, platelets

203
Q

tendinous cords are involved in heart conduction True or False

A

FALSE

204
Q

What disease results from kidney failure?

A

Anemia

205
Q

What is the stapedius muscle and what does it prevent?

A

It is on the posterior wall that connects to the stapes and it damaged then it will allow loud sounds to damage the stereocilia

206
Q

What bends hair cells?

A

The endolymph

207
Q

Define the lens cortex

A

it uses nociceptors to create images

208
Q

Define the fovea centralis

A

Forms detailed vision in pit in retina

209
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?

A

TRH
GHRH
PIH
GnRH
GHIH

210
Q
A
210
Q
A
211
Q
A
212
Q
A
213
Q
A
213
Q
A
214
Q
A

Anatomy Lecture (11 decks)

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