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Hygiene Sem 1 > Micro Final > Flashcards

Micro Final Flashcards

1
Q

About ___ kinds of MO’s exist in the human mouth

A

700 kinds

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2
Q

For MO’s to become established memebers of oral microbiota, they must

A

Attach to oral surfaces and be able to multiply

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3
Q

What is dental plaque

A

Microbial mass that accumulates on the teeth

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4
Q

Dental plaque accumulates due to

A

The absence of oral hygiene
Impacting of bacteria/food in the non self cleansing areas of the dentition

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5
Q

Plaque is ____ composed of bacterial cells embedded in an _____

A

Biofilm
Intercellular matrix

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6
Q

When does dental plaque begin to reform after teeth are cleaned

A

Within seconds

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7
Q

What is pelicle

A

Think proteinacious layer that coats all tooth surfaces exposed to saliva

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8
Q

Bacteria attaches to the pelicle forming

A

The initial layer to which other bacterial cells attach

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9
Q

Plaque can mineralize (accumulate calcium) forming a hardened material known as

A

Calculus or tartar

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10
Q

Dental caries is an infectious disease caused by

A

Demineralization of tooth structures by acids

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11
Q

4 types of caries

A

Occlusal caries
Smooth surface caries
Interproximal caries
Root caries

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12
Q

4 factors necessary for caries to occur

A

Susceptible host
Microorganisms
Substrate
Time

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13
Q

Microorganisms are also called

A

Agent factors

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14
Q

____ is a substrate that is metabolized by oral bacteria through catabolic fermentation to produce ____

A

Diet
Acids

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15
Q

What is the most caries conductive component of our diet

A

Sucrose

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16
Q

What are caries conductive bacteria found in the mouth

A

Mutans streptococci
thought to be the most important bacteria in initiating caries

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17
Q

3 pathogenic properties of mutans streptococci for caries formation

A

Producing acids from carbohydrates (being Acidogenic)
Surviving at low ph (Aciduric)
Accumulating on teeth

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18
Q

Mutans streptococci aka

A

Plaque formers

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19
Q

What is responsible for the initial attack on the tooth

A

Mutans streptococci

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20
Q

What is responsible for progression of carious lesions

A

Lactobacillus

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21
Q

Lactobacillus thrive best within?

A

Highly acidic carious lesions

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22
Q

What is attributed to root caries formation

A

Actinomyces Naeslundii

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23
Q

What is critical level of ph that if at or below it is perfect environment for caries to form

A

5.2

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24
Q

Dental caries occur when what occurs more slowly

A

Remineralization occurs more slowly than demineralization

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25
Q

Bacteria found in periodontal disease are?

A

Gram negative

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26
Q

3 types of periodontal diseases

A

Gingivitis
Chronic periodontitis
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

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27
Q

Gingivitis is what when plaque is removed

A

Reversible

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28
Q

What type of periodontitis is characterized by slow progression of destruction and usually occurring in people 35 years and older

A

Chronic periodontitis

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29
Q

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is often referred to as

A

Trench mouth

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30
Q

Mechanisms of fluoride (3)

A

Inhibit bacterial metabolism after diffusing into the bacteria as hydrogen fluoride
Inhibiting demineralization
Enhance remineralization

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31
Q

Pulpitis

A

Inflammation of the tooth pulp

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32
Q

Periapical infection

A

Infection of the tooth apex

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33
Q

Cellulitis

A

Infection of the facial tissues

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34
Q

What is transient bacteremia

A

Members of the normal oral microbiota enter the bloodstream as a result of bleeding (cheek biting, traumatic tooth brushing, dental procedures)

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35
Q

What is subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Certain oral bacteria in the blood may induce damage to heart valves in someone who has previous damage to heart valves

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36
Q

People who have had prior damage to heart valves (rheumatic heart disease) should do what before oral treatment

A

Pre med with antibiotics

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37
Q

What does going green mean

A

Using products and procedures that have lower adverse impacts on health and the environment

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38
Q

4 stages in the development of an infection prevention program with reduced environmental impact

A

Inventory of infection control procedures
Develop a plan
Implement the plan
Review and monitoring

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39
Q

Carbon footprint is defined as

A

The amount of greenhouse gases directly or indirectly emitted

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40
Q

The greenhouse effect is a natural occurrence that

A

Helps regulate the temperature of our planet

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41
Q

Ozone depleting substances (ODSs) destroy the “good” atmospheric ozone. What are some examples of these

A

Some solvents, aerosol propellants and coolants

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42
Q

Biodegradation is the breakdown of materials by

A

Microbes in the environment

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43
Q

Do not compromise what so you can go green

A

Infection control

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44
Q

Can an infection control procedure improve the environment

A

Typically no, most have a negative effect because of increased waste and harmful chemicals

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45
Q

Aseptic techniques do what

A

Prevent or reduce the spread of MOs from one site to another

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46
Q

When are aerosols generated

A

During use of high and low speed handpieces, ultrasonic scalers and air water syringe

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47
Q

Spatter consists of particles larger than ? And can settle where?

A

Larger than 50um that can settle anywhere

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48
Q

Minimizing dental aerosols and spatter (3)

A

High volume evacuation
Rubber dam
Proper positioning of clients head

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49
Q

The HVE system should be cleaned at the end of the day by evacuating what through the system?
What should you not use?

A

Evacuate detergent or water based detergent disinfectant.
DONNOT USE BLEACH

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50
Q

What is the best approach in minimizing dental aerosols and spatter

A

HVE + rubber dam

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51
Q

Studies have shown that a mouth rinse with a long lasting antimicrobial agent can reduce the level of oral MOs for up to

A

5 hours

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52
Q

Examples of antimicrobial agents in pre procedural rinses

A

Chlorhexidine. Iodophors. Essential oils

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53
Q

Safe injection practices help prevent the transmission of disease agents during

A

Preparation and administration of parental medications

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54
Q

Aseptic retrival refers to

A

Retrieving a single item from a container without contaminating other items in the container

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55
Q

After barrier removal, sensors (digital X-rays) should be cleaned of ? And disinfected with?

A

Cleaned of gross debris and saliva
Disinfected with a low level disinfectant or as per manufactures instruction

56
Q

Clean disinfect and rinse all dental prosthesis and prosthodontic materials (impressions, bite reg) using at least?

A

An intermediate level disinfectant

57
Q

What should you use for heavy soiled prosthesis

A

Ultrasonic cleaner
(Plastic bag w zipper or beaker)

58
Q

2 types of dental environmental surfaces related to disease spread

A

Clinical contact surfaces and housekeeping surfaces

59
Q

Contamination of environmental surfaces can be (3)

A

Droplet. Direct. Indirect

60
Q

Clinical contact surfaces are

A

Touched frequently with gloves during patient care that may be contaminated with blood or saliva

61
Q

2 general approaches to surface asepsis

A

Surface barrier
Preclean and disinfect

62
Q

Surface covers should be ____ to fluids to keep MOs in saliva; blood or other liquids from soaking through to contact the surface

A

Impervious

63
Q

Precleaning reduces then number of

A

Contaminating MOs and the presence of bio burden

64
Q

Using a disinfectant for the Precleaning step starts

A

The killing process early and reduces the chances of spreading contamination to adjacent surfaces

65
Q

Antibiotics kill MOs

A

In or on the body

66
Q

Antiseptics kill MOs

A

On the skin and other body surfaces

67
Q

Disinfectants kill MOs

A

On environmental/inanimate sirfaces

68
Q

Skull and crossbones pictogram is used for

A

Hazardous products that can cause death or acute toxicity if inhaled, swallowed or through skin contact even in small amounts

69
Q

The symbol of the flame indicates potential

A

Fire hazard

70
Q

The flame over circle pictogram is used to indicate

A

Oxidizing; fire and or explosion in the presence of flammable or combustible material

71
Q

The gas cylinder symbol indicates?
What do these include ?

A

Gasses under pressure that may explode if punctured heated or dropped.
May include dissolved gas, liquified gas, compressed gas and refrigerated liquefied gas

72
Q

The health hazard symbol is used on product labels and SDSs that cause

A

Or are suspected of causing allergic reaction, respiratory sensitization, specific target organ toxicity, reproductive toxicity, carcinogenicity, aspiration hazard or germ cell mutagenicity

73
Q

The corrosion symbol is used on products that can cause

A

Severe skin burns and eye damage. As well as products that are corrosive to metals

74
Q

The exploding bomb pictogram is used for products

A

At risk of explosion due to fire, shock, friction, heat or puncture

75
Q

The exploding bomb pictogram is placed on labels of

A

Mixtures of self reactive substances and organic peroxides

76
Q

The exclamation mark pictogram is used for products that may

A

Cause less serious health effects
Ex. Product may be harmful to skin, cause eye irritation, respiratory damage and/or fatal in large doses

77
Q

The biohazardous pictogram is used only in

A

Canada

78
Q

Biohazardous pictogram indicates products may have

A

Organisms or toxins that can cause diseases in humans and animals

79
Q

What are examples of products that are exempt from WHMIS

A

cleaning products like toilet bowl cleaner/ windex
Pesticides/herbicides
Cosmetics
Tobacco
Drugs/ pharmaceuticals
Explosives

80
Q

What does WHMIS stand for

A

Workplace hazardous materials information system

81
Q

There are 3 times more deaths every year from _____ than traumatic injuries

A

Exposure to chemicals

82
Q

Exposure to hazardous materials can cause or contribute to

A

Irritation
Burns
Sensitization
Heat ailments
Kidney/lung damage
Cancer
Death

83
Q

What are the goals of WHMIS

A

-provide employers and employees information about hazardous materials in the workplace
-prevent accidents or injury occurring in the course of employment

84
Q

Routes of entry include

A

Inhalation
Ingestion
Absorption
Injection

85
Q

WHMIS principles of prevention
*hint ARACE

A

Avoid hazards
Recognize hazards
Assess hazards that cannot be avoided
Control hazards
Evaluate controls

86
Q

3 key elements of WHMIS

A

Labels on hazardous products
Safety data sheets (SDS)
Training

87
Q

For WHMIS what terms are interchangeable

A

Controlled products and hazardous materials

88
Q

2 types of labels

A

Workplace labeling and supplier label

89
Q

Who are suppliers

A

Manufacturers
Processors
Packaged
Importer
Seller

90
Q

Suppliers must (3)

A

Classify materials into one or more of the hazardous classifications
Supply labels for controlled products
Prepare and provide sds

91
Q

If there is no label it is the _____ duty to request from supplier

A

Employers

92
Q

Innate defences

A

Always active; 1st and 2nd line of defense

93
Q

Acquired (adaptive) defense

A

Must be stimulated to become active; 3rd line of defense

94
Q

Innate host defense barriers include

A

Physical
Mechanical
Cellular
Antimicrobial
Chemicals

95
Q

Examples of physical barriers

A

Unbroken skin
Mucous membranes (eyes, nose, mouth)

96
Q

Mechanical barriers examples

A

Movement of cilia
Sticky nature of mucous
Hair in the nose
Coughing
Sneezing

97
Q

Examples of antimicrobial chemicals

A

HCL in stomach
Organic acids on skin
Interferon

98
Q

Cellular barrier examples

A

Phagocytes (neutrophils or macrophages)

99
Q

Is acquired immunity present at birth

A

No

100
Q

Antigens are foreign to the ____ and activate the ____

A

Body; immune response

101
Q

Lysosome (chemical barrier) is an enzyme produced in

A

Sweat
Tears
Saliva
(Kills bacteria)

102
Q

Gastric juices ( chemical barrier) is

A

Stomach acids that kills bacteria and toxins

103
Q

Saliva (chemical barrier) dilutes

A

MO’s and washed oral cavity

104
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Phagocytes destroy microbes in body tissue

105
Q

Localized response to damage is called

A

Inflammation

106
Q

T-lymphocytes (acquired immunity) is a ___ mediated response

A

Cell mediated response

107
Q

B-lymphocytes (acquired immunity) is a _____ mediated response

A

Antibody mediated response

108
Q

Plasma produces

A

Antibodies

109
Q

What are the 5 main types of white blood cells (WBC)

A

Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

110
Q

WBC (aka leukocytes) protect against

A

Infectious disease and foreign invaders

111
Q

B cells attack ____ and where?

A

Attack invaders OUTSIDE the cells

112
Q

T cells attack

A

Infected cells

113
Q

B cells divide to produce

A

Plasma and memory cells

114
Q

Produces antibodies which bind to bind to antigens and eliminate them

A

Plasma

115
Q

Effectively respond to a second encounter with a pathogen

A

Memory cells

116
Q

Killer/ cytotoxic cells

A

Track down cells infected with virus

117
Q

Largest WBC

A

Monocytes

118
Q

Monocytes turn into what when they leave the blood stream

A

Macrophages

119
Q

Most abundant WBC

A

Neutrophils

120
Q

Found mostly in mucous membranes and deal with parasites

A

Eosinophils

121
Q

Rarest of the WBC

A

Basophils

122
Q

Basophils are responsible for what response and release what

A

Allergic reactions. Antigen response
Release histamine

123
Q

Artificial immunity involves being

A

Immunized or vaccinated against a specific disease

124
Q

Cell mediated allergic reaction

A

Contact dermatitis

125
Q

The initial immune response = increased number of

A

Lymphocytes

126
Q

Once we had infectious disease we frequently

A

Will not get that disease again

127
Q

The lysosomal enzymes in the vacuole digest the

A

Bacterial cell

128
Q

To the site of inflammation the earliest cells to arrive are? Followed by?

A

Earliest = neutrophils
Followed by monocytes/macrophages and lymphocytes

129
Q

In acquired immunity the immune system learns how to attack

A

Antigens and develop memory

130
Q

Response to infection that inhibits bacterial growth and increases rate of repair

A

Fever

131
Q

These are more common in lymph than in blood, they have the longest life span (memory cells) and include B cells and T cells

A

Lymphocytes

132
Q

Activate more WBC’s and are driving force in maintaining defense system

A

Helper T cells

133
Q

Neutrophils (aka PMNs) are the first responders to what kind of infections?
They make what?

A

Bacterial and fungal infections
They make pus

134
Q

Activation of the immune system by certain antigens can cause damage to the body; what is an example of this

A

Pollens-antibody-mediated allergic reaction to the nose and eyes
Hay fever
Asthma

135
Q

Allergy to a substance distributed throughout the body may result to a widespread reaction affecting the blood stream, lungs and heart

A

Anaphylactic shock

136
Q

In phagocytosis the cell membrane will surround a bacteria to produce a pocket that will eventually close tightly around the bacteria; this pocket is a

A

Vacuole called the phagosome

Hygiene Sem 1 (22 decks)

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