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2024 - Élo - Qbank > Quiz 55 > Flashcards

Quiz 55 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the equation for sensitivity?

A

TP/(TP+FN)

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2
Q

What is the equation for PPV?

A

TP/(TP+FP)

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3
Q

What is the equation for specificity?

A

TN/(TN+FP)

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4
Q

What is a NPV?

A

Probability of no disease in a person who receives a negative test result; or the probability that a person with a negative test is disease free

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5
Q

What is the PPV?

A

Person with a positive test does have the disease

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6
Q

Child with cystic neck mass on lateral aspect of right side just below the angle of the jaw

A

Branchial cleft cyst

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7
Q

Brachial cleft cysts result from what?

A

Failure of the 2nd branchial cleft to involute

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8
Q

Where is the most common site of ulnar nerve intrapment?

A

Cubital tunnel

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9
Q

What is the cubital tunnel?

A

A channel located near the medial epicondyle

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10
Q

How can one differentiate between ulnar nerve entrapment from the guyon’s canal vs. the cubital tunnel?

A

In Guyon’s canal entrapment, sensory nerve supplying the dorsum of the hand is spared

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11
Q

What activity predisposes patients to Guyon’s canal entrapment

A

Cycling

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12
Q

In wound healing, when do fibroblasts appear?

A

At one week

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13
Q

When do macrophages predominate wound healing?

A

Days three to five

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14
Q

What cells play an essential role in formation of granulation tissue in wound healing?

A

Macrophages

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15
Q

Fibroblasts lay down what type of collagen during wound healing?

A

Type III collagen (granulation tissue type), later replaced by type I collagen (fibrosis)

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16
Q

What is the most common site affected by Crohn’s disease?

A

Terminal ileum

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17
Q

What is the most common site affected by ulcerative colitis?

A

Rectum

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18
Q

Cobblestone appearance of colon is seen in what disease?

A

Crohn’s disease

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19
Q

Microscopically, what is seen in Crohn’s disease?

A

Noncaseating granulomas

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20
Q

Enzymatic deactivation of antibiotics is a common mode of resistance in what classes of antibiotics?

A

Aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides

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21
Q

What is conn syndrome?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism resulting from from an aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma

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22
Q

What is parinaud syndrome?

A

Palsy of upward gaze, dissociation of light and accommodation, and failure of convergence

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23
Q

What is a common cause of parinaud syndrome?

A

Pinealoma

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24
Q

Pinealoma compresses what?

A

Tectum (superior colliculus)

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25
Q

What activates glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Phosphorylation by PKA

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26
Q

Activation of glycogen phosphorylase results in what?

A

Glycogenolysis

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27
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease can result in deposition of what type of amyloid?

A

AA

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28
Q

Long term hemodialysis can result in deposition of what type of amyloid?

A

A beta2 M

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29
Q

Secondary amyloidosis results in deposition of what type of amyloid?

A

AA

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30
Q

When is AL amyloid deposited?

A

Primary amyloidosis - deposition of light chain

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31
Q

In trauma, what lab test is good at differentiating between cardiac damage and skeletal muscle damage?

A

Creatine kinase - MB isoenzyme (also called creatine phosphokinase) is elevated with myocardial damagae vs. MM isoenzyme with skeletal muscle damage

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of rabies?

A

Excitability, agitation, hypersalivation, autonomic instability (lacrimation, sweating, pupillary dilation), hydrophobia (far of water ingestion due to pharyngeal spasms), aerophobia (pharyngeal spasms triggered by air drafts) and facial muscle spasticity

33
Q

What is seen postmorten in rabies?

A

Intracytoplasmic neuronal inclusions (Negri bodies)

34
Q

Where are Negri bodies most often located?

A

Hippocampus and cerebellar cortex

35
Q

When does one see Negri bodies?

A

Rabies

36
Q

What are antibodies directed against in Myasthenia gravis?

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

37
Q

What is is the mechanism of action of the drug used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium is a short acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

38
Q

Myasthenia gravis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II noncytotoxic

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Prevent binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosomes

40
Q

What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits the activity of peptidyl-transferase (inhibits formation of peptide bond)

41
Q

What are Lisch nodules?

A

Pigmented iris harmartomas

42
Q

When are lisch nodules seen?

A

NF1

43
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of NF1?

A

AD

44
Q

What is failure modes and effects analysis (FEMA)?

A

Method to identify where and how a given process might fail

45
Q

What is an effective therapy for phobias?

A

Desensitization

46
Q

What cofactors and coenzymes are used by pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP - vitamin thiamine), lipoic acid, coenzyme A (from pantothenate), FADH2, and NADH

47
Q

What symptoms are seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion, memory deficits (confabulations)

48
Q

What is the cause of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thiamine def.

49
Q

What is dry beriberi?

A

Thiamine def. damagin peripheral nerves

50
Q

What is wet beriberi?

A

Thiamine def. affecting the heart

51
Q

What are the symptoms of RMSF?

A

Malaise, frontal headache, fever, rash on hands and feet that spreads to involved the trunk

52
Q

What organism is responsible for RMSF?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

53
Q

What is the morphology of Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

Gram negative, obligate intracellular bacterium

54
Q

What is the progression of tularemia?

A

Papule progressing to necrotic, ulcerative lesion; associated with fever, malaise and chills

55
Q

What are the symptoms of the bubonic plague?

A

Enlarged, hemorrhagic lymph nodes

56
Q

Fatal hemorrhagic mediastinal lymphadenitis is characteristic of what disease?

A

Inhalation of anthrax

57
Q

Goodpasture syndrome results in what type of glomerulonephritis?

A

Rapidly progressive (crescentic)

58
Q

What is the MOA of fluconazole?

A

Inhibitor of fungal cytochrome P-450 dependent enzyme lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase

59
Q

What happens when K+ levels are low in a patient on digoxin?

A

Digoxin is able to bind more readily to Na-K ATPase resulting in greater digoxin toxicity

60
Q

Where is there a drug interaction between diuretics and digoxin?

A

Diuretics (loops and thiazides) can cause hypokalemia, resulting in digoxin toxicity

61
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Meknes disease?

A

X linked recessive

62
Q

Mutation in what gene results in Menkes disease?

A

ATP7A - ATP dependent copper efflux protein in the intestine

63
Q

Name three enzymes that need copper as a cofactor.

A

Lysyl oxidase (collagen synthesis), cytochrome C oxidase, and tyrosinase

64
Q

What is a normal capillary wedge pressure?

A

6-12 mmHg

65
Q

What are the affects of CCK on the pancreas, gallbladder and sphincter of Oddi?

A

Promotes pancreatic secretion, gallbladder contraction an sphincter of Oddi relaxation

66
Q

What cells release CCK?

A

I cells

67
Q

What is Trousseau’s syndrome?

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis - inflammatory thrombosis of veins producing redness, swelling, and tenerness

68
Q

When does one seen Trousseau’s syndrome?

A

Mostly associated with tumors of the pancreas, lung, and colon

69
Q

Painless obstructive jaundice, characterized by high direct bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase is seen in what type disease?

A

Pancreatic cancer

70
Q

What are tumor markers for pancreatic cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen and CA 19-9

71
Q

Immunosuppressed patient with ring enhancing brain lesions

A

Toxoplasma gondii

72
Q

What is the definitive host of toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cats

73
Q

What is the genetic mutation of congenital microvillus atrophy?

A

MYO5B

74
Q

What does MYO5B code for?

A

Myosin Vb

75
Q

What filament is important in the function of microvilli?

A

Actin microfilaments

76
Q

Tumor marker CA 125 is associated with what type of malignancy?

A

Epithelial tumors of the ovary

77
Q

What toxin is responsible for toxic shock syndrome?

A

TSST-1

78
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms in TSS?

A

Fever, hypotension, diarrhea, and desquamating rash

2024 - Élo - Qbank (33 decks)

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