HA SEMI REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal range range of heart for adults

A

60-100

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2
Q

What does S1 heart sound represent

A

Closure of AV valves

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3
Q

Which auscultation location is best for hearing the S2 sound

A

Base

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4
Q

Which valve closure is associated with the first heart sound

A

tricuspid and mitral

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5
Q

Develop a plan to evaluate a patient’s cardiac function using jugular venous pulse. What should be the primary focus?

A. check pulse regularity
B. observe for distention
C. measure pulse rate
D. assess pulse amplitude

A

B. observe for distention

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6
Q

Where is the point of maximal impulse typically located?

A. left 5th intercostal space at mcl

B. right 2nd intercostal space ate sternal border

C. left 2nd intercostal space at mcl

D. right 6th intercostal space at mcl

A

A. left 5th intercostal space at mcl

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7
Q

What does a split S2 sound indicate during auscultation?

Aortic stenosis
Pulmonic stenosis
Respiratory variations in intrathoracic pressure
mitral regurgitation

A

Pulmonic stenosis

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8
Q

How should a nurse check for the presence of S3 sound?

A. during deep inspiration
B. with the patient sitting upright
C. after exercise
D. While patient is in the left lateral decubilitis position

A

B. with the patient sitting upright

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9
Q

Which condition is most likely indicated by a laterally displaced apical impulse

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Atrial fibrillation

A

C. Ventricular hypertrophy

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10
Q

Assessing the intensity of the heart’s apical impulse can help in diagnosing which of the following conditions?

A. Pulmonary hypertension

B. right ventricular hypertrophy

C. left ventricular hypertrophy

D. Atrial septic defect

A

C. left ventricular hypertrophy

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11
Q

Design an examination sequence to identify abnormalities in the carotid artery. What would be the first step?

A. palpation of artery
B. auscultate for bruits
C. visual inspection for pulsation
D. checking bilateral symmetry in pulse

A

B. auscultate for bruits

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12
Q

What does the presence of an S4 heart sound typically suggest

A. Healthy heart function
B. Decreased myocardial contractivity
C. Non compliance of ventricles during atrial contraction
D. rapid ventricular filling

A

C. Non compliance of ventricles during atrial contraction

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13
Q

How does the jugular venous pulse reflect the function of the right side of the heart?

A. indicating systemic arterial pressure

B. showing ventricular contraction efficiency

C. monitoring changes in right atrial pressure

D. reflecting left ventricular ejection fraction

A

C. monitoring changes in right atrial pressure

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14
Q

What sound is characterized as a high pitched, musical noise during expiration?

A

Wheeze

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15
Q

Crackles are caused by what pysiological condition in the lungs

a. narrowed airways
b. goblet cells produced mucus
c. vibration of vocal cords
d. friction between pleural layers

A

b. goblet cells produced mucus

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16
Q

In which scenarion would you expect to expect to find decreased tactile fremitus

a. pneumonia
b. pleural effusion
c. pulmonary edema
d. bronchial obstruction

A

b. pleural effusion

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17
Q

Differentiate between the sounds of fine and coarse crackles. Which statement is true?

A. fine crackles are lower pitched and less brief than coarse crackles

B. Coarse crackles are softer and shorter in duration than fine crackles

C) Course crackles are high-pitched and short, while fine crackles are
low pitched and longer.

D) Coarse crackles are high pitched and occur during expiration

A

B. Coarse crackles are softer and shorter in duration than fine crackles

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18
Q

Assessing a patient with pectus excavatum, what potential respiratory impact should you consider?

A) Increased lung capacity

B) Decreased risk of respiratory infections

C) Reduced thoracic cavity space affecting lung expansion

D) Enhanced diaphragmatic movement

A

C. Reduced thoracic cavity space affecting lung expansion

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19
Q

Design an assessment strategy for a patient presenting with egophony. What would be your first step?

A) Ask the patient to whisper a phrase and listen with a stethoscope.

B) Have the patient say “Eee’ while auscultating the chest

C) Perform percussion to find areas of dullness

D) Check tor nasal flaring and use of accessory muscles

A

B) Have the patient say “Eee’ while auscultating the chest

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20
Q

Which condition is typically associated with stridor?

A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. pulmonary fibrosis

A

A Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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21
Q

Bronchophony is characterized by which of the following?

A) A whispered phrase heard clearly through auscultation

B) Normal breath sounds

C) Louder and clearer voice sounds through ausculation

D) Decreased vocal resonance

A

D) Decreased vocal resonance

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22
Q

How should you perform a tactile fremitus examination?

A) Ask the patient to breathe normally while palpating the chest with flat hands

B) Have the patient say “ninety nine” while palpating the chest wall.

C) Use the fingertips to tap on the chest while the patient holds their breath

D) Listen with a stethoscope while the patient coughs

A

A) Ask the patient to breathe normally while palpating the chest with flat hands

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23
Q

What does a finding of pectus carinatum suggest about the structural aspects of the thorax?

A) The sternum is indented
B) There is a lateral curvature of the spine.
C) The sternum protrudes outward
D) The rib cage in asymmetically developed.

A

C) The sternum protrudes outward

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24
Q

When hearing coarse crackles during auscultation, what should be considered as a likely cause?

A) Dry airways
B) Early heart failure
C) Pulmonary edema or pneumonia.
0) Vocal cord dysfunction

A

C) Pulmonary edema or pneumonia.

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25
Q

Which sound is associated with the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves?

a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4

A

a. S1

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26
Q

What type of breath sound is typically expected over most of the lung fields?

A. bronchial
B. Bronchovesicular
C. vesicular
D. Tracheal

A

C. vesicular

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27
Q

Egophony is considered a sign of what underlying lung condition when ‘E” sounds like ‘A”?

A. asthma
B. pneumothorax
C. Lung consolidation
D. Pleural effusion

A

C. Lung consolidation

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28
Q

If a patient exhibits a sunken sternum (pectus * excavatum), what should be assessed during physical examination?

A. diaphragmatic excursion
B. peripheral edema
C. lung expansion and breath sounds
D. Abdominal distention

A

C. lung expansion and breath sounds

29
Q

How would a patient with increased tactile fremitus likely be evaluated further?

A. metry test to check asthma
B. chest xray to investigate potential pneumoniae
C. Blood test for allergic reactions
D. gram for heart function

A

B. chest xray to investigate potential pneumoniae

30
Q

Which of the following patient descriptions most accurately identifies the sensation of palpitations?

A) I feel a sharp pain in my chest that lasts for a few minutes.”

B) I have a constant dull ache in my chest when i breathe deeply

C) ‘it feels like my heart is racing or fluttering, especially when im lying

D) “There’s a tight squeezing sensation around my chest that comes and goes.’

A

C) ‘it feels like my heart is racing or fluttering, especially when im lying

31
Q

Where is the Aortic valve auscultated best in a physical
examination?

A.) right 2nd intercostal space along the sternal border

B.)Left second intercostal space along the sternal border

C) Over the apex of the heart

D) Right fifth intercostal space a the midclavicular line

A

A.) right 2nd intercostal space along the sternal border

32
Q

The mitral valve is best heard over which anatomical location?

A) 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line

B) Second left intercostal space along the sternal border

C) Fifth left intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

D) Right second intercostal space along the sternal border

A

A) 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line

33
Q

Auscultation. of the tricuspid valve is typically performed at the:

A.) Left lower sternal border
B.) Right lower sternal border
C) left second intercostal space
D. right second intercostal space

A

A.) Left lower sternal border

34
Q

Analyze the implications of prolonged capillary refill time in the extremities:

A. indicate efficient blood flow
B. suggest arterial insufficiency
C. sign of healthy veins
D. indicate lymphatic drainage

A

B. suggest arterial insufficiency

35
Q

Evaluate the significance of unilateral swelling and pain in the lower extremities

A. muscle strain
B. deep vein thrombosis
C. benign condition
D. skin infection

A

B. deep vein thrombosis

36
Q

Develop a screening tool for peripheral arterial disease for use in a community health setting

A. questions on family history of diabetes
B. use temperature charts to record daily fluctuations
C. incorporate ABI
D. focus on exercise patterns

A

C. incorporate ABI

37
Q

What is the primary purpose of the deep veins in the legs?

A. carry blood under high pressure
B. return deoxygenated blood to the heart
C. regulate body temperature
D. supply oxygen to the leg muscles

A

B. return deoxygenated blood to the heart

38
Q

Which vein is commonly assessed for signs of venous insufficiency in the leg?

A. cephalic vein
B.
C
D. saphenous vein

A

D. saphenous vein

39
Q

What role do lymph nodes play in the peripneral vascular system?

a. produce lymph
b. filter and drain lymph to prevent edema
c. pump blood throughout the body
d. they store blood cells

A

b. filter and drain lymph to prevent edema

40
Q

how should you perform a manual compression test to assess varicose veins?

A. compress the artery in the affected area
B.
C. compress the vein
D. apply heat

A

C. compress the vein

41
Q

How do capillaries facilitate the exchange of materials?

a. through active transport
b. provide barrier to exchange
c. through diffusion
d. osmotic pressure

A

d. osmotic pressure

42
Q

What does the presence of an absent of diminished pulse in the extremities suggest?

a. normal aging process
b. potential arterial blockage
c. venous insufficiency
d. lymphatic congestion

A

b. potential arterial blockage

43
Q

why is it important to compare bilateral pulse points during a vascular assessment?

a. check for symmetry and identify abnormalities
b. determine muscle strength
c. assess skin temperature
d. evaluate your flexibility

A

a. check for symmetry and identify abnormalities

44
Q

Design a protocol for conducting an Ankle
Brachial Index test

a. start assess radial pulse
b. measure brachial & ankle pressure using a doppler
c. evaluate patient dietary habits
d. check for reflexes in the lower limbs

A

b. measure brachial & ankle pressure using a doppler

45
Q

Why is it important to inspect the base of the tongue and mouth floor

a. assess dental hygiene
b. check for oral cancers and lesions
c. evaluate salivary glands

A

b. check for oral cancers and lesions

46
Q

Malampati grading system use to assess

a. size of oral cavity
b. risk of difficult intubation
c. level of oral cancer risk
d. degree of gum disease

A

a. size of oral cavity

47
Q

Diagnosing candidiasis in immunocompromised patients. what is included?

a. routine blood test
b. antifungal sensitivity testing
c. visual inspection of oral mucosa
d. dietary assessment

A

c. visual inspection of oral mucosa

48
Q

cyanotic lips lips indicate:

a. respiratory or cardivasc problem
b. exposure to cold temp

A

a. respiratory or cardivasc problem

49
Q

what is the best approach to examine a patient’s palates and uvula?

a. palpation
b. inspection

A

b. inspection

50
Q

how does glossitis manifest in the mouth

a. increased saliva production
b. growth of lesion in the gums
c. deep red smooth tongue surface
d. black hairy tongue

A

c. deep red smooth tongue surface

51
Q

what symptom is commonly associated with ketoacidosis in diabetic patients

a. halitosis
b. acetone breath
c. musty smell
d. ammonia odor

A

b. acetone breath

52
Q

design a protocol for assessing sinus infections. what is the first step?

a. prescribe antibiotics
b. request imaging studies
c. inspect and palpate the sinus areas for tenderness
d. start with detailed symptom history

A

c. inspect and palpate the sinus areas for tenderness

53
Q

Presence of thick white coating with a red raw surface indicate:

a. vit c deficiency
b. immunocompetence
c. candidiasis
d. good oral hygiene

A

c. candidiasis

54
Q

redness and swelling int the parotid glands implication:

a. dehydration
b. inflammation or infection
c. dental carries

A

b. inflammation or infection

55
Q

normal mucosa with clear watery nasal discharge that tests positive for glucose indicate:

a. bacterial infections
b. viral infection
c. allergic reaction
d. leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

A

a. bacterial infections

56
Q

primary function of montgomery glands

a. cool breast tissue
b. produce milk
c. secrete lubricating substance
d. provide structural suuport sa breast

A

c. secrete lubricating substance

57
Q

quadrant of breast commonly associated with tumors

A

upper outer

58
Q

presence of orange texture on the breast suggest?

a. underlying inflammation
b. blocked lymphatic drainage
c. benign condition

A

b. blocked lymphatic drainage

59
Q

patient with newly inverted nipples suggest

a. recent weight gain
b. breast cancer
c. hormonal changes

A

b. breast cancer

60
Q

where is the tail of spence located

a. near sa sternum
b. upper inner
c. lower outer
d. upper outer

A

d. upper outer

61
Q

clear or bloody nipple discharge indicate:

a. benign condition
b. breast cancer
c. reaction to medication

A

b. breast cancer

62
Q

position for palpating axillary lymph nodes during breast exam

a. supine arms raised
b. seated arms relaxed
c. seated arms abducted
d. standing hands on hip

A

a. supine arms raised

63
Q

implications of firm immobile breast mass

a. benign
b. inflammation rather than tumor
c. malignant
d. cyst

A

c. malignant

64
Q

following up on abnormal findings. first step in breast examination

a. schedule biopsy
b. refer diagnostic mammogram
c. prefer antibiotics
d. advice immediate surgery

A

b. refer diagnostic mammogram

65
Q

fibrocystic breasts refer to

A

Painful, tender breasts

66
Q

cooper ligaments function within the breast

a. produce milk
b. support breast tissue
c. attach to breast to the muscle layer
d.

A

c. attach to breast to the muscle layer

67
Q

cullens sign indicate

liver disease
pancreatitis
appendicitis
gallbladder infection

A

pancreatitis

68
Q

rovsign’s sign is used to check for

liver cirrhosis
appendicitis
kidney infection
hernia

A

appendicitis

69
Q

which quadrant would you palpate in spleen

A

LUQ