Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A and P 2 > Ch 19 > Flashcards

Ch 19 Flashcards

1
Q

There are ~280 million Hb molecules in one RBC. A single Hb molecule carries ___ molecule(s) of O2, which means that a single RBC carries about ___ O2 molecules.

a. 1; 280 million
b. 8; 2 billion
c. 2; 1 million
d. 4; 1 billion

A

d. 4; 1 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All of the following EXCEPT ___ lead to a decrease in hematocrit.

a. dehydration
b. hemorrhage
c. problems with RBC formation
d. anemia

A

a. dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is it important that when iron binds to oxygen that this is a temporary and reversible interaction?

a. because the hemoglobin can then be fully saturated
b. because the oxygen needs to dissociate into tissues
c. because RBCs consume some of the oxygen they carry
d. because carbon dioxide binds to the iron
molecule simultaneously

A

b. because the oxygen needs to dissociate into tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What accounts for males’ HCT (~46) being higher than females’ HCT (~42)?

a. Males are larger than females.
b. Females’ RBCs are smaller than males’ RBCs.
c. Androgens stimulate RBC production.
d. Estrogens break down RBCs at a faster rate than they are produced.

A

c. Androgens stimulate RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Under normal conditions, what is the fate of the globular proteins of a recycled hemoglobin molecule?

a. They are filtered by the kidneys and eliminated in urine.
b. They are disassembled into their component amino acids.
c. They are stripped of their heme unit and converted into biliverdin.
d. They are converted to bilirubin and excreted in bile.

A

b. They are disassembled into their component amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following EXCEPT ___ are characteristics of all types of WBCs.

a. can leave capillaries by diapedesis
b. are capable of amoeboid movement
c. are phagocytic
d. are attracted to specific chemical stimuli

A

c. are phagocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the nature of and purpose of surface antigens on RBCs?

a. glycoproteins in the cytoplasm; substances that your body recognizes as foreign
b. receptor proteins; they aid the entry of oxygen to RBCs
c. peripheral proteins; they trigger an immune response
d. integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids; substances your immune system recognizes as “normal”

A

d. integral membrane glycoproteins or glycolipids; substances your immune system recognizes as “normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of WBC is found in greatest numbers in an infected cut?

a. monocytes
b. neutrophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. eosinophils

A

b. neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Monocytes transform into ____ in tissues, where they ____.

a. basophils; exacerbate inflammation
b. plasma cells; synthesize and release antibodies
c. macrophages; are phagocytic and release chemicals that attract neutrophils
d. natural killer cells; detect and destroy abnormal tissue cells

A

c. macrophages; are phagocytic and release chemicals that attract neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sam has an infestation of large parasitic worms. Which of the following will happen?

a. Eosinophils will release cytotoxic enzymes from their granules.
b. Lymphocytes will engulf the worms by phagocytosis.
c. Basophils will release histamine.
d. All types of WBCs will be damaged by the parasites, causing leukopenia.

A

a. Eosinophils will release cytotoxic enzymes from their granules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If Derek has surface antigen B and D on his RBCs, what blood type does he have? What type of antibodies are in his plasma?

a. B+; anti-A antibodies
b. B–; anti-D antibodies
c. B+; anti-B antibodies
d. B–; anti-A antibodies

A

a. B+; anti-A antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Andrew has blood type O negative. What type of blood can he receive from a donor? Why?

a. O negative or positive; he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma.
b. A, B, or O; he has no surface antigens on his RBCs.
c. O negative; he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma.
d. None of the above is correct.

A

c. O negative; he has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his plasma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why can’t a person with Type A blood safely receive blood from a person with Type B blood?

a. Mixing blood types causes infections in the recipient.
b. The anti-A antibodies in Type A’s plasma would react with Type B’s donated blood.
c. Type B blood would agglutinate in the recipient’s blood vessels and plug small vessels to vital organs.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

c. Type B blood would agglutinate in the recipient’s blood vessels and plug small vessels to vital organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is it unlikely that the antibodies in the plasma of a Type O donor would cause a transfusion reaction in a Type A recipient?

a. Surface antigens on RBCs are more important in determining compatibility.
b. The plasma portion of donated blood is tiny when compared to the volume of plasma in the recipient’s body.
c. Plasma is not transfused in blood donations.
d. O blood doesn’t have any antibodies in its plasma.

A

b. The plasma portion of donated blood is tiny when compared to the volume of plasma in the recipient’s body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is cross-matching performed, even though both donor and recipient are known to be the same blood type?

a. It reveals the presence of potential cross-reactions with surface antigens other than A, B, and Rh.
b. It ensures that neither donor nor recipient is anemic.
c. It confirms the HIV status of the donor.
d. It ensures that the donor does not have WBCs outside the normal range.

A

a. It reveals the presence of potential cross-reactions with surface antigens other than A, B, and Rh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the phases of hemostasis occurs first?

a. platelet phase
b. vascular phase
c. fibrinolysis phase
d. coagulation phase

A

b. vascular phase

17
Q

Cirrhosis is a consequence of chronic liver disease where the tissue becomes fibrotic. How could this disease impact the blood?

a. It can cause a decrease in the ability of blood to clot due to decreased production of fibrinogen.
b. It can decrease the production of immunoglobulins and decrease the ability to fight infection.
c. It can decrease the osmotic pressure of the blood.
d. It can impact all of the above.

A

d. It can impact all of the above.

18
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of platelets?

a. They are packets of cytoplasm produced from megakaryocytes.
b. They release chemicals important to clotting.
c. Their formation is stimulated by thrombopoietin.
d. They are derived from lymphoid stem cells.

A

d. They are derived from lymphoid stem cells.

19
Q

Following surgery for stomach cancer, Joe has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?

a. He may not be absorbing vitamin B12 from his diet since the operation because of less intrinsic factor.
b. He has iron deficiency anemia because of his cancer.
c. He is producing too much intrinsic factor following surgery.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

a. He may not be absorbing vitamin B12 from his diet since the operation because of less intrinsic factor

20
Q

Which condition below would stimulate the release of erythropoietin (EPO)?

a. hypoxia produced by high altitude
b. kidney disease
c. low blood pressure due to internal bleeding
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

21
Q

In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized?

a. spleen
b. bone marrow
c. kidneys
d. liver

A

d. liver

22
Q

All of the following EXCEPT ____ is a major function of blood.

a. transport of dissolved gases, nutrients, and hormones
b. stabilization of body temperature
c. storage for calcium ions
d. defense against toxins and pathogens

A

c. storage for calcium ions

23
Q

Why is venipuncture a common technique for obtaining a blood sample?

a. Blood pressure is relatively low in veins.
b. Superficial veins are easy to locate.
c. Venous walls are thinner than arterial walls.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct.

24
Q

What is the primary difference between plasma and interstitial fluid?

a. Plasma contains significantly more protein.
b. Interstitial fluid contains no respiratory gases.
c. The concentration of ions is significantly less in plasma.
d. Interstitial fluid contributes very little to the volume of ECF in the body.

A

a. Plasma contains significantly more protein.

25
Q

Which characteristics of blood contribute to its high viscosity?

a. its temperature is slightly above body temperature
b. interactions among proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma
c. its alkalinity
d. the percentage of body weight it comprises

A

b. interactions among proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma

26
Q

What contributions from the Extrinsic and Intrinsic Pathways help form the enzyme complex necessary to begin the Common Pathway?

a. Factors VIII and IX from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factor VII from the Intrinsic Pathway
b. Factor III from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factor XII from the Intrinsic Pathway
c. Factor VII from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factors VIII and IX from the Intrinsic Pathway
d. none of the above

A

c. Factor VII from the Extrinsic Pathway; Factors VIII and IX from the Intrinsic Pathway

27
Q
  1. Eosinophils will respond to which type of pathogen primarily?
    a. Bacteria
    b. Cancer
    c. Virus
    d. Toxin
    e. None of the Above
A

None of the Above

28
Q
  1. Mast cells produce what chemicals?
    a. Histamine
    b. Fibrinogen
    c. Erythropoietin
    d. Heparin
    e. Two of the above
A

Two of the above

29
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are NOT phagocytic?
    a. Macrophages
    b. Megakaryocytes
    c. Kupfer Cells
    d. Microglia
    e. Neutrophils
A

Megakaryocytes

30
Q
  1. What is the name of the red blood cell that first enters circulation?
    a. Prohemoblast
    b. Erythroblast
    c. Reticulocyte
    d. Mature RBC
    e. Prothromboblast
A

c. Reticulocyte

31
Q
  1. Lymphocytes that are produced in the Thymus are called what?
    a. T cells
    b. B cells
    c. Platelets
    d. Neutrophils
    e. Basophils
A

T cells

32
Q
  1. Erythropoesis is the process by which __________ is produced?
    a. RBC
    b. WBC
    c. Platelet
    d. T cells
    e. B cells
A

RBC

33
Q
  1. Which of the following cell acts like a mast cell and releases histamine and heparin?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Basophils
    c. Eosinophils
    d. Macrophages
    e. T-lymphocytes
A

Basophils

34
Q
  1. Which of the following pathways in the Coagulation Cascade is activated by tissue thromboplastin or tissue factor from damage that occurred inside the blood vessel wall?
    a. Extrinsic
    b. Common
    c. Intrinsic
    d. Nontrinsic
    e. What?
A

Extrinsic

35
Q
  1. Which of the following elements is required for a functional oxygen binding site in the hemoglobin molecule?
    a. Copper
    b. Magnesium
    c. Sodium
    d. Iron
    e. Potassium
A

Iron

36
Q
  1. The ability of WBC’s to migrate through the vessel membrane in the circulatory system is called what?
    a. Polycythenia
    b. Chemotaxis
    c. Opsonization
    d. Diapedesis
    e. Diffusion
A

Diapedesis

A and P 2 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions