Ch 24 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The major role of the gallbladder is to secrete bile salts for digestion of what substance?
    a. Fats
    b. Sugars
    c. Proteins
    d. Vitamins
    e. Carbohydrates
A

a. Fats

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2
Q
  1. The bolus created in the oral cavity is undergoing what chemical digestion technique(s) ( mark all that apply)?
    a. Carbohydrate
    b. Lipid
    c. Protein
    d. Fiber
    e. Amino acid
A

a. Carbohydrate

b. Lipid

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3
Q
  1. A generalized increase in all secretions of the digestive tract is a result of which stimulation?
    a. Sympathetic
    b. Myenteric reflexes
    c. Parasympathetic
    d. Localized reflexes
    e. Long reflexes
A

c. Parasympathetic

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4
Q
  1. The enzyme that digests the proteins into polypeptides is what?
    a. Amylase
    b. Lipase
    c. Maltase
    d. Pepsin
    e. HCL
A

d. Pepsin

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following are responsible for increasing the surface area of the small intestine? ( MARK ALL THAT APPLY)
    a. Haustra
    b. Plicae
    c. Lacteals
    d. Intestinal villi
    e. Gastric pits
A

b. Plicae

d. Intestinal villi

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6
Q
  1. The production of acid and enzymes by the gastric mucosa is controlled and regulated by what?
    a. The central nervous system
    b. Short reflexes in the gastric wall
    c. Digestive tract hormones
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. All of the above

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7
Q
  1. Tongue functions include which of the following?
    a. Mechanical processing
    b. Sensory analysis
    c. Secretion of mucins
    d. Assisting with bollus formation
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is supplying highly nutrient rich blood to the Hepatic Portal system?
    a. Large intestine
    b. Small intestine
    c. Gastric
    d. Spleen
    e. A and B
A

e. A and B

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9
Q
  1. The initial location for chemical breakdown of proteins is located where?
    a. Oral cavity
    b. Stomach
    c. Deuodenum
    d. Small intestine
    e. Cecum
A

b. Stomach

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10
Q
  1. The main proteolitic enzyme from the pancreas that digests the polypeptides to small peptide chains is what?
    a. Amylase
    b. Lipase
    c. Maltase
    d. Trypsin
    e. HCL
A

d. Trypsin

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11
Q
  1. The enzyme alpha amylase digests which of the following?
    a. Proteins
    b. Carbohydrates
    c. Monosacharides
    d. Lipids
    e. Nucleic acids
A

b. Carbohydrates

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12
Q
  1. The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by which of the following?
    a. Sight of food
    b. Entry of chime in the small intestine
    c. Entry of chime in the large intestine
    d. Release of bile in the small intestine
    e. Entry of food into the stomach
A

e. Entry of food into the stomach

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13
Q
  1. The pancreas produces ______________ digesting enzymes in the form of proenzymes.
    a. Carbohydrates
    b. Protein
    c. Sugar
    d. Lipid
    e. Nucleic Acid
A

b. Protein

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14
Q
  1. Chief cells and Parietal cells secrete which of the following
    a. HCL and gastrin
    b. Mucus and pepsinogen
    c. Intrinsic factor and mucus
    d. HCL and pepsinogen
    e. Enterokinase and intrinsic factor
A

d. HCL and pepsinogen

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15
Q
  1. You are caring for a 68 year old patient who is three days post op. During your routine exam you notice hypo-bowel sounds. The person probably has a decrease in which of the following?
    a. Protein digestion
    b. Gastric secretions
    c. Peristalsis
    d. Local reflexes
    e. nothing
A

c. Peristalsis

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16
Q

Your molars are most useful for _____.

a. crushing and grinding a tough pizza
b. shredding meat off a bone
c. nipping the end of a carrot
d. none of the above

A

a. crushing and grinding a tough pizza

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17
Q

Which of the following is a function of mesenteries?

a. Mesenteries stabilize the organs of the abdominal cavity.
b. Mesenteries provide a route for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels to and from the digestive tract.
c. Mesenteries prevent the intestines from becoming tangled with changes in body position.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct

18
Q

What is occurring when the soft palate and larynx elevate and the glottis closes?

a. swallowing
b. hiccupping
c. speaking
d. coughing

A

a. swallowing

19
Q

What is the primary source of flatus emitted from the intestines?

a. indole and skatole, two nitrogen-containing compounds
b. ammonia in the form of ammonium ions
c. indigestible carbohydrates acted on by bacteria
d. breakdown products of bilirubin

A

c. indigestible carbohydrates acted on by bacteria

20
Q

Which age-related changes in the digestive system are the results of decreased smooth muscle tone?

a. weaker peristaltic contractions and decrease in motility
b. thinning of epithelia of the mouth, esophagus, and anus
c. presence of hemorrhoids and esophageal reflux
d. both A and C

A

d. both A and C

21
Q

The four major layers of the GI tract are ______.

a. mucosa, digestive epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa
b. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
c. submucosa, submucosal plexus, myenteric plexus, and serosa
d. none of the above

A

b. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

22
Q

Which type of epithelium lines the intestines, and why?

a. simple squamous epithelium; because the absorption of nutrients occurs here
b. stratified squamous epithelium; because this area is subjected to abrasion
c. stratified cuboidal epithelium with cilia; because this area has many secretions from glands
d. simple columnar epithelium; because this area is involved with the absorption of nutrients

A

d. simple columnar epithelium; because this area is involved with the absorption of nutrients

23
Q

Which structures comprise a hepatic triad?

a. branches of the hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery, and a branch of the bile duct
b. branches of the cystic duct, common bile duct, and common hepatic duct
c. the superior mesenteric and splenic veins
d. none of the above

A

a. branches of the hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery, and a branch of the bile duct

24
Q

The major histological differences between the large intestine and small intestine are that the large intestine ______.

a. lacks villi, has abundant goblet cells, and has deeper intestinal glands
b. has longer villi, more microvilli, and plicae
c. has a larger nutrient absorptive surface
d. produces more enzymes and hormones

A

a. lacks villi, has abundant goblet cells, and has deeper intestinal glands

25
Q

How do most chylomicrons enter the lymphatic system?

	a. through the left and right subclavian     
              veins
	b. through lacteals
	c. through the thoracic duct
	d. through the hepatic portal system
A

b. through lacteals

26
Q

Where in the human body will chemical digestion begin?

a. in the oral cavity
b. in the esophagus
c. in the stomach
d. none of the above

A

a. in the oral cavity

27
Q

In which region(s) of the digestive tract does mechanical processing occur?

a. in the mouth, by teeth and the tongue
b. in the stomach, by churning
c. in the small intestine, by segmentation
d. all the above

A

d. all of the above

28
Q

What is unusual about the muscularis externa of the esophagus?

a. It contains skeletal muscle along the superior one-third of its length.
b. It is surrounded by serosa.
c. It contains a combination of smooth muscle and skeletal muscle along the superior one-third of its length.
d. It contains nerves.

A

a. It contains skeletal muscle along the superior one-third of its length.

29
Q

How do the regional specializations of the small intestine change along its length?

a. The duodenum has small villi and numerous mucous glands.
b. The jejunum has numerous villi for absorption.
c. The ileum contains aggregated lymphoid nodules.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct

30
Q

Where are the motor neurons that control smooth muscle contraction and glandular secretions of the GI tract located?

a. in the hypothalamus
b. in the submucosal plexus
c. in the myenteric plexus
d. in the muscularis mucosa

A

c. in the myenteric plexus

31
Q

Which of the enzymes below would digest a particular carbohydrate into glucose and fructose?

a. lactase
b. maltase
c. sucrase
d. nuclease
A

c. sucrase

32
Q

The liver has more than 200 critical functions. Which of the following is NOT a liver function?

a. carbohydrate, lipid, and amino acid 		    metabolism
b. vitamin and mineral storage
c. secretion of CCK, storage and 			    concentration of bile
d. removal of antibodies, circulating 		    hormones, and toxins
A

c. secretion of CCK, storage and concentration of bile

33
Q

How do the roles of pepsinogen and HCI interact in the stomach?

a. They both digest chyme.
b. HCI is necessary to prevent pepsinogen 	from digesting proteins.
c. They both kill microorganisms.
d. HCI is necessary for the conversion of 	pepsinogen to pepsin.
A

d. HCI is necessary for the conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin

34
Q

What effect(s) does the secretion of CCK have on a fatty meal’s entrance to the duodenum?

a. speeds up gastric emptying
b. reduces rate and force of gastric 		    contractions
c. inhibits secretion of gastric acids and 		    enzymes, slowing gastric emptying
d. increases secretion of gastrin and 		    decreases bile secretion
A

c. inhibits secretion of gastric acids and enzymes, slowing gastric emptying

35
Q

What effect does secretion of secretin by enteroendocrine cells of the duodenum have on the pancreas?

a. It stimulates the secretion of glucagon.
b. It stimulates production of pancreatic 	    buffers that protect the duodenum.
c. It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
d. It promotes production and secretion of 	    pancreatic enzymes.
A

b. It stimulates production of pancreatic buffers that protect the duodenum

36
Q

Why is diarrhea potentially life threatening, but constipation is not?

a. Wastes not eliminated as feces will be eliminated through urine.
b. Constipation affects only gastric motility.
c. Constipation causes edema.
d. Diarrhea causes rapid water and electrolyte loss.

A

d. Diarrhea causes rapid water and electrolyte loss.

37
Q

When a person suffers from chronic gastric ulcers, the branches of the vagus nerve serving the stomach are sometimes surgically severed. This is because the vagus nerve:

a. carries gastric pain sensations to the brain stem.
b. stimulates gastric motility through the parasympathetic division.
c. stimulates gastric secretions through the parasympathetic division.
d. causes ulcers due to overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

A

c. stimulates gastric secretions through the parasympathetic division.

38
Q

Which disorder increases the rate at which fluids move into the peritoneal cavity? What condition results from excess fluids in the peritoneal cavity?

a. liver disease; ascites
b. gastric ulcers; internal bleeding
c. diarrhea; dehydration
d. Crohn’s disease; malabsorption
A

a. liver disease; ascites

39
Q

Which statement below is true with regard to gastric activity in the digestive system?

a. Overstimulation of the sympathetic division of the ANS can inhibit the cephalic phase and lead to stomach upset.
b. Caffeine and alcohol, when used as part of a meal, will inhibit gastric activity.
c. Emotional states have no effect on gastric activity.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

a. Overstimulation of the sympathetic division of the ANS can inhibit the cephalic phase and lead to stomach upset.

40
Q

Which of the following statements correctly states the absorption of an ion/vitamin?

a. Ca2+ absorption is inhibited by calcitriol.
b. Vitamin B12 absorption occurs when it binds to extrinsic factor.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed from micelles along with dietary lipids.
d. Aldosterone is a hormone that stimulates the absorption of K+.

A

c. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed from micelles along with dietary lipids.

41
Q

How does taking fat-soluble vitamins on an empty stomach affect the absorption of those vitamins?

a. The vitamins are not absorbed, because 		    they require presence of other lipids.
b. Having an empty stomach enhances 		 	    absorption.
c. A different metabolic pathway is used 	when you 	    have an empty stomach.
d. None of the above is correct.
A

a. The vitamins are not absorbed, because they require presence of other lipids.