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A and P 2 > ch 22 > Flashcards

ch 22 Flashcards

1
Q

If the thymus failed to produce thymic hormones, which population of lymphocytes would be affected?

a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. monocytes
d. antigen-producing cells

A

b. T lymphocytes

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2
Q

Which of the following is true of lymphatic capillaries?

a. They have smaller diameters than blood capillaries.
b. Endothelial cells of lymphatic capillaries are not bound tightly together, but they do overlap.
c. They have thicker walls than blood capillaries.
d. They form continuous tubes.

A

b. Endothelial cells of lymphatic capillaries are not bound tightly together, but they do overlap.

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3
Q

All of the following EXCEPT _________ is a function of the lymphatic system.

a. producing, maintaining, and distributing lymphocytes
b. resisting and overcoming disease
c. draining lymph from the bone marrow
d. maintaining normal blood composition and volume

A

c. draining lymph from the bone marrow

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4
Q

Why do lymph nodes enlarge during some infections?

a. because of bacterial invasion and accumulation
b. due to accumulation of antibodies
c. due to accumulation of circulating T cells
d. due to phagocytic and lymphatic cell division

A

d. due to phagocytic and lymphatic cell division

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5
Q

Which of the following is a dangerous consequence of lymphedema in a limb?

a. accumulation of toxins and pathogens due to stagnant interstitial fluids
b. swelling and distension of the limb
c. loss of elasticity in connective tissue of the affected limb
d. all of the above

A

a. accumulation of toxins and pathogens due to stagnant interstitial fluids

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6
Q

What effects do pyrogens have in the body?

a. release complement
b. increase temperature/cause fever
c. stimulate NK cells
d. release interferon

A

b. increase temperature/cause fever

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or function of nonspecific defenses?

a. are present at birth
b. destruction of abnormal cells by NK cells
c. dependence on the activity of lymphocytes
d. interferons coordinating defenses against viral infections

A

c. dependence on the activity of lymphocytes

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8
Q

How do interferons increase resistance to viral infections?

a. They can respond immediately.
b. They recognize abnormal cells by the presence of unusual antigens.
c. They interfere with viral replication inside cells.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

c. They interfere with viral replication inside cells.

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9
Q

Why would the liver, lungs, and CNS be affected by a low monocyte count in blood?

a. Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, and microglia are derived from monocytes.
b. Lack of monocytes causes NK lymphocytes to attack those structures.
c. The liver, lungs, and CNS are secondary parts of the immune system.
d. None of the above is correct.

A

a. Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, and microglia are derived from monocytes.

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10
Q

All of the following EXCEPT ________ is an effect of complement activation.

a. making target cells easier to engulf
b. destruction of target cell membranes
c. attracting neutrophils and macrophages
d. reducing inflammation

A

d. reducing inflammation

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11
Q

A decrease in the number of cytotoxic T cells directly affects which type of immunity?

a. acquired immunity
b. innate immunity
c. humoral immunity
d. cell-mediated immunity

A

d. cell-mediated immunity

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12
Q

The spleen is _____.

a. a fragile organ that can rupture easily
b. the site where red blood cells are recycled
c. the site where B and T cells can respond to antigens in circulating blood
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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13
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of WBCs responsible for overcoming an infection?

a. neutrophils and NK cells → phagocytes/cytotoxic T cells → plasma cells
b. memory B cells → plasma cells → NK cells
c. phagocytes → plasma cells → antibodies
d. B cells → helper T cells → phagocytes → CD8 cells

A

a. neutrophils and NK cells → phagocytes/cytotoxic T cells → plasma cells

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14
Q

How is the secondary response affected if memory B cells for a particular antigen are absent?

a. A pathogen that had previously invaded would be recognized and quickly killed.
b. The secondary response would not occur.
c. Memory T cells take over the role of the memory B cells.
d. CD4 cells would differentiate into B cells.

A

b. The secondary response would not occur.

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15
Q

How does the absence of helper T cells affect the antibody-mediated immune response?

a. Neither B cells nor T cells are stimulated to 
           respond to a pathogen; therefore, no immune  
           response occurs.
b. Cytotoxic T cells proliferate.
c. Class II MHC proteins appear in the cell 
           membrane.
d. Immune response is unaffected by loss of helper 
          T cells.
A

a. Neither B cells nor T cells are stimulated to
respond to a pathogen; therefore, no immune
response occurs.

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions can be determined with a skin test?

a. if a baby has severe combined            
         immunodeficiency disease
b. if a person has been exposed to an 
         antigen
c. if a person has an autoimmune disease
d. if a person has diabetes mellitus
A

b. if a person has been exposed to an

antigen

17
Q

Which kind of immunity protects a developing fetus, and how is that immunity produced?

a. natural active immunity; maternal illness and  
          recovery
b. natural passive immunity; the transfer of IgG 
          antibodies from the mother to the fetus through 
          the placenta
c. artificial passive immunity; injections of gamma 
          globulins
d. artificial active immunity; vaccinations
A

b. natural passive immunity; the transfer of IgG
antibodies from the mother to the fetus through
the placenta

18
Q

The formation of an antigen–antibody complex may cause elimination of the antigen in what way?

a. The antibody binds to a site on a virus making 
           the toxin incapable of attaching itself to a cell.
b. An antibody binds to antigenic determinant 
           sites on two different antigens.
c. Antigens covered with antibodies attract 
           phagocytes.
d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct.

19
Q

Artificially acquired passive immunity _______, while artificially acquired active immunity _______.

a. is genetically determined; is conferred by administration  	    of antibodies
b. is conferred from mother to infant through breast milk; 		    develops after exposure to antigens in the environment
c. is conferred by administration of antibodies; develops after 	    administration of an antigen to prevent disease
d. stimulates antibodies against something you might 		    encounter in the future; combats something you’ve already 	    been exposed to
A

c. is conferred by administration of antibodies; develops after administration of an antigen to prevent disease

20
Q

Which analogy is most appropriate for comparing the interaction of an antibody’s active site binding with an antigen?

a. the heavy-chain constant segment’s interaction 
          with the light chain of an antibody
b. a drug reaction, such as penicillin allergy
c. an enzyme interacting with a substrate 
          molecule
d. the binding of a hapten and carrier molecule
A

c. an enzyme interacting with a substrate

molecule

21
Q

A tumor cell has developed and begun to divide in Amy’s liver. What type of immune cells will be able to detect and kill the tumor cells?

a. macrophages
b. basophils
c. natural killer cells
d. B cells

A

c. natural killer cells

22
Q

David suffers from rheumatoid arthritis. What is the term for this type of immune disorder?

a. autoimmune disease
b. allergy
c. immunodeficiency
d. lymphedema

A

a. autoimmune disease

23
Q

What are the best medications to use for tissue rejection in organ transplants?

a. interferon because it will diminish viral 
           interaction
b. cyclosporin A because it will decrease helper T           
           cells
c. prednisone because it will decrease both   	    
           inflammation and immunity
d. monoclonal antibodies because they are not 
           going to be recognized by T cells
A

b. cyclosporin A because it will decrease helper T
cells

24
Q

How can the presence of an abnormal peptide in the cytoplasm of a cell initiate an immune response?

a. by stimulating production of pyrogens, beginning an immune response
b. by becoming attached to B cells, which launch an immune response
c. by becoming attached to MHC and being presented to T cells
d. by altering the genetic programming of the infected cell

A

c. by becoming attached to MHC and being presented to T cells

25
Q

Denise is allergic to pollen. What is an allergy and how is allergy to pollen classified?

a. results from treatment with immunosuppressive 
           agents; delayed hypersensitivity
b. develops when the immune response targets 
            normal body cells; cytotoxic reaction
c. an inappropriate or exaggerated immune 
           response; immediate hypersensitivity
d. results from problems of development of 
    lymphoid organs; immune complex
          disorder
A

c. an inappropriate or exaggerated immune

response; immediate hypersensitivity

26
Q

Why is having both cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity integral to a healthy immune system?

a. T cells defend against pathogens inside cells, while 	    B cells defend against antigens in body fluids.
b. Cell-mediated immunity in genetically determined, 	 	    while antibody-mediated immunity is acquired.
c. Cell-mediated immunity is “specific,” while 			    antibody-mediated immunity is “nonspecific.”
d. None of the above is correct.
A

a. T cells defend against pathogens inside cells, while B cells defend against antigens in body fluids.

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an organ of the immune system?
    a. Liver
    b. Tonsils
    c. Appendix
    d. Thymus
    e. Spleen
A

Liver

28
Q
  1. Several days to a week after the first exposure to an antigen, there is an increase in the plasma antibody levels. This is called the ______________ response.
    a. Secondary
    b. Primary
    c. Principle
    d. Initial
    e. Essential
A

Primary

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is the name of the clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine?
    a. Peyer’s patches
    b. Tonsils
    c. Adenoids
    d. Lymph glands
    e. Thymus
A

Peyer’s patches

30
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the term lymphadenopathy?
    a. A congenital lack of lymph nodes
    b. A chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes
    c. A condition characterized by large accumulations of lymphatic fluid in tissue space
    d. The lack of lymphocytes in the peripheral circulation
    e. Disease of the immune system resulting in large increases in lymphocytes
A

A chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes

31
Q
  1. The body’s nonspecific defenses include all of the following EXCEPT
    a. Inflammation
    b. Interferon
    c. Complements
    d. The skin
    e. Antibodies
A

Antibodies

32
Q
  1. Which of the following demonstrates passive immunity?
    a. The injection of pre-formed antibodies into a person ( gamma-globulin)
    b. Getting the chicken pox
    c. Tetanus or flu shot
    d. MMR vaccination
A

The injection of pre-formed antibodies into a person ( gamma-globulin)

33
Q
  1. Interferons are chemicals produced by what cells?
    a. B lymphocytes
    b. T helper cells
    c. Infected cells
    d. Plasma cells
    e. Memory cells
A

Infected cells

34
Q
  1. The development of a fever and presence of Interleukin-1 demonstrates which cells are activated?
    a. Memory cells
    b. B lymphocytes
    c. Eosinophils
    d. Macrophages
    e. T suppressor cells
A

Macrophages

35
Q
  1. Class II MHC proteins appear in the cell membranes only when
    a. The plasma cells are releasing antibodies
    b. The APC is processing antigens
    c. Cytotoxic T cells are inhibited
    d. NK cells are activated
    e. None of the above
A

The APC is processing antigens

36
Q
  1. T and B cells can be activated only by
    a. Presence of pathogens
    b. Interleukins, interferons, and colony stimulating factors
    c. Cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer
    d. Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in the cell membrane
    e. Disease-causing agents
A

Exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in the cell membrane

A and P 2 (14 decks)

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