1st Year Flashcards
(94 cards)
1
Q
Oral candidiasis treatment?
A
Nystatin
2
Q
Murphy’s sign
A
Cholecystitis
3
Q
Grey Turner’s (lumbar redness) and Cullen’s (umbilical redness) sign +ve
A
Acute pancreatitis
4
Q
AMA antibodies
A
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
5
Q
Biliary disease associated with UC?
A
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
6
Q
ASMA antibodies
A
Autoimmune hepatitis
7
Q
Mnemonic for hepatitis
A
A= acute B= badass (blood, tattoo, sex) C= chronic, copycat (like A) D= dependent on B E= exotic
8
Q
Tetralogy of Fallot
A
Overriding aorta
Pulmonary stenosis
Ventricular septal defect
RV hypertrophy
9
Q
In BBB, in which leads would you look for the WilliaM MorroW sign?
A
V1 + V6
10
Q
First line treatment of hypertension in a 65 year old man?
A
Calcium-channel blocker e.g. Verapamil
11
Q
First line treatment of hypertension in a 40 year old black woman?
A
Calcium-channel blocker
12
Q
First line treatment of hypertension in a 45 year old man?
A
ACE inhibitor or ARB
13
Q
What do chief cells in the stomach secrete?
A
Pepsinogen
14
Q
What do parietal cells in the stomach secrete?
A
HCl
15
Q
What do D cells in the stomach, pancreas and intestines secrete?
A
Somatostatin
16
Q
Primary sclerosing cholangitis increases risk of which cancer?
A
Cholangiocarcinoma
17
Q
tissue tranglutaminase antibodies (Anti-TTG)
A
Coeliac disease
18
Q
What is Barrett’s Oesophagus?
A
Replacement of esophagus stratified squamous epithelium by simple columnar epithelium
19
Q
Barrett’s Oesophagus can progress to what?
A
Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
20
Q
When should anti-virals be used in hepatitis?
A
Only in CHRONIC hepatitis
21
Q
Where are ribosomes produced in the cell?
A
Nucleolus
22
Q
Where are lipids synthesised within the cell?
A
Smooth ER
23
Q
What 2 things are ribosomes made of?
A
Proteins + RNA
24
Q
What is adenosine used for?
A
SVT
25
What is atropine used for?
Bradycardia (muscarinic antagonist)
26
What do oligodendocytes produce?
Myelin
27
Initial management of MI?
Aspirin or Clopidogrel (300mg), anti-emetic, GTN
28
Treatment of MI after aspirin/clopidogrel?
PCI (within 90 mins)
or
Thrombolysis
29
Prevention of MI treatment?
Long term aspirin, BP/cholesterol control
30
Typical gallstones patient?
Female, Fair, Fat, Forty, Fertile
31
Investigations for gallstones?
LFTs, ultrasound, MRCP/ERCP
32
Treatment of gallstones?
Laproscopic cholescystesctomy, ursodeoxycholic acid
33
What is acute cholecystitis?
Inflammation of gallbladder causing obstruction of cystic duct
34
What is ascending cholangitis?
Infection of biliary tree
35
What is gallstone illeus?
Obstruction of illeus due to gallstone
36
Causes of acute pancreatitis?
GET SMASHED
```
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion bite
Hyperlipidaemia/Hyperparathyroidism/Hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs
```
37
Painless jaundice
Pancreatic carcinoma (also dark urine, pale stools, back/epigastric pain etc.)
38
Treatment pathway for asthma?
- -> SABA
- -> low dose ICS
- -> low dose ICS + LABA
- -> high dose ICS
- -> consider ICS + LABA + LAMA/theophylline etc.
39
Treatment pathway for COPD?
- -> SABA/SAMA
- -> ICS
- -> LABA + ICS
40
Side effect of rifampicin?
Red secretions (urine, sweat, tears), hepatitis
41
Side effect of isoniazid?
Peripheral neuropathy (hands + feet), hepatitis
42
Side effect of pyrazinamide?
Arthralgia, hepatitis
43
Side effect of ethambutol?
Optic neuritis, hepatitis
44
Which oesophageal cancer is associated with alcohol and smoking?
Squamous cell carcinoma
45
Treatment of oesophageal varices?
TIPS- transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt.
| Beta blockers
46
Where does aortic stenosis radiate to?
Carotids
47
Where does mitral regurgitation radiate to?
Axilla
48
Define Type 1 + Type 2 resp failure
Type 1- hypoxia with normal/low CO2
| Type 2-hypoxia with high CO2
49
Treatment pathway of angina?
- -> Beta blocker/ calcium channel blocker
| - -> GTN spray
50
Which arrhythmia is associated with rheumatic fever?
Mitral stenosis
51
Consolidation obscuring the right heart border on CXR?
Right middle lobe pneumonia
52
Consolidation obscuring the hemidiaphragm on CXR?
Lower lobe pneumonia
53
ALT > AST
Chronic liver disease
54
Which lung cancer is central?
Small cell and squamous
55
Which lung cancer is peripheral?
Adenocarcinoma
56
Which lung cancer is associated with non-smokers?
Adenocarcinoma
57
Which hormones can squamous cell lung carcinomas secrete?
PTH
58
Which hormones can small cell lung carcinomas secrete?
ACTH or ADH
59
Which lung cancer has the worst prognosis and how is it treated?
Small cell--> fast metastasis- chemotherapy
60
What can lung adenocarcinomas secrete?
TTF (thyroid transcription factor)
61
2 pathogens with a short incubation period?
Bacillus cereus
Staph aureus
Both 1-6 hours
Vomiting, diarrhoea, abdo pain
62
What is the incubation period of Salmonella and what does it grow in?
12-48 hours, from raw meat/food
63
What is the incubation period of Campylobacter and what does it grow in?
16-48 hours, from raw poultry
NB- causes BLOODY DIARRHOEA
64
What is the incubation period of E.coli 0157 and what does it grow in?
1-14 days, from food but often abroad
NB- causes BLOODY DIARRHOEA
65
Which investigation would you carry out for suspected bacterial enteritis?
Stool culture
66
Which investigation would you carry out for suspected viral enteritis?
Stool PCR
67
Which investigation would you carry out for suspected C.diff infection?
Stool toxin detection
68
Which investigation would you carry out for suspected H.pylori?
Stool antigen detection
69
What is the incubation period of Rotavirus and what symptoms does it cause?
18-36 hours
Fever, vomiting, watery diarrhoea
70
What is the incubation period of Norovirus and what symptoms does it cause?
12-48 hours
N+V, cramping, diarrhoea, myalgia, headache
71
Symptoms of right sided heart failure?
Ascites, pitting oedema, anorexia, hepatosplenomegaly, high JVP
72
Symptoms of left sided heart failure?
Orthopnea, PND, dyspnoea, fatigue, trachycardia, ankle oedema, crackles, restlessness
73
First degree AV block ECG characteristics?
elongated PR interval
74
Second degree AV block- Mobitz 1 ECG characteristics?
Progressive lengthening of PR until dropped beat
75
Second degree AV block- Mobitz 2 ECG characteristics?
Some p waves not followed by QRS
76
Complete heart block (third degree) ECG characteristics?
No relationship between P waves + QRS
77
Treatment for prosthetic valve endocarditis?
prescribe for Very Good Reasons:
Vancomycin
Gentamicin
Rifampicin
78
Treatment for native valve endocarditis?
you've Already Got native valves:
Amoxicillin
Gentamicin
79
Treatment for endocarditis due to strep viridans?
Benzylpenicillin + gentamicin
80
Treatment for endocarditis due to enterococcus?
All Germs ENTER the body:
Amoxicillin
Gentamicin
81
Which antibody is secreted in breastmilk?
IgA (+ saliva, mucous, tears)
82
Which antibody is produced first in response to infection?
IgM
83
Which antibody is most abundant in blood?
IgG
84
Describe sympathetic innervation of the heart?
via noradrenaline--> active B1 receptors--> activate Gs protein--> increases cAMP
Causes increase HR and contraction
Increases slope of pacemaker potential
85
Describe parasympathetic innervation of the heart?
via. vagus nerve continuously acting at SA node (vagal tone)--> activates M2 muscarinic receptors--> activate Gi proteins--> decreases cAMP
Causes decrease HR and contraction
Decreases slope of pacemaker potential
86
Does cardiac muscle contain gap junctions?
Yes, lots
87
Describe causes for rising, flat and falling stages of myocyte AP?
Rising- due to Na influx
Flat- due to Ca influx
Falling- due to K efflux
88
Which LFT is specific to the liver?
ALT (alanine aminotransferase)
89
MAP
Diastolic + 1/3 (systolic - diastolic)
90
Loud S1
Mitral stenosis
91
Slow rising pulse?
Aortic stenosis
92
S3 present?
Mitral regurgitation
93
Pre + post-ganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitter?
Acetylcholine for pre-ganglionic
| Noradrenaline for post-ganglionic
94
Pre + post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurotransmitter?
Acetylcholine for both
