(2,3) Other Degenerative Arthridities Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

What is erosive osteoarthritis (EOA)?

A

inflammatory variant of OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What population is primarily affected by erosive osteoarthritis?

A

middle-aged females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What joints are typically involved in erosive osteoarthritis?

A

bilateral symmetric:
- DIP
- PIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the clinical findings of erosive osteoarthritis?

A
  • pain
  • edema
  • redness
  • normal labs
  • chronic progressive changes w/ deformities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

15% of patients with erosive osteoarthritis may progress to ____

A

rheumatoid arthritis
(refer to rheumatology)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What radiographic sign is associated with erosive osteoarthritis?

A

“gull-wing” deformity:
- distal bone = lat. osteophytes
- prox. bone = central intra-articular erosions
creates articular surface invagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What populations are primarily affected by diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?

A
  • 25% of men >50yrs
  • 15% of women >50yrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?

A
  • mild LBP & stiffness
  • dysphagia (if in c/s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 2 conditions are associated with DISH?

A
  • OPLL (in up to 50% of cases)
  • diabetes mellitus (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How would you know if you are safe to adjust a patient with DISH?

A

check ROM in flexion & extension
(only absolute contraindication if ankylosing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common target site of DISH?

A

T7-T11
(may be more on R side d/t aorta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What question should you ask your patient who has DISH in the cervical spine?

A

any problems swallowing solid foods?
(mechanical dysphagia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the target sites of DISH?

A
  • T7-T11
  • c/s
  • t/s
  • l/s
  • enthesophytes (lig/tendon attachment sites)
  • ligament ossification (anterior to bodies & discs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for DISH?

A
  • Flowing hyperostosis (ossification + hypertrophy) of the ALL of 4 contiguous segments (doesn’t have to bridge)
  • no SI involvement
    *need spinal imaging to Dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What additional radiographic findings tend to be seen in DISH?

A
  • preservation of disc spaces
  • absence of DJD
  • enthesophytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What radiographic sign is pathognomonic for DISH?

A

cleavage plane
(lucency between ossified ALL and anterior vertebral bodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal thickness of the ALL?

A

2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What percent of patients with DISH also have OPLL?

A

up to 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is another name for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)?

A

formerly called Japanese spine Dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for OPLL?

A

hyperostosis of PLL in at least 1 segment
(parallel & just posterior to posterior body line, hard to see b/c of facets)

21
Q

What is the most common target site of OPLL?

22
Q

What is the biggest concern for patients with OPLL?

A

severe central canal stenosis
(aggravated by extension)

23
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient who has flowing hyperostosis of the ALL from T8-T11 and of the PLL at C3?

24
Q

Name 4 common causes of neuropathic arthropathy (NA).

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • alcoholism
  • trauma (paralysis)
  • syringomyelia
25
Name 4 uncommon causes of neuropathic arthritis.
- congenital insensitivity to pain - neurosyphilis - myelomeningocele - leprosy (Hanson's Dz)
26
What is Neuropathic Arthropathy?
progressive joint destruction secondary to a neurological disorder
27
What is the most common cause of neuropathic arthritis in the feet and lumbar spine?
diabetes mellitus
28
What is a common cause of neuropathic arthritis in the shoulder and upper extremity joints?
syringomyelia
29
What is a common cause of neuropathic arthritis in the lumbar spine and knee?
neurosyphilis (tertiary syphilis)
30
What is a common cause of neuropathic arthritis in the lower extremity?
leprosy (Hanson's disease)
31
What are the 2 forms of Neuropathic arthropathy?
Hypertrophic & Atrophic
32
What are some buzz word terms used in describing the appearance of **hypertrophic** neuropathic arthropathy?
- "Bag of bones" appearance - rocker bottom arch - "tumbled building block" spine
33
What mnemonic can be used when describing the radiographic characteristics of Hypertrophic NA? What is required for diagnosis?
6 D's (3 Dis words, 3 De words); require minimum of 3 D's to Dx - Distension - Dislocation - Disorganization - Density (subchondral sclerosing) - Debris - Destruction
34
What are the radiographic characteristics of Atrophic NA?
(vascular component) - "licked candy stick" appearance (tapered bone ends) - surgically amputated appearance - resorption of bone
35
What 2 buzz word terms are used exclusively in describing Atrophic NA?
- "licked candy stick" appearance - "surgically amputated" appearance (common in shoulder)
36
What is the most common cause of neuropathic arthropathy?
diabetes
37
What are alternative names for Synoviochondrometaplasia (SCM)?
Synovial osteochondromatosis
38
what is SCM?
creation of osteochondral loose bodies inside the joint capsule
39
what are the forms of SCM?
- primary SCM (idiopathic) - secondary SCM (2* to a degeneration)
40
what are the clinical features of SCM?
(non-specific) - joint pain - swelling - crepitus - locking
41
what is the #1 symptom of SCM?
joint locking
42
what is the #1 cause of joint locking in the knee?
meniscal tear
43
what are the radiographic features of primary SCM?
- loose bodies w/ **similar** size + shape (only seen if ossified) - none-mild DJD
44
what is the treatment for primary SCM? what are the consequences and subsequent management of this treatment?
Loose body resection partial Synovectomy: synovium lining removed to prevent recurrence - no synovium = decrease immune function, decrease lubrication, & ^DJD - lubricant injection every 6 months (glucosaminoglycan)
45
what are the radiographic features of 2* SCM?
- loose bodies w/ **different** size + shape (only seen if ossified) - **pre-exisiting** moderate to severe degenerative change
46
what is the treatment for secondary SCM?
- conservative management, NSAIDs - Arthroscopic loose body removal: vacuum out loose bodies (degeneration isn't of concern b/c pre-exists)
47
What age group is primarily affected by SCM?
30-50 yrs
48
What are the most common joints targeted by SCM?
- knee - hip - ankle - elbow - wrist