2: Medication List Centric Approach Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Tofranil

A

antidepressant (tricyclic amine- TCA) for depression and enuresis (FDA) and neuropathic pain, panic disorder, PTSD, ADHD-peds, bullemia nervosa (off label)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is off label use of a medication FDA approved?

A

no, off-label use is not an approved FDA indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does off label mean?

A

the medication is being used in a manner not specified in the FDA’s approved packaging label, or insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the information contained on the FDA- approved label is based on what?

A

the results of clinical studies that the drug maker submitted to the FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what 3 things does the FDA say a physician should do if they use a product off label?

A
  • have the responsibility to be well-informed about the product
  • to base its use on firm scientific rationale and on sound medical evidence
  • to maintain records of the product’s use and effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is an off label medication use investigational drug use?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is it legal for a physician to use medications off label?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is it legal for drug companies to market their drugs for off-label uses?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pharmacologic category of amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

antidepressant (Tricyclic Amine, TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

approved and off-label uses of amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

approved: depression

off-label: diabetic neuropathy, migraine prophylaxis, PNH, PTSD, IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ocular side effects of amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

accommodation disturbance, blurred vision, increased IOP, mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gabapentin (Neurotin) classification is

A

anticonvulsant (GABA analog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

approved and off-label uses of gabapentin (Neurotin)

A

approved: seizures, post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN)

off-label: diabetic neuropathy, neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia, restless leg syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ocular side effects of gapapentin (neurontin) and %s

A

nystagmus (8%), diplopia (1-6%), amblyopia (4%), blurred vision (3-4%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bevacizumab (Avastin) classification

A

antineoplastic VEGF inhibitor (vascular endothelial growth factor), monoclonal antibody (mAb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

approved and off-label uses of bevacizumab (Avastin)

A

approved: colorectal, cervical, NSCLC (non-small cell lung cancer)
off-label: age related macular degeneration, breast cancer (metastatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ocular side effects of bevacizumab (Avastin)

A

blurred vision (2%), eye infections and vision loss due to endophthalmitis from intravitreal administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

GRADE system stands for

A

grading of recommendations
assessment
development
evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 components of the GRADE system

A
  • 2 level representation of the strength of recommendation (strong or weak)
  • 4 level representation of the quality of the evidence (high, moderate, low, very low)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the study of science of the effects of drugs on the function of living systems (cells, tissues, organisms)

A

pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the effects of drugs on physiologic systems of patients

A

clinical pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the study of the therapeutic uses and effects of drugs

A

pharmacotherapeutics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the type of pharmacotherapeutic that is used to “aid in examination, evaluation, and diagnosis of the patient or a patient condition” and what is an example?

A

diagnostic
example: fluorescein dye strip for disclosing corneal injury, or injection in ophthalmic angiography or contrast media for radiographic visualization

24
Q

what is the type of pharmacotherapeutic that is used to “prevent an illness, infection, complication, adverse effect, etc.” and what is an example?

A

prophylactic
example: proparicaine, local ophthalmic anesthetic for tonometry, gonioscopy, removal of FB from cornea, influenza vaccination

25
what is the type of pharmacotherapeutic that is used in the "therapeutic management of disease or medical conditions" and what is an example?
treatment example: moxiflocacin (Vigamox) a fluoroquinolone antibiotic for treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis or metoprolol in the treatment of hypertension
26
official FDA definition of a drug
a substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease
27
how are vitamins regulated by the FDA?
they are regulated as "dietary supplements" as food, not as drugs
28
what are some other things listed under the dietary ingredient category?
minerals, botanicals products, amino acids, and substances such as enzymes, microbial probiotics and metabolites
29
how is regulation of biological products both similar and different from drugs?
biological products are included within this definition and are generally covered by the same laws and regulations, but differences exist regarding their manufacturing process (chemical process versus biological process)
30
like drugs, biologics are used to:
treat disease and medical conditions and to prevent or diagnose diseases
31
list examples of biological products
- vaccines - blood and blood products - allergenic extracts (both diagnostic and treatment) - gene and cellular therapies - recombinant DNA derived proteins and monoclonal antibodies
32
what is an example of a recombinant DNA derived protein?
etanercept (Enbrel) - TNF blocker used for rheumatoid arthritis, plaque psoriasis, etc. - a disease modifying anti rheumatic (DMARD)
33
what is an example of a monoclonal antibody
infliximab (Remicade) - TNF blocker used for rheumatoid arthritis, plaque psoriasis, etc. - a disease modifying anti rheumatic (DMARD)
34
recombinant DNA molecules are DNA molecules formed by what laboratory methods?
genetic recombination (such as molecular cloning)
35
describe recombinant DNA technology:
joining together of DNA molecules from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations that otherwise would not be found in the genome
36
what was the first clinically important human molecule to be produced by means of recombinant DNA technology?
pure human insulin | followed the cloning of the human insulin gene
37
how do monoclonal antibodies work?
they are directed at specific targets and have fewer adverse effects
38
how are monoclonal antibodies formed?
created from B lymphocytes fused with immortal B-lymphocyte tumor cells, these hybrid antigens then cloned and produce antibodies directed against certain antigen type
39
how can you tell if a drug is a monoclonal antibody based on the name?
ends in "mab" prefixed by an indication of their species nature
40
antibodies with a mixture of mouse and human components are known as
chimeric antibodies
41
chemical name is:
- name of chemical entity, references chemical structure of drug - IUPAC naming convention
42
generic name is:
nonproprietary name, non-trade name, common name - often derived from chemical name - USAN designations selected by council
43
trade name is:
proprietary name or brand name | -only name selected by manufacturer
44
the desired pharmacologic effect(s) of a drug are called:
therapeutic effect
45
decreased effectiveness of a drug over time with repeated use is called
tolerance
46
an unusual or unexpected response to a drug that are considered type B adverse drug reactions are called
drug idiosyncrasy or idiosyncratic drug reactions
47
drug idiosyncrasy or idiosyncratic drug reactions make up what % of total adverse drug reactions?
only 10-15%
48
possible results of drug idiosyncrasy or idiosyncratic drug reactions
- allergic reaction (rash, hives) - liver injury - effects on bone marrow, anemia, thrombocytopenia
49
2 types of adverse drug reactions are
``` type A (side effect, adverse drug effects) type B (idiosyncratic drug reactions, allergic reactions) ```
50
what is the definition of adverse drug event?
an injury resulting from medication use which causes patient harm
51
WHO definition for adverse drug reactions (ARDs)
any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease, or for the modification of physiological function
52
type A ARDs account for what % of all ARDs
85-90%
53
main characteristics of type A ARDs are:
- can affect any individual (given sufficient dose and exposure) - predictable from the known pharmacologic properties of the drug
54
main characteristics of type B ARDs
- hypersensitivity reactions - mediated by immunologic mechanisms - occur in susceptible subgroup of patients - have signs and symptoms that are different from the pharmacologic actions of the drug - usually cannot be predicted
55
adverse drug events (ADEs) include:
medication errors, adverse drug reactions, allergic reactions, and overdoses which cause patient harm