6 Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

what are the 4 pharmokinetic properties that determine the onset, intensity, and duration of drug action

A
  • Absorption 1st
  • Distribution 2nd
  • Metabolism 3rd
  • Elimination 4th
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2
Q

what pharmokinetic properties explain drug clearance

A

metabolism and elimination

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3
Q

hepatic metabolism leads to production of products with _____ which allows what to occur?

A

increase polarity which allows the drug to be eliminated

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4
Q

what is the principle site of drug metabolism

A

the liver

although the enzyme involved in metabolism are present in many tissues

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5
Q

what structure of the GI tract contribute to drug metabolism and how?

A

intestines, endoplasmic reticulum of gastric mucosa

-contributes to first pass effect

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6
Q

an inactive or weakly active substance that has an active metabolite is called a:

A

prodrug

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7
Q

what is the definition of active drug

A

the drug/medication is in its active form upon administration and does not require any metabolic conversion

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8
Q

example of an ocular prodrug (inactive drug)

A

nepafenac (Nevanac) which is an NSAID for pain and inflammation post cataract surgery (hydrolyzed to amefenac active drug in ocular tissue

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9
Q

2 other examples of prodrugs

A
  1. clopidrogel -> active thiol medicine, an anti platelet med
  2. enalapril -> enalaprilat (vasotec), an ACEI for hypertension
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10
Q

what is the black box warning for clopidrogel (plavix)?

A

diminished effectiveness in poor metabolizers, the effectiveness of clopidrogel is dependent on its activation to an active metabolite by CYP2C19

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11
Q

what is the goal of metabolizing a drug chemically?

A

to make the drug easier to excrete which means non-pole drug molecules are chemically changes into more polar molecules

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12
Q

explain phases of drug metabolism (& do all drugs go through the phases?)

A

many have Phase I followed by Phase II metabolism, but phases are functional rather than sequential and some drugs undergo only phase I or II

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13
Q

what occurs with the kidney and lipophilic drugs?

A

the kidney cannot efficiently eliminate lipophilic drugs that readily cross cell membranes and are reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubules

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14
Q

what phases do lipid soluble agents metabolize in?

A

first metabolized into more polar or hydrophilic substances in the liver via 2 general sets of reactions (phase I and phase II)

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15
Q

most drugs are ____ soluble and require chemical modification to minimize ___ ___ ____

A

lipid soluble

-to minimize distal tubular reabsorption

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16
Q

are polar or ionized conjugates able to back diffuse out of the kidney lumen?

A

no, they are unable

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17
Q

most common Phase I (functionalization)

A
  1. oxidation
  2. hydrolytic
  3. reduction
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18
Q

functionaliztion =

A

formation of new/modified functional group or cleavage

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19
Q

most common Phase II (conjugation)

A
  • glucuronic acid conjugation
  • sulfate conjugation
  • glutathione or mercapturic acid
20
Q

conjugation =

A

addition of an endogenous substance

21
Q

involves the search for genetic variations that lead to inter-individual differences in drug response

A

pharmacogenetics

22
Q

the study of the entire spectrum of genes that interact to determine drug efficacy and toxicity

A

pharmacogenomics

23
Q

the study of heritable variability in drug response or gene-drug interactions

A

pharmacogenetics

24
Q

the study of how drugs interact with total genome to influence biological pathways and processes

A

pharmacogenomics

25
"involves one or two or more variants of a particular DNA sequence"
polymorphism
26
"variations that result when copies of a specific gene within a population do not have identical nucleotide sequences"
genetic polymorphism
27
"involves a single base pair change at a given location at which different sequence alternatives (alleles) exist
single nucleotide polymorphism (snips)
28
most common form of genetic variation and most have no effect on health
single nucleotide polymorphism (snips)
29
the most important enzyme system of phase I metabolism is
cytochrome P-450
30
most common phase I metabolic reaction is
oxidation
31
type of Phase I reaction that are particularly important in converting ester prodrugs to their pharmacologically active metabolites
hydrolysis | 2nd most common phase I rxn
32
drugs which are metabolized by one or more CYP isoenzymes
substrates
33
what are capable of increasing the synthesis of one or more CYP isoenymes
inducers
34
inducers are capable of increasing the synthesis of one or more CYP isoenzymes and can result in:
- increased biotransformation of all substrates | - decreases in plasma concentrates
35
↑ drug metabolism = ↑ in drug activity if ___ metabolite
active
36
↑ drug metabolism= ↓ in drug activity is ___ metabolite
inactive
37
↑ drug metabolism= ____ plasma drug concentration
↓ decrease
38
the most clinically significant cause of drug interactions is between:
substrates and either inhibitors or inducers that compete for the same isoenzyme
39
3 major routes of elimination or drug clearance:
- Urinary elimination via the kidneys - Binary elimination - Fecal elimination
40
the higher the urinary excretion percentage, the _____ percentage of drug eliminated via the kidneys
greater
41
patients with a diminished capacity to eliminate drugs renally may have
-decrease GFR | as estimated by decreased creatinine clearance calculation
42
which dosage adjustments are easier to estimate based on function tests: renal or hepatic?
renal are easier to estimate
43
which is a much more sensitive indicator of renal function: Scr or BUN
Scr
44
once creatinine is released from muscle into plasma, it is
eliminated almost exclusively by renal glomerular filtration
45
a greater than average body weight may inaccurately _____ CrCl
overestimate