2006 NRC Flashcards by Nathan Waters

Rod Control was in AUTO with Unit 1 power at 79% when MPC-253, Turbine Impulse Pressure Channel 1, failed low. The crew determined that a Turbine Runback was NOT in progress and placed rod control in Manual.
Which ONE of the following actions are required to “Restore Equilibrium Conditions” in accordance with 01-OHP-4022-012-003, Continuous Control Bank Movement
a. Initiate boration
b. Reduce Turbine Load
c. Insert Control Rods
d. Initiate dilution

b. Correct – Per 01-OHP-4022-012-003, Continuous Control Bank Movement, a reduction in steam demand is the prefered method to restore Tave to Tref. The failure of MPC-253 would have caused the control Rods to Insert (Tref lowered)

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During a power accension, with reactor power at 48%, control Bank C - Group 1 rod B-8 drops. Prior to the drop it was at 230 steps. While restoring the rod, control rod urgent failure alarm occurs.
Which one of the following explains why the alarm actuated?
a. All other Bank C - Group 1 rod lift coil disconnect switches are open
b. All Bank C - Group 2 rod lift coil disconnect switches are open
c. The step counter of the pulse to analog (P/A) converter was not reset to 0
d. Group C rod moving with group D rods withdrawn

b. Correct – Since the dropped rod is completely inserted, the lift coil disconnect switches for all operable rods within the affected bank are opened. An Urgent failure will occur when the misaligned rod begins to move. This is caused by the non-movement of the group without the misaligned rod

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During power escalation of Unit 2, a single rod in Control Bank D is misaligned. Procedure OHP 4022.012.005, Dropped Or Misaligned Rod is being performed. A CAUTION prior to step #2 requires that any required power reductions must be accomplished using boration rather than control rods.
The purpose of this requirement is to prevent:
a. Moving the control rods until a failure analysis can be initiated.
b. Another rod failure until the cause of the initial failure can be identified.
c. Exaggerating any existing flux tilts.
d. Exceeding Rod Insertion Limits during the power reduction.

c. Correct - With a single misaligned rod, flux tilts could develop across the core. Further movement of the rods could cause a greater tilt and subsequent oscillations.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• A Reactor trip from 100% power has occurred on Unit 2.
• 2-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, is being implemented.
• Containment pressure is 0.6 psig and stable.
• SG NR Levels are offscale low.
• RCS pressure is 2150 psig and lowering.
• Control Rod H-8 is indicating 32 steps.
• All systems responded normally to actuation signals.
Which ONE of the following actions would be taken?
a. Transition to 02-OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response, and initiate boration for a stuck rod.
b. Transition to 02-OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response. Rod H-8 condition is expected so boration is not required for a stuck rod.
c. Initiate Safety Injection and continue with 02-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, as pressurizer pressure is too low.
d. Initiate Safety Injection and continue with 02-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, as Steam Generator levels are too low.

a. Transition to 02-OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response, and initiate boration for a stuck rod.
* Procedural changed occurred after this exam. Requirement is currently <10 steps on all rods for both units.

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Which ONE of the following correctly describes the plant response if the listed instrument fails HIGH while in the LTOP mode?

a. RVLIS Wide Range pressure instrument NPS-110 will cause PORV NRV-153 to OPEN.
b. RVLIS Wide Range pressure instrument NPS-110 will cause PORV NRV-152 to OPEN.
c. Wide Range RCS pressure instrument NPS-121 will cause PORV NRV-153 to OPEN.
d. Wide Range RCS pressure instrument NPS-121 will cause PORV NRV-152 to OPEN.

c. Correct - Pressurizer PORV NRV-153 will open if NPS-121 fails open.

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Which of the following is the basis for establishing / maintaining S/G Narrow Range level between 27%-50% (non-adverse containment) for small or intermediate LOCA’s?

a. Maintains a static head of water to reduce any existing S/G tube leakage.
b. Ensures adequate feed flow or S/G inventory to ensure a secondary heat sink.
c. A RCP may have to be started if 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.1 is entered later in the event.
d. Maintains the water level above the top of the U-tubes to prevent depressurizing S/G.

b. Correct - E-1 Basis Document states the purpose of establishing 27% level is to ensure adequate feed flow or S/G inventory to maintain a secondary heat sink for small or intermediate size LOCAs and secondary break accidents. 50% is the S/G narrow range upper control band limit.

U2 is 27-50%
U1 is 20-50%

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Unit 2 Reactor Startup is in progress with Reactor Power at 2% and rising.
The following conditions exist:
• RCP No. 3 Lower Bearing water temperature is 208°F and stable.
• RCP No. 3 Motor Bearing temperature is 187°F and stable.
• RCP No. 3 Seal Leakoff temperature is 179°F and stable.
• RCP No. 3 Motor Temperature is 148°C and rising.
• Annunciator 107 Drop 40, RCP Motor Overheated - LIT
Which ONE of the following operator actions MUST be taken based upon these conditions?
a. Do NOT trip the reactor. Trip the No. 3 RCP. Power must be maintained less than 5% (Mode 2).
b. Initiate reactor shutdown per 02 OHP 4021.001.003, Power Reduction and trip the No. 3 RCP within 8 Hours.
c. Manually trip the reactor, Enter 02 OHP 4023.E 0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection, perform immediate actions, then trip the No. 3 RCP.
d. Immediately Trip the No. 3 RCP. Initiate reactor shutdown per 02 OHP 4021.001.003, Power Reduction and be in Mode 3 within 6 Hours.

b. Initiate reactor shutdown per 02 OHP 4021.001.003, Power Reduction and trip the No. 3 RCP within 8 Hours.

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With 120 gpm letdown in service and blender controls in automatic on Unit 1, the VCT level transmitter QLC-452 fails to 100%.
With NO operator action, actual VCT level will:
a. lower to 2.5% and RWST swapover will occur automatically.
b. lower to 14% and stabilize due to auto makeup flow.
c. lower to zero and eventually result in loss of CCP suction.
d. rise to 87% and stabilize due to full divert flow.

c. Correct – A Failure of QLC-452 high will cause Letdown to divert to the HUT. Auto VCT makeup will attempt to control VCT level between 14 and 24% (Makeup will not keep up with 120 gpm letdown). Eventually the VCT level will lower to the RWST switchover setpoint. With 452 failed high, the coincidence for switchover will not be made up and level will continue lowering to 0%. At this time suction will be lost to the charging pumps and they will trip.

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The following Unit 2 conditions exist:
• The unit is in MODE 5 at 150oF with the RCS intact.
• Both trains of RHR are available, with the 2 West RHR train is in operation.
• Both PORVs are lined up for LTOP mode of operation.
• The West CCP and Both SI pumps are Tagged out.
Due to indication of cavitation on 2 West RHR Pump, the crew enters 02-OHP-4022-017-001, Loss of RHR Cooling.
Per the procedure, the crew isolates both trains of RHR by placing both RHR pumps in Pull-to-Lock and closes RHR suction valves IMO-128 and ICM-129.
How does this action affect the Technical Specification operability of Overpressure Protection Systems?
a. Technical Specification requirements are met. Both PORVs are available for overpressure control.
b. Technical Specification requirements are NOT met. The RHR suction relief must be available for overpressure protection.
c. Technical Specification requirements are NOT met. The Charging Pump must be Isolated/ Tagged -Out.
d. Technical Specification requirements are met. Isolating RHR suction valves does not affect operability of the RHR suction relief.

a. Correct – Tech. Spec requirements are met. Both PORVs are available for overpressure control. T.S. 3.4.12 requires 2 overpressure protection flowpaths, whether both PORVs a PORV and RHR suction relief. Closing the RHR suction valves isolates the RHR suction reliefs, but the PORVs are still available.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• RCS pressure is 1600 psig and lowering
• Pressurizer is empty
• Containment pressure is stable at 1.5 psig
You have been directed to close 2-WMO-734, ESW outlet valve for CCW HX 2 East.
What actions; if any, must be taken to close the valve?
a. The valve control switch must be put in pull-to-stop and must be closed locally.
b. When the valve reaches its preset position you can close the valve using the control switch.
c. No action is necessary, the valve has already been closed by an automatic signal.
d. SI must be reset to close the valve using the control switch.

b. Correct – The valve can be closed by holding the control switch to close after it has reached its throttle position.
Three-position control switches in control room
CLOSE – Closes valve
PULL TO STOP – No longer needed since modified to hold-to-operate
OPEN – Opens valve
The listed plant conditions indicate an SI so the valve will automatically move to preset intermediate position on receipt of an SI signal corresponding to an approximate flow rate of 5000 gpm.

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Assume that the Pressurizer master pressure controller output were failed AS IS just before a large, rapid secondary load rejection.
Which of the following would occur naturally in the Pressurizer to limit the magnitude of the resulting pressure transient on the primary system?
a. An outsurge causes the steam space to expand in the PRZ. This allows some liquid to flash to steam and limits the resulting pressure drop in the RCS.
b. An insurge of hotter water heats the Pzr. More liquid then flashes to steam helping to limit the resulting pressure drop in the RCS.
c. An insurge of cooler water compresses the steam space in the Pzr. Steam is condensed to water helping to limit the overall pressure increase in the RCS.
d. An outsurge cools the Pzr. This allows some steam to condense to water and limits the resulting pressure increase in the RCS.

c. Correct - A secondary load rejection will cause RCS temperature to rise. Pressurizer pressure will initially follow the level trend. As Tavg initially increases, level will increase causing an insurge which causes pressure to rise. Since the water from the insurge is cooler than the pressurizer liquid, steam is condensed to water helping to limit the overall pressure increase in the RCS.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• Unit 1 has experienced an Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS), and has implemented 01-OHP-4023-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS.
• 1-QMO-410, emergency boration to CCP suction valve will NOT OPEN.
• SI has been initiated.
Which one of the following identifies the correct actions and reason to satisfy 01-OHP-4023-FR-S.1 Step 5, Initiate Emergency Boration Of RCS?
a. 1) Open at least one CCP suction from RWST valve: 1-IMO-910 -OR- 1-IMO-911
2) Close at least one CCP suction from VCT valve: 1-QMO-451 -OR-1-QMO-452
3) Maximize charging flow.
4) Verify letdown flow established.

This ensures at least 70 gpm of Borated RWST water is injected through the Normal Charging flowpath.

b. 1) Open both boration valves: 1-QRV-400 -AND- 1-QRV-421
2) Start both boric acid transfer pumps in FAST speed.

This ensures at least 36 gpm of Borated BAST water is injected through the Normal Charging flowpath.

c. 1) Open at least one of the boration valves: 1-QRV-400 -OR- 1-QRV-421
2) Start both boric acid transfer pumps in FAST speed.

This ensures at least 36 gpm of Borated BAST water is injected through the Normal Charging flowpath.
d. 1.) Verify Pressurizer Pressure is <2335 psig.

This ensures at least 70 gpm of Borated RWST water is injected through the BIT injection lines.

d. Correct - On a Safety Injection, Both CCPs start, IMO-910 & 911 Open, and the BIT Injection Lines Open providing RWST injection to the RCS. Step 5b RNO has the Operator go to step 5c which checks Pressurizer pressure if a SI is actuated.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• Ann. 205, Drop 28, SFP Temp High - LIT.
• South (U2) SFP pump out for maintenance.
• South SFP Hx is available for use.
• North SFP Hx shell develops a large leak requiring Hx to be isolated.
Procedure 12-OHP-4022-018-001, Loss of Spent Fuel Pit Cooling allows cross-tie of the North SFP Pump through a 3” line to the South SFP Hx.
This action will…
a. maintain the SFP temperature at normal conditions until repairs are made.
b. prevent the SFP from boiling, but result in operation at elevated temperature.
c. prevent the SFP from boiling if used in conjunction with 125 gpm makeup.
d. extend the time to SFP boiling to allow time for repair of system.

d. Cross tying the North Pump through the 3” line to the South HX will delay the time to boiling but will not prevent boiling unless makeup flow of 175 gpm is also used.

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During power operation, SG tube leakage was detected and estimated at 100 gpm when RCS pressure was 2200 psig and SG pressure was 800 psig. The plant was shutdown and a cooldown initiated.
Which ONE of the following is the approximate current leak rate if RCS pressure is 1350 psig and SG pressure is 1000 psig? Assume the break size has not changed.
a. Approximately 25 gpm
b. Approximately 50 gpm
c. Approximately 75 gpm
d. equal to the initial leak rate of 100 gpm

b. Correct - Break flow is Proportional to the Square Root of the Pressure Differential.
Flowint ∝ sqrt(2200 − 800 )
Flowfinal ∝ sqrt(1350−1000)
Flow is 50% of initial or 50 gpm

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The following plant conditions exist:
• A loss of all FW and AFW has occurred.
• The operating crew has entered FR-H.1, Loss Of Secondary Heat Sink.
• The RO identifies that the East CCP has tripped and that the West CCP will NOT Start.
Which one of the following describes the consequences of the CCP failures?
a. RCS Bleed and Feed cooling must be established immediately to ensure sufficient SI flow.
b. A Red Path on the Core Cooling Critical Safety Function will develop due to loss of RCS inventory with no available makeup.
c. The RCS will not depressurize quickly enough to ensure sufficient SI flow to provide RCS heat removal, so other RCS openings will have to be established.
d. RCS Bleed and Feed cooling must NOT be initiated and secondary depressurization to inject condensate pump flow must be immediately initiated.

a. Correct - Step 2 of OHP-4023-FR-H.1 requires that Bleed and Feed be initiated immediately initiated if the CCPs are not available. If it is known that no CCP is available for bleed and feed, then all RCPs are stopped and bleed and feed is initiated immediately. The RCS will have to depressurize below the shutoff head of the SI pumps before any ECCS injection will occur, so the bleed and feed must be initiated prior to the loss of heat removal capability of the SGs.

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The plant has experienced a Loss of All Offsite AC and only the 2AB EDG is operating. Due to the Loss of Power, the PPC is not available.
What contingency action is taken to compensate for the unavailability of the PPC?
a. Emergency Response Data System (ERDS) is activated.
b. Safety Parameter Display System (SPDS) is transmitted to the NRC.
c. PMP-2080-EPP-100 Data sheet 1, Technical Information sheet, is completed every 15 minutes.
d. PMP-2080-EPP-100 Data sheet 4, Plant Status sheet, is completed every 60 minutes.

c. Correct - Upon loss of the PPC and/or EDR the PMP-2080-EPP-100 Data sheet 1, Technical Information sheet, is completed every 15 minutes and sent to applicable facilities.

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Unit 2 was operating at 100% power when a reactor trip occurred due to a loss of offsite power. The operators completed the actions of 02-OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response, and have transitioned to 02-OHP-4023-ES-0.2, Natural Circulation Cooldown, where they are initiating a natural circulation cooldown.
At the onset of the natural circulation cooldown, which ONE of the following processes will remove the MOST heat from the Reactor Vessel HEAD?
a. All CRDM fans running.
b. Upper head bypass flow.
c. Heat losses to ambient.
d. The 25 F/hr natural circulation cooldown of the RCS.

a. Correct - CRDM fan operation results in a considerable amount of heat removal from the upper head region. The results from several tests at domestic and foreign plants indicate that the Control Rod Drive Mechanism (CRDM) cooling fans aid significantly in removing heat from the upper head area. At 600°F this will result in a cooldown rate of the upper head of approximately 21°F/hr.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• Unit 1 is in Mode 5
• Unit 2 is in Mode 6.
• Unit 2 Core offload is currently underway.
• The protected train is A. All equipment needed for a proper protected train alignment is available.
• DC bus 2AB is deenergized for maintenance.
• DC bus 2CD deenergizes due to equipment failure.
What action must occur due to the deenergized bus?
a. Immediately suspend core alterations and movement of irradiated fuel.
b. Immediately suspend core alterations. Fuel movement may continue in the Auxiliary Building.
c. Re-energize DC bus 2AB or 2CD within 2 hours, or declare the Unit 1 ESW system inoperable.
d. Re-energize DC bus 2AB or 2CD within 2 hours, or suspend core alterations and movement of irradiated fuel.

a. Correct - Technical Specification 3.8.5 requires one DC train to be OPERABLE. Immediate suspension of all core alterations fuel movement is required if both are lost.

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Which of the following is the expected response to a High Radiation Signal on the ERS-7401 Unit 1 Control Room Area Radiation Monitor?

a. Only the Unit 1 East and West Pressurization fans start and Dampers align.
b. Either the Unit 1 East -OR- West Pressurization fan starts and Dampers align depending on which Control Room Air Handling Unit is in Service.
c. Only the Unit 1 and Unit 2 East Pressurization fans start and Dampers align.
d. Both the Unit 1 and Unit 2 East and West Pressurization fans start and Dampers align.

a. Correct - 12-OHP-4024-139 drop #12 states that both the East and West Pressurization fans will start and the associated dampers align.

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Unit 1 is operating at 100%, steady state condition, when Annunciator Panel 118, Drop 84, ESW PIPE TUNNEL SUMP LEVEL HI-HI, alarm is received. East ESW supply and return flows indicate an abnormal high differential.
Unit 2 has reported that 02-OHP-4022-019-001, ESW SYSTEM LOSS/RUPTURE has been implemented.
What action(s) would be taken by BOTH Unit control room operators?
a. Align alternate ESW cooling to non affected diesel generators.
b. Stop affected header ESW pumps.
c. Place associated diesel generators in tripped condition.
d. Close affected header unit crosstie valves.

d. Correct - When ESW supply and return flows indicate an abnormal high differential both units are directed to isolate the affected header unit crosstie valves.

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The control room has been evacuated per 02-OHP-4025-001-001, Emergency Remote Shutdown. The crew has performed 02-OHP-4025-LS-6-1, Seal Injection from CVCS Cross-Tie and 02-OHP-4025-LS-6-3, BIT Injection alignment.
Which ONE of the following describes the source and method of monitoring borated water addition?
Prior to aligning RHR for shutdown cooling, RCS boration is accomplished by . . .
a. manually aligning Unit 1 Boric Acid makeup to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by Unit 1 Boric Acid flow recorder.
b. locally aligning Unit 2 Boric Acid makeup to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by Boric Acid Flow indicator on the Local Instrument Panel.
c. manually aligning Unit 1 CCP suction to the RWST to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by the sum of local seal injection flows and the Unit 1/2 CCP Crosstie Flow indicator.
d. manually aligning Unit 1 CCP suction to the RWST to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by the Unit 1/2 CCP Crosstie Flow indicator.

d. Correct - Prior to initiating the Unit Crosstie, Unit 1 is directed to trip the unit and align CCP suction to the RWST. The Total flow from Unit 1 to Unit 2 is indicated on the Unit ½ CCP Crosstie Flow indicator.

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Which ONE of the following conditions would require an LCO Action Statement entry for Technical Specification Section 3.6, Containment Systems?

a. While in MODE 1, an electrician opens the outer airlock door at the lower containment access without prior approval.
b. While in MODE 3, Containment internal pressure is found to be -0.5 psig prior to placing Containment Purge in service.
c. While in MODE 4, The outer airlock door interlock is discovered to be non-functional.
d. While in MODE 5, during performance of the Overall Integrated Containment Leakage Rate Test, Containment leakage exceeds the maximum allowable Technical Specification leakage rates.

c. Correct - The airlock door interlocks are required to be operable in Modes 1 - 4 per T.S. 3.6.2.

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Unit 2 experienced a reactor trip from 100% power. The operators have transitioned from 02-OHP-4023-E-0 Reactor Trip or Safety Injection to 02-OHP-4023-ES-0.1 Reactor Trip Response.
• ERA-8309, Reactor Coolant Filter Room has a high alarm.
• ERA-8303, East CCP Room shows a rising trend, but has yet to alarm.
• The SRO implements 2-OHP-4022-002-019, High Reactor Coolant Activity or Failed Fuel.
Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions to take with the CVCS system and the basis for these actions?
a. Charging and Letdown are isolated to contain the high radioactivity within the containment building.
b. Letdown is diverted to the CVCS HUT to limit radiation levels in the charging pump area.
c. Charging and Letdown are maximized through the letdown demineralizers to maximize clean up.
d. Excess Letdown is placed in service through the letdown demineralizers to maximize clean up.

c. Correct - 12-OHP-4022-002-019 directs the operator to verify Letdown lineup and maximize letdown flow to help reduce RCS Activity.

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The following conditions exist:
• A plant startup is in progress.
• Reactor power is 25%.
• All control systems are in AUTOMATIC.
• Control Bank D rods are at 150 steps.
The lower detector for power range nuclear instrument channel N41 fails HIGH, causing channel total power indication to increase to 70%.
Assuming no operator action is taken, what will be the response of the rod control system?
a. Rods will not move.
b. Rods will drive all the way in.
c. Rods will drive in some distance then stop.
d. Rods will insert, and then withdraw.

d. Correct - When N41 fails high, the rate circuit will sense that Reactor power is rising faster than Turbine power, and will send a signal to insert rods. After the rate of change signal has had time to decay away the Tave deviation generated (by inserting rods) will cause the rods to withdraw.

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While at 20% power with a power ascension in progress, RCP 11 trips due to an overcurrent condition. No operator action has been taken and no rod motion has occurred. Which ONE (1) of the following describes the INITIAL reactor and Loop 11 response? a. A reactor trip WILL NOT occur and Loop 11 Tavg will LOWER. b. A reactor trip WILL NOT occur and Loop 11 Tavg will RISE. c. A reactor trip WILL occur and Loop 11 Tavg will LOWER. d. A reactor trip WILL occur and Loop 11 Tavg will RISE.

a. Correct - A single RCP trip will not cause an automatic reactor trip below P-8. Once the RCP trips, The entire associated loop temperature will go to the Tcold or SG Saturation Temperature causing the Tavg to lower

During a recent degassing operation of the RCS, Volume Control Tank (VCT) level was raised to 70% without any concurrent adjustment in VCT pressure as level rose. This caused Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) #1 seal leakoff flow to _____(1)_____, and will require _____(2)_____ to restore seal leakoff flows to normal. (1) (2) a. Rise opening up 1-QRV-200, Charging Header Pressure Control b. Lower venting the VCT c. Lower closing down 1-QRV-200, Charging Header Pressure Control d. Rise venting the VCT

b. Correct - Raising VCT level without venting the VCT will cause Pressure to rise. This will place more backpressure on the RCS seals and cause seal leakoff flow to lower.

A reactor coolant pump (RCP) is circulating reactor coolant at 100 degF. After several hours the reactor coolant temperature has risen to 150 degF. Assuming coolant flow rate (gpm) is constant, RCP motor amps will have (1) (2) a. risen system head losses have lowered b. lowered system head losses have risen c. risen coolant density has risen d. lowered coolant density has lowered

d. Correct - As RCS temperature raises the coolant density lowers. The pumps will perform less work to move the lighter coolant resulting in a reduction of current required.

Unit 2 Power is 75%. Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the plant if QRV-251 Charging Flow Control Valve fails closed (assume no operator action)? Pressurizer level lowers until letdown isolates and PRZ heaters deenergize; pressurizer level… a. continues to lower and pressure lowers until the Reactor trips on Low Pressurizer Pressure. b. continues to lower and pressure lowers until the Reactor trips on (OTDT) Over Temperature Delta Temperature. c. then rises and pressure rises until the Reactor trips on High Pressurizer Pressure. d. then rises until the Reactor trips on High Pressurizer Level.

a. Correct - When the QRV-251 fails closed all Charging line and Seal Injection flow is stopped. Pressurizer level will lower until letdown isolates at 17%. Pressure Heaters will also trip off. Pressurizer level will continue to lower and pressure will lower (from no heaters and level loss) until the Reactor trips on Low pressure at 1875 psig.

The following conditions exist: • Unit is in Mode 4 during cooldown per OHP-4021-001-004, Plant Cooldown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown • West RHR Pump is operating with the return aligned to the Alternate Cooldown Path to Loops 2 & 3. • RCS temperature is 300°F and stable • RCS pressure is 335 psig and stable The air supply line to IRV-320, West RHR Hx Outlet Valve, breaks, causing a complete loss of Instrument Air to the valve. Which ONE (1) of the following describes the effect on the plant and the action that could be taken to mitigate the transient? a. RHR Flow through the West HX will be lost. Throttle open IRV-311 RHR HX Bypass to maintain greater than 3000 gpm RHR flow. b. RHR Flow through the West HX will be lost. Stop the West RHR pump immediately to prevent overpressurizing letdown. c. RHR Flow through the West HX will rise. Throttle ICM-111, RHR Discharge to Cold Leg 2 & 3 and IRV-311 RHR HX Bypass to prevent overcooling the RCS. d. RHR Flow through the West HX will rise. Throttle ICM -321, West RHR Injection to Loops 2 & 3 and IRV-311 RHR HX Bypass to prevent overcooling the RCS.

d. Correct - IRV-320 fails open on loss of air. This will raise RHR flow through the HX. The ICM-321 can be throttled closed to reduce total RHR flow and IRV-311 can be throttled open to allow more flow to bypass the HX in order to control RCS cooldown.

Which ONE of the following describes the freeze protection for the Unit 1 and Unit 2 Refueling Water Storage Tanks (RWST)? a. Both Units use banks of heat tracing on the outside of the tank. b. Both Units use a recirculation loop comprised of a pump and electric water heaters. c. Unit 1 uses a recirculation loop comprised of a pump and electric water heaters, while Unit 2 uses banks of heat tracing on the outside of the tank. d. Unit 1 uses banks of heat tracing on the outside of the tank, while Unit 2 uses a recirculation loop comprised of a pump and electric water heaters.

d. Correct - Unit 1 uses banks of heat tracing on the outside of the tank, while Unit 2 uses a recirculation loop comprised of a pump and electric water heaters.

Which ONE of the following data sets are within normal PRT limits for at power operations? a. PRT Temperature - 100°F Level - 90% Press - 12 psig b. PRT Temperature - 100°F, Level - 82%, Press - 4 psig c. PRT Temperature - 65°F, Level - 82%, Press - 1.0 psig d. PRT Temperature - 135°F, Level - 70%, Press - 4 psig

b. Correct - PRT temperature is normally at Containment Temperature of ~100-110°F with level 80 - 84% and pressure of ~ 2-3 psig. The Alarm Limits are <126°F, Pressure 2.5 to 10 psig, and level 78.5% to 84.5%.

The following conditions exist: • Unit 2 was in cold shutdown with the RCS drained to mid-loop. • Filling and venting is in progress. • Pressurizer level is 100%. • A nitrogen blanket is on the PRT; PRT level is at 5%. • The gaseous waste disposal system is aligned to support a bubble. • The PZR heaters are energized. Prior to drawing a bubble in the pressurizer which ONE of the following must be accomplished? a. Pressurize the RCS to 325-350 psig b. Establishing 50% in the pressurizer c. Bumping the RCPs to remove entrapped gases d. Filling the PRT to 80-85%

d. Correct - After the Pressurizer has been filled to >100% (level change seen in PRT), the PRT is re-aligned and the Level is raised to the normal operating band of 80-85%.

The following conditions exist: • U2 is at 100% Power with normal operating temperature and pressure • The East CCW pump is running • The water level in the CCW surge tank is 58" and slowly lowering • The makeup valves to the CCW surge tank are fully open Which one of the following actions is required by 02-OHP-4022-016-001, Malfunction of the CCW System? a. Start the West CCW pump, split the East and West Headers, when surge tank level is < 48'' identify and isolate the leaking header. b. Start the West CCW pump, split the East and West Headers, and shutdown the East CCW pump. c. Isolate letdown (or excess letdown if in service), place standby CCW switch in Lock-Out and commence a rapid plant shutdown. d. If level cannot be maintained > 48", trip the Rx, trip RCPs and go to E-0.

a. Correct - The CCW Surge tank has a baffle that extends to 48". The procedure has the operator split the CCW headers and then monitor the CCW surge tank level indicators after surge tank level has lowered to <48" (height of baffle). Two surge tank level indicators monitor both sides of the baffle. When it is identified which side is leaking that header is isolated.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the conditions that allow implementation of 02-OHP-4023-ES-0.0, Re-Diagnosis? a. Entry is based on operator judgement at any time that a Function Restoration (FR) procedure is NOT in effect. b. Entry is based on operator judgement anytime after 02-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip/Safety Injection completion provided that SI is actuated and a Function Restoration (FR) procedure is NOT in effect. c. Anytime after the EOP's have been entered. d. Anytime that SI is actuated and a Function Restoration (FR) procedure is in effect.

b. Correct - An SI must be in service, and E-0 has been completed.

What indication is used in OHP-4023-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment, to verify that the actions taken in the procedure have isolated the break? a. RCS pressure rising b. Containment Sump level rising c. Auxiliary Building radiation lowering d. RHR pump discharge pressure rising

a. Correct - OHP-4023-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment verifies that likely leakage paths are isolated and then sequentially isolates ECCS injection paths looking for a rising RCS pressure to verify the leak is isolated.

Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.1, attempts to restore the secondary heat sink capability before initiating a bleed and feed cooling. If Unit 1 AF pump flow can NOT be restored, which ONE of the following is the correct chronological order of preference for restoring SG feedwater? (In accordance with 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.1,from Highest to Lowest) a. Main Feedwater flow Condensate flow Cross-tied Auxiliary Feedwater flow (from unaffected unit) b. Main Feedwater flow Cross-tied Auxiliary Feedwater flow (from unaffected unit) Condensate flow c. Cross-tied Auxiliary Feedwater flow (from unaffected unit) Main Feedwater flow Condensate flow d. Cross-tied Auxiliary Feedwater flow (from unaffected unit) Condensate flow Main Feedwater flow

c. Correct - 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.1 Step 4 has the operator attempt to restore AFW first. The RNO directs the operator to then use the Opposite Unit AFW. Steps 6-10 aligns Main FW and Steps 11-15 depressurizes the SGs and aligns the condensate System.

In OHP-4023-ECA-2-1, Uncontrolled Depressurization Of All Steam Generators, a foldout page item listing the OHP-4023-E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation transition criteria is found. This foldout page item is continuously monitored while performing the actions in OHP-4023-ECA-2.1 because… a. if a faulted SG completely depressurizes, the operator is directed back to OHP-4023-E-2 for prompt identification and isolation. b. if any SG level rises in an uncontrolled manner, the operator is directed to OHP-4023-ECA-3.1 for furthur recovery actions. c. if complete depressurization of all SGs occurs, the operator is required to make a prompt transition to OHP-4023-FR-H.1 to maintain an adequate Heat Sink. d. if restoration of any SG pressure boundary occurs, the operator is directed back to OHP-4023-E-2 for further optimal recovery actions.

d. Correct - The Foldout page has transition criteria based on any SG pressure rising. When this condition exists, the operator is transitioned back to OHP-4023-E-2, since 1 SG is now isolated.

Unit 1 was operating at 100% when a pipe break occurred on the SG 14 steam header. The following conditions exist : • Main Steam Line Isolation has occurred. • PRZ level dropped to 0% and has restored to 20%. • RCS pressure is 1900 psig . • Safety Injection (SI) has NOT been reset. Which ONE of the following are the REQUIRED actions to re-energize the Pressurizer back-up heaters? a. Reset SI Place the back-up heater control switches in the TRIP position. Place the back-up heater control switches in the CLOSE position. b. Reset SI Place the back-up heater control switches in the PULL-TO-RESET position. Place the back-up heater control switches in the CLOSE position. c. Place the back-up heater control switches in the PULL-TO-RESET position. Place the back-up heater control switches in the CLOSE position. d. Place the back-up heater control switches in the TRIP position. Place the back-up heater control switches in the CLOSE position.

d. Correct - The Backup heaters will trip off on the low pressurizer level. After level has been restored the control switches must be placed in the trip condition to reset the breaker. Then the switches are placed to close to energize the heaters.

The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 is at 100% power • Pressurizer PORV NRV-151 opens and sticks open. • The associated PORV block valve cannot be closed • PRT pressure rises to the point that the PRT Rupture Disc ruptures What is the effect of the disc rupturing? a. Makeup to the PRT initiates. b. PRZ PORV outlet temperature lowers. c. Containment N2 header pressure lowers. d. PRT level drains below the sparging nozzles.

b. Correct - When the PRT rupture disc ruptures, The Pressurizer through the PORV & PRT will discharge to containment. This will lower the pressure to which the PORV discharges which will lower the temperature at the outlet.

The following conditions exist: • Charging, letdown, and PRZ level control system are in automatic. • 2-QRV-160 and 2-QRV-161, Letdown Orifice Valves are Open • Letdown Hx Outlet Flow QFI -301 118 gpm • Charging Header Flow QFI -200 130 gpm • Total seal flow to RCPs QFI -210 to 240 32 gpmm The controlling PRZ level channel fails high to an indicated 100% level. Which of the following describes the short term effect on total RCP seal injection flow, assuming NO operator action? Total seal injection flow … a. raises to about 50 gpm b. remains about 32 gpm c. lowers to about 12 gpm d. lowers to 0 gpm

c. Correct - With the Pressurizer level channel failed high the charging flow control valve QRV-251 will close to the minimum flow position of ~ 47 gpm. This will cause seal injection flow to lower accordingly (47/130 = .036 x 32 = 11.6).

The following plant conditions exist: • A Unit 1 startup is in progress. • The reactor is critical in the source range. • N41 Power Range channel is removed from service for zero power physics testing. • A loss of power to the CRID 2 bus occurs. Which ONE of the following actions will occur? a. Reactor trips and N32 Source Range channel is de-energized. N31 Source Range channel is still in operation. b. The reactor is critical and BOTH source range channels are de-energized. c. The reactor is critical and N32 Source Range channel is de-energized. N31 Source Range channel is still in operation. d. Reactor trips and BOTH source range channels are de-energized.

d. Correct - A loss of CRID 2 causes a loss of power to N42. This loss also causes a loss of power to RPS channel 2. This will cause a trip condition for Power range trips for channel 2. Since N41 is already removed from service its bistable are in the tripped condition. This meets the 2/4 logic to cause a reactor trip. Additionally the signal for 2/4 power range channels above P-10 will cause the SR channels to deenergize.

The following conditions exist: • Containment pressure instrument Channel #1, 2-PPP-303 (PT-937) declared inoperable. • Required actions per 02-OHP-4022-013-011 Containment Instrumentation Malfunction have been completed. • Required Technical Specification Actions have been taken for Channel #1, 2-PPP-303 (PT-937) Which ONE of the following describes the REMAINING coincidence for the SAFETY INJECTION ACTUATION and CTS ACTUATION? Remaining Channels to cause actuation / Remaining Channels with INPUT to this function SI CTS a. 2/3 2/3 b. 1/3 2/3 c. 1/2 1/3 d. 2/3 1/3

a. Correct - The CTS Actuation Bistable is placed in the BYPASSED condition to prevent inadvertent actuation. This changes the remaining channel coincidence to 2/3 instead of the previous 2/4. Only 3 channels (Channels 2, 3, & 4) feed the SI Actuation This channel does NOT feed SI so the SI coincidence remains at 2/3.

Fire in the Unit #1 Control Room Cable Vault has resulted in loss of equipment control and normal habitability. The Control Room has been evacuated. Which ONE of the following would be used to monitor Reactor Power from outside the control room? a. Source Range - N21 b. Source Range - N23 c. Wide Range - N21 d. Wide Range - N23

b. Correct - Source Range N-23 may be monitored from OHP-4025-LS-1.

OHP-4021-028-001 Containment Ventilation contains a caution concerning the Loss of Lower Containment Ventilation. Which ONE of the following describes the concern and the basis for this concern? The Loss of Lower Containment Ventilation may … a. cause NESW Containment Isolation Valves to become pressure bound due to temperature changes. b. cause Phase B isolation signal in about 15 minutes due to Reactor Coolant Pump motors heating the Containment atmosphere. c. cause the Ice Condenser Doors to open due to pressure differential if the Upper Containment Ventilation units are not also stopped. d. cause Ice Condenser temperatures to raise to unacceptable levels if additional Coolers are not started.

b. Correct - The RCPs continue to provide heat input to the containment atmosphere during a loss of containment cooling. The heat input would cause a rapid rise in containment pressure, resulting in an SI and CTS actuation based solely on a loss of containment cooling.

Containment temperature has risen from 100oF to 160oF due to a containment cooling malfunction. If the plant is stable at 100% power and there are negligible RCS or containment pressure changes, which one of the following describes the effect of the increase in containment temperature on the pressurizer level indicated by the pressurizer level control channels? a. Indicated level will be HIGHER than actual level because the reference leg fluid density lowers. b. Indicated level will be LOWER than actual level because of the elevated containment temperature causes flashing in the reference leg. c. Indicated level will be HIGHER than actual level because the elevated containment temperature causes flashing in the reference leg. d. Indicated level will be LOWER than actual level because the reference leg fluid density lowers.

a. Correct - Pressurizer Level uses a wet reference leg DP level indicator. This compares the pressure of the full reference leg with the pressure of the actual water in the pressurizer. When these are equal the level indicates 100%. As the temperature in Containment and therefore the reference leg raises the density & weight of the reference leg lowers. This means that the level in the pressurizer will indicate higher for the same initial actual level.

Unit 2 was operating at 95% power, when an operator identified that one of the Ice Condenser Intermediate Deck Doors was slightly open and incapable of being fully closed due to Ice Buildup. Which ONE of the following actions, if any, are required to continue operations at power?(Technical Specifications 3.6.11 and 3.6.12 provided) a. Monitor the ice bed temperature less than or equal to 27oF every 12 hours for a maximum of 2 days. b. Monitor the ice bed temperature less than or equal to 27oF every 4 hours for a maximum of 14 days. c. No action is required since the Ice Condenser Inlet Doors are all OPERABLE. d. Restore the Door to Operable status within 1 hour or be in Mode 3 within 6 hours and Mode 5 within 36 hours.

b. Correct - If the Ice Condenser Intermediate deck doors are inoperable then ITS 3.6.12 Action B applies. This requires temperature to be monitored every 4 hours for up to 14 days.

Following a LOCA inside containment in which pressure reached 3.4 psig, the operator notes the following indications: • Containment pressure is 2.8 psig and lowering slowly; • Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST) level is 23 percent and lowering slowly. • Panel 105 Drop 2 - "SPRAY ADDITIVE TANK LEVEL AT 4000 Gal" alarm has just actuated. Assuming NO operator actions, the operator would observe: • IMO 215/225 CTS Pump Suction Valves __(1)__, • IMO-212/222 Eductor Supply Valves __(2)__, • and the CTS pumps __(3)__. (1) (2) (3) a. Closed Closed Tripped b. Open Open Running c. Closed Open Tripped d. Open Closed Running

b. Correct - Containment Spray will actuate at 2.9 psig. This will start the pumps and open the Spray additive tank valves. The eductor and suction valves are normally open. The Spray additive tank alarm at 4000 gal is an expected alarm after the actuation and shows that NaOH is being injected. If the tank reached the Lo-2 alarm the spray additive tank valves would have isolated (Valves close 1" above lo-2). The RWST level of <25% is below the switchover setpoint but the actions to close the suction to the RWST must be performed manually.

Unit 1 has experienced a LOCA and Loss of Offsite power. The following conditions exist: • Emergency Diesel Generator 1AB failed to start. • Emergency Diesel Generator 1CD has started and loaded as designed. • Power has been restored to the Reserve Aux Transformers. • No buses have been energized from the RATs. The Unit Supervisor directs you to verify or restore power so a hydrogen recombiner may be run. Which ONE of the following actions is required to enable the associated Hydrogen Recombiner to be operated? a. Verify that bus T11C has energized 600V Bus 11C and MCC-1-EZC-C for (Train A) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 2. b. Verify that bus T11C has energized 600V Bus 11C and Close the 11AC crosstie to supply power to Bus 11A and MCC-1-EZC-A for (Train B) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 1. c. Energize RCP Bus 1B from the RAT to supply power to 600V Bus 11BMC for (Train B) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 1. d. Energize RCP Bus 1C from the RAT to supply power to 600V Bus 11CMC for (Train A) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 2.

a. Correct - Hydrogen Recombiner #1 is powered form MCC-1-EZC-B and Hydrogen Recombiner #2 is powered form MCC-1-EZC-C.

The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 was in Mode 1. • A Containment Pressure Relief was in progress with the following lineup: • 1-VCR-107, Cntmt Press Relief Valve IC - OPEN • 1-VCR-207, Cntmt Press Relief Valve OC - OPEN • 1-HV-CPR-1, CNTMT Press Relief Fan - RUNNING • An external failure alarm on VRS-1201, Upper Containment Normal Range Monitor, occurs. Which ONE of the following describes the required operator response for the Containment Pressure Relief System due to the failure alarm? a. Verify 1-VCR-207 has automatically closed, 1-HV-CPR-1 has automatically tripped, and manually close 1-VCR-107. b. Verify 1-VCR-107 has automatically closed, manually trip 1-HV-CPR-1, and manually close 1-VCR-207. c. Verify 1-VCR-207 and 1-VCR-107 have automatically closed and 1-HV-CPR-1 has automatically tripped. d. Initiate an eSAT to address the VRS-1201 failure. The release may be continued as long as VRS-1101 is operable.

a. Correct - VRS-1201 closes the Outside Containment Isolation Valve VCR-201 and trips the 1-HVCPR-1, CNTMT Press Relief Fan. VCR-107 is closed by the VRS-1101 channel.

The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 is at 100% power and stable. • Steam Generator Level Controls are in AUTOMATIC. • Steam Generator #12 Steam Flow Channel 1, 1-MFC-121, is selected to the Steam Generator Level Control System. A blown fuse causes 1-MFC-121 to fail offscale low. Which ONE of the following describes the expected plant response? (Assuming no operator action) The Steam Generator Level Control system will … a. initially lower feed flow and then slowly return #12 SG level to approximately program level. b. automatically transfer the # 12 FW Regulating Valve Controller to Manual to maintain the current valve position. c. initially raise feed flow and then slowly return #12 SG level to approximately program level. d. lower feed flow to #12 SG to 0 pph, resulting in a Reactor Trip.

b. Correct - Depending on the fuse location, a sudden failure offscale will either: 1) cause the Taylor Controller to shift to manual at the current position, or 2) lower feed flow to #12 SG to 0 pph, resulting in a Reactor Trip.

Which ONE (1) of the following describes the location and use of MRA-1600/1700 Steam Generator PORV Monitors? a. Positioned downstream of SG PORVs. Reliable under non-accident conditions ONLY. b. Positioned upstream of SG PORVs. Reliable under non-accident conditions ONLY. c. Positioned upstream of SG PORVs. Reliable under both accident and non-accident conditions. d. Positioned downstream of the SG PORVs. Reliable under both accident and non-accident conditions.

d. Correct - The SG PORVs are Positioned downstream for the SG PORVs and are Reliable under both accident and non-accident conditions.

The following plant conditions exist on Unit 1: • The reactor is critical at 7% power just prior to rolling the turbine. • Manual FW control is maintaining SG Levels. • RCS temperature is being controlled by steam dumps in automatic in the Steam Pressure Mode. • UPC-101 Steam Header Pressure transmitter, then fails to 0 psig. With NO operator action, which of the following statements describes the resulting SG Level response? Steam Generator levels will initially… a. lower due to shrink and then raise as RCS temperature raises. b. raise due to swell and then lower due to the higher steam release rate. c. lower due to shrink and then raise due to higher FW flow at the lower pressure. d. raise due to swell and then lower due to lower FW flow at the high pressure.

a. The Steam Dumps will be trying to maintain Steam Line pressure. When the actual pressure fails low the dumps will close, causing SG pressure to be higher. This will cause an initial shrink followed by level rising as the RCS temperature raises.

The following plant conditions exist: • Unit 2 is at 9% power with the Main Turbine rolling at 1800 rpm. • East Main Feedwater Pump is supplying main feedwater to the SGs. • AFW pumps are aligned in Auto. • All operating condensate booster pumps trip. Which ONE of the following describes the system response and required operator action? a. MFPs--Immediate Trip MDAFW Pumps Start from MFP trip Reactor Trip--On low low SG level Enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection b. MFPs--Immediate Trip MDAFW Pumps Start & Turbine Trips from AMSAC Enter OHP-4022-001-002, Loss of Load (Load Rejection) c. MFPs--Trip after 5 sec. Delay MDAFW Pumps Start from MFP trip Reactor Trip--On low low SG level Enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection d. MFPs--Trip after 5 sec. Delay MDAFW Pumps Start & Turbine Trips from AMSAC Enter OHP-4022-001-002, Loss of Load (Load Rejection)

c. Correct - The MFPs will trip after FW suction pressure has lowered to <180 psig for 5 seconds. The trip of the Main FW pumps will cause the MDAFW pumps to start. The delayed trip of the FW pumps and the current power level will cause SG levels to Lower to the low low SG level reactor trip setpoint. After the reactor is tripped E-0 is entered.

``` If Turbine Bypass Header Pressure Transmitter UPC-101 fails HIGH during normal plant operation the MFP Speed Control System will generate a Delta-P signal ___(1)___ than required, causing the main feed pump(s) to ___(2)___. (Assume the failover circuit does NOT function) (1) (2) a. larger speed up b. larger slow down c. smaller speed up d. smaller slow down ```

c. Correct - The Main FW Pump Speed control compares the UPC-101 steam header pressure to the FW pump Discharge pressure. The speed control attempts to maintain the Main FW Pump speed such that the FW header to Steam Header DP is on Program. When the Steam Pressure fails high, it will appear that a smaller DP exists which will raise FW pump speed to try to raise FW pump Discharge header pressure.

Following a reactor trip with NO SI required, the operators are performing the immediate actions of OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection Which of the following describes the basis for the following Step 4 RNO actions? (1) Lower AFW flow to < 450,000 pph (2) Maintain AFW flow >240,000 pph until minimum S/G water level is obtained a. (1) Limit runout of the Aux Feed pumps. (2) Ensure enough feedwater flow for decay heat removal. b. (1) Limit runout of the Aux Feed pump (2) Ensure enough flow for Aux Feed Pump protection. c. (1) Limit overcooling of the RCS (2) Ensure enough feedwater flow for decay heat removal d. (1) Limit overcooling of the RCS. (2) Ensure enough flow for Aux Feed Pump protection

c. - If Si is not actuated and it is determined that an Si is not required AFW flow is reduced to limit the RCS cooldown due to excessive feed flow while ensuring that adequate AFW flow is maintained above the required value for decay heat removal until the minimum required SG narrow range level is restored. The intent of this action is to reduce excessive AFW flow to near the discharge flow of two MDAFW pumps at SG design pressure in a prompt manner prior to transitioning to ES-0.1 to allow for stabilizing RCS temperature near its normal no-load value in a timely manner. After transitioning to ES-0.1 the operators will follow the appropriate guidance in ES-0.1 for controlling AFW flow following a reactor trip

The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 is at 38% power. • RCP busses 1A and 1B are energized from Reserve power • Bus T11A voltage drops to 112 V indicated for 2 minutes Which ONE of the following describes the plant response and the required operator actions? a. RCP bus-tie breakers to buses T11A and T11B open. Verify Reactor Trip and go to 01- OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. b. Reserve Feeder breakers to RCP buses 1A and 1B open. Verify Reactor Trip and go to 01- OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. c. RCP bus-tie breakers to buses T11A and T11B open. Verify 1AB DG energizes T11A and T11B and raise RAT feed voltage per 01-OHP-4021-082-026, Operation of the Load Tap Changer. d. RCP buses 1A and 1B fast transfer to the Auxiliary Transformer 1AB. Verify T11A and T11B remain energized and raise RAT feed voltage per 01-OHP-4021-082-026, Operation of the Load Tap Changer.

c. Correct - A Vital bus Undervoltage condition of 113 V will energize 62-1 T11A. After a 111 Second delay it will open T11A9 and T11B1 causing T11 A and T11B to lose power. This will cause the EDG to start and energize T11A and T11B. The RAT voltage should be raised using the Load Tap changers (this should have occurred automatically) as directed per 01-4021-082-026.

The operator incorrectly opens the breaker labeled "7.5 KVA Static Inverter Channel IV" on 250 VDC distribution panel "MCAB". The operator realizes the mistake and immediately recloses the breaker. Which ONE of the following describes the effect of these actions, if any? a. The alternate power source to the CRID Inverter will be lost when the breaker is reclosed. The CRID will transfer to the 120 VAC from the Regulating Transformer. b. The alternate power source to the CRID Inverter will be lost. No automatic action will occur when the breaker is reclosed. The auto transfer lockout must be reset at the inverter. c. The normal power source to the CRID Inverter will be lost so it will auto transfer to the alternate source. When the breaker is reclosed, it will auto transfer to the normal source. d. The normal power source to the CRID Inverter will be lost so it will auto transfer to the alternate source. No automatic action will occur when the breaker is reclosed. The auto transfer lockout must be reset at the inverter.

c. Correct - The static transfer switch provides a virtual zero time transfer to the alternate source in case of inverter failure. Thirty seconds after the static switch transfer event ceases and all system parameters are normal, the static switch automatically re-transfers the load to the inverter, without power interruption.

If the 250 VDC CD bus deenergizes with the Unit at 100% power, the initiating signal for the reactor trip is due to a loss of power to: a. CRIDS I and II. b. CRIDS III and IV. c. two RCP Bus underfrequency relays. d. all four Feed Reg Valves.

c. Correct - The Loss of 250 VDC will cause the loss of Power to the RCP Bus Underfrequency relays. This will generate a direct reactor trip.

The following conditions exist: • The Plant is operating at 100% power. • 2CD EDG is started for surveillance testing. Which ONE (1) of the following describes how a reverse power condition is prevented when closing the EDG output breaker? a. Ensure incoming voltage is slightly higher than running prior to closing the output breaker. b. Ensure synchroscope is at 12 o'clock position prior to closing the output breaker. c. Ensure synchroscope is rotating slowly in the 'FAST' (clockwise) direction prior to closing the breaker. d. Ensure running and incoming frequencies are matched prior to closing the output breaker

c. Correct - The procedure requires the Operator to ensure that the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the 'FAST' (clockwise) direction prior to closing the breaker. This causes the DG to be slightly faster than the Grid causing it to pick up some load thus preventing a reverse power trip.

Which ONE of the following actions, if any, will occur due to a HIGH rad alarm on monitor RRS-1001, Liquid Radwaste Effluent Line? a. Alarms at WDS and Control Rooms only - no automatic actions. b. RRV-285, liquid waste disposal effluent discharge header shutoff valve closes. c. RRV-286 or RRV-287 liquid waste effluent to header CIRC water discharge header shut off valve closes. d. RRV-284, liquid release control valve closes.

b. Correct - The high alarm on RRS-1001 will cause RRV-285 to close and also trip the WECT and monitor tank pumps.

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 following a refueling outage. The Containment Purge System was operating in the VENTILATION MODE with the following lineup: • Purge Supply Fan HV-CPS-1 - RUNNING Purge Exhaust Fan HV-CPX-2 - RUNNING • Purge Supply to Upper Containment VCR-105 and VCR-205 OPEN Purge Exhaust from Upper Containment VCR-106 and VCR-206 OPEN Following a HIGH alarm on ERS-1401, Lower Containment Radiation Monitor, the Containment Purge System is aligned as follows: • Purge Supply Fan HV-CPS-1 - RUNNING Purge Exhaust Fan HV-CPX-2 - RUNNING • Purge Supply to Upper Containment VCR-105 and VCR-205 OPEN Purge Exhaust from Upper Containment VCR-106 and VCR-206 OPEN Which ONE of the following describes the required operator actions? a. Stop the Containment Purge and declare Containment Ventilation Isolation inoperable. b. Stop the Containment Purge and notify Radiation Protection. c. Continue the Purge as long as VRS-1101, Containment Normal Range Area Radiation Monitor is still indicating as expected. d. Continue the Purge as long as VRS-1505, Auxiliary Building Ventilation Noble Gas Activity Monitor is still indicating as expected.

b. Correct - When the Containment Purge system is operating in the Ventilation Mode, the automatic isolation signals are blocked. The procedure requires the Purge to be stopped and radiation protection notified.

During a surveillance test on the Unit 1 train A SI , the East Essential Service Water (ESW) pump failed to receive an auto-start signal. The pump started normally in manual. Which ONE of the following describes the operability and Technical Specification (TS) applicability associated with the Unit 1 East ESW pump? The Unit 1 East ESW Pump is … a. still operable because it can still be manually started and a service water TS LCO action statement would not be entered. b. inoperable and a service water TS LCO action statement would be entered because the auto start is required to be operable. c. still operable because it will start automatically if the pump's discharge pressure falls below 40 psig and a service water TS LCO action statement would not be entered. d. inoperable and a service water TS LCO action statement would be entered only if the associated Unit 2 ESW pump is also inoperable or the crossties are closed.

b. Correct - Technical Specification 3.7.8 Essential Service Water Systems, SR 3.7.8.3 requires the auto start function of the ESW pump for operability.

Unit 2 is operating at power with the South NESW Pump supplying the Unit 2 and Miscellaneous Header Heat Loads. An electrical fault on Transformer TR21B causes the loss of Bus 21B. The NESW System response to this event would be to: a. start the Unit 2 North NESW Pump due to low header pressure. b. start the Unit 1 South NESW Pump due to load shed. c. open the Miscellaneous Header cross connect valves on load shed. d. continue operating as before the loss, except that the North NESW pump would not be available.

a. Correct - The South NESW pump is supplied from Bus 21B. On a loss of power the Unit 2 North NESW pump will auto start on Low NESW Header Pressure.

Which ONE of the following describes the normal operation of the Plant and Control Air systems? a. The standby Plant Air Compressor will automatically start at 90 psig in the ring header. b. Control Air pressure lowering to 90 psig in the wet air receiver will start the Control Air Compressor. c. The operating Plant Air Compressor cycles on and off between 93 and 100 psig when operating in automatic. d. The Unit 1 Control Air header will automatically cross connect to the Unit 2 Control Air header if the Unit 1 Control Air Compressor fails to maintain header pressure above 85 psig.

b. Correct - At 90 psig in the Control air systems the Control air compressors start to supply their respective units

With the plant at 100% power, an inadvertent Containment Isolation Phase A occurs. The reactor has NOT tripped and Safety Injection has NOT actuated. How has the Phase A signal affected the Chemical and Volume Control System Containment paths? a. ONLY the Letdown Containment Isolation Valves (QCR-300/301), Letdown Orifice Isolation Valves (QRV-160/161/162) and the Seal Water Return Containment Isolations (QCM- 250/350) have closed. b. ONLY the Letdown Containment Isolation Valves (QCR-300/301), Seal Water Return Containment Isolations (QCM-250/350) and Charging Header Isolation Valves (QMO- 200/201) have closed. c. ONLY the Letdown Containment Isolation Valves (QCR-300/301) and the Letdown Orifice Isolation Valves (QRV-160/161/162) have closed. d. None of the CVCS System valves have closed, since the SI signal is what isolates the CVCS Containment paths.

a. Correct - Containment Phase A isolates the Letdown Containment Isolation Valves (QCR- 300/301), Letdown Orifice Isolation Valves (QRV-160/161/162) and the Seal Water Return Containment Isolations (QCM-250/350).

A plant heatup was in progress, with the RCS at 300oF and 350 psig, when the South SI pump failed its surveillance and was declared inoperable. Which ONE of the below limits are placed on the plant heatup? a. ECCS LCO for modes 3 and 4 satisfied but may not proceed into mode 2. b. ECCS LCO for this mode satisfied but may not proceed into mode 3. c. ECCS LCO satisfied for this mode but enter a 72 hour clock when proceeding into mode 3. d. ECCS LCO not satisfied, 1 hour to restore South SI pump, then 24 hrs to mode 5.

b. Correct - Mode 4 requires only 1 train of ECCS (with only RHR & CCP) per TS 3.5.3. The SI pumps are not required to be operable until Mode 3 (>350oF). Entry into Mode 3 is not allowed since TS 3.0.4 prohibits changing modes if TS 3.5.2 is not met (2 full ECCS trains are required).

During steady state 100% power operation, you are performing a Plant Computer Online Calorimetric Validation in accordance with 01-OHP-4030-114-029 Reactor Thermal Power. The computer points for Steam Generator (S/G) Blowdown are reading as follows: SG # - PPC Value (gpm) - PPC Color - Local Value (gpm) * 11 - 98 - Green - 98 * 12 - 100 - Magenta - 105 * 13 - 95 - Green - 95 * 14 - 96 - Green - 95 Which ONE of the following would be a correct response to these conditions? a. Use the online calorimetric since the computer value for the #12 S/G is less than the actual blowdown. b. Manually enter a value of 105 gpm for the #12 S/G Blowdown and insure the online calorimetric remains below 100%. c. Isolate SG Blowdown. A Manual calorimetric may be used after the plant has been stable for 10 minutes. d. Use the online calorimetric since the computer value for the #12 S/G is within allowed tolerance. The magenta color indicates a deviation from the other SGs.

c. Correct - The computer input for #12 SG blowdown is inaccurate. The magenta reading means that it is inaccurate and should not be used. The SG Blowown Flow should be Isolated. The manual calorimetric may then be used.

During an independent verification a valve is found out of position. Which of the following is the way the component out of position shall be handled? The component shall be repositioned… a. by the person who did the initial lineup and then verified b. and verified by the person performing the verification c. and the supervisor notified of the discrepancy d. after the supervisor gives the approval

d. Correct - PMP-4043-ICV-001 requires notification of the supervisor for resolution of the discrepancy.

When during the review/approval process does a On-The-Spot Change (OTSC) become available for immediate use? a. Once the applicable 10CFR50.59 review is complete. b. Following SRO review of the change and signature. c. After the Qualified Technical Reviewer reviews the change. d. When the Department Manager signs the change.

b. Correct - The procedure is ready for use after the SRO has approved the changes.

Unit 1 is in mode 6 and in the process of core offload. Which ONE (1) of the following limiting conditions requires immediate suspension of all CORE ALTERATIONS? a. Source Range Channel N32 is inoperable with Gamma-Metrics channels N21 and N23 both operable. b. Loss of direct communications between control room and personnel at the refueling station. c. Loss of the Fuel Handling Ventilation System. d. Time since entering mode 3 is 155 hours.

b. Correct -1-OHP-4030-127-037, Refueling Surveillance & TRO 8.91 require that core alterations be suspended if direct communications are lost.

Prior to entering the Auxiliary Building for a tour, you identify a limited access area as having the following readings: • Surface Contamination Level of 80 dpm/100 cm2 (Alpha) • General Area Radiation Level of 1200 mRem/hr • Airborne Radioactivity Level of 7 DAC-hours/week Which ONE of the following postings is required at the entrance to this area? a. High Radiation and Contamination Area b. Very High Radiation and Airborne Area c. Locked High Radiation and Contamination Area d. Very High Radiation, Contamination and Airborne Area

c. Correct - A Locked High Radiation area is defined as an Area accessible in which radiation levels could result in a dose equivalent in excess of 1000 mrem in 1 hour at 30 cm. A Contamination area is defined as An area where loose surface contamination may exceed 1000 dpm/100 cm2 smear or 20 dpm/100 cm2 of (Alpha)

Which ONE of the following describes the Operation of the Containment Purge System (in Ventilation Mode) while the Containment equipment Hatch is open? a. Air flow must be OUT of Containment to prevent to minimize radiation levels. b. Air flow must be INTO Containment to prevent the spread of contamination. c. Containment Purge Exhaust and Supply flows must be matched to ensure the Containment and Aux Building are maintained at the same pressure. d. Containment Purge Exhaust and Supply flows must be balanced to prevent Ice Condenser doors from opening.

b. Correct - A lower pressure in containment with respect to the Aux Building will cause an airflow into containment and help to minimize the spread of contamination.

Unit 1 has experienced a Large Break LOCA. All safeguards equipment functioned properly following the event initiation. You are the BOP assigned to perform 01-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection Attachment A. Which ONE of the following describes the action required for the Control Room Pressurization fans and why? a. Manually start both pressurization fans to ensure that enough pressure exists to ensure adequate filter flow. b. Verify that both pressurization fans automatically start to ensure that enough pressure exists to ensure adequate filter flow. c. Manually stop one pressurization fan to ensure that control room dose remains within analyzed limits. d. Notify Unit 2 control room to start both pressurization fans if one Unit 1 fan is NOT running to ensure that control room dose remains within analyzed limits.

c. Correct - Attachment A Step 4 provides direction to stop 1 pressurization fan to limit the filter flow rates to ensure the dose remains within limits.

FOLLOWING the Initial Notifications for an Emergency Plan accident classified as an ALERT, the SEC must FAX an updated EMD-32 form to the State of Michigan every ____ minutes until relieved by the EOF. a. 15 b. 30 c. 60 d. 120

b. Correct - PMP-2080-EPP-100 Attachment 8 Section 3.1 requires EMD32 followup notifications every 30 minutes.

The plant is in Mode 4 on RHR. NPS-121, Wide Range RCS pressure instrument is de- energized for maintenance. During a control board walkdown you discovered that Panel 206 Drop 36, RHR OPEN TO HI RCS HOT LEG PRESSURE, was illuminated. What would cause this condition? a. RHR valve 2-ICM-129 (RHR pump suction from Loop 2 hot leg) is open, reactor coolant system pressure is 500 psig. b. RHR valve 2-ICM-129 (RHR pump suction from Loop 2 hot leg) is closed, reactor coolant system pressure is 450 psig. c. RHR valve 2-IMO-128 (RHR pump suction from Loop 2 hot leg) is open, reactor coolant system pressure is 500 psig. d. RHR valve 2-IMO-128 (RHR pump suction from Loop 2 hot leg) is closed, reactor coolant system pressure is 450 psig.

c. Correct - Panel 206 Drop 36 will alarm with either NPS-121 at >491.25 psig and ICM-129 open or with NPS-122 at >491.25 psig and IMO-128 open. Since NPS-121 is deenergized the alarm is from IMO-128 and rising pressure.

Technical Specification LCO 3.5.5 Seal Injection Flow places limits on RCP seal injection flow resistance. Which ONE of the following describes the reason for maintaining RCP seal injection flow resistance? a. If the resistance is too small, Auxiliary Spray flow may be less than required for RCS depressurization during a Steam Generator Tube Rupture. b. If the resistance is too large, RCP seals may overheat during a large break LOCA. c. If the resistance is too large, Charging Pump minimum flow may be less than required for pump cooling during a small break LOCA. d. If the resistance is too small, ECCS injection flow may be less than required for core cooling during a small break LOCA.

d. Correct - The limitation on seal line resistance is to ensure that the minimum safeguards flow to the RCS will be sufficient for core cooling. The analysis assumes that flow diverted from the BIT line to seal injection is lost to core cooling.

Six hours ago, Unit 2 experienced a Large break LOCA. All equipment operated as designed. The following plant conditions exist: • ECCS pumps have been aligned per 02-OHP-4023-ES-1.3,Cold Leg Recirculation. • RCS Pressure is 95 psig • RCS temperature is 215oF • 02-OHP-4023-E-1, Loss of Reactor or Secondary Coolant is in progress. The Reactor Operator has just informed you that Containment Pressure has lowered to 1.8 psig. Which ONE of the following describes the required action(s) concerning Containment Spray operation? a. Containment Spray may be secured. b. The Containment Spray Pump must continue to operate until the Spray Additive Tank is drained. c. Containment Spray must continue to operate for 1 more hour. d. Containment Spray must continue to operate until Containment pressure lowers to less than 1.1 psig.

a. Correct - CTS is reset and secured after it has operated for at least 6 hours and pressure is <2 psig.

The unit has suffered a large break LOCA. The operators are currently performing OHP-4023- ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, step 12, realigning SI pump Recirculation valves IMO-262 and IMO-263. While attempting to close IMO-263, SI Pump Recirc to RWST, the MCC breaker trips open on overload and will not reset. The crew is expected to … a. not continue with the procedure until the AEO has locally closed IMO-263, SI Pump Recirc to RWST, to prevent contaminating the RWST. b. not continue with the procedure until the AEO has locally closed IMO-263, SI Pump Recirc to RWST, since it is an interlock to open IMO-340, CCP Suction from East RHR Hx, and IMO-350, SI Pump Suction from West RHR Hx c. verify IMO-262, SI Pump Recirc to RWST, is closed and continue with the procedure since adequate isolation exists and required interlocks are met. d. leave the SI pumps aligned to the RWST until the operability of IMO-263, SI Pump Recirc to RWST, is resolved.

c. Correct - OHP-4023-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation, step 12, requires that 1 of the SI recirc valves be closed. The valves are in series to isolate flow back to the RWST. Closing at least one valve satisfies the interlock and prevents the return of radioactive water to the RWST.

Unit 2 is performing a shutdown. The following conditions exist : • Reactor is critical at 8% power. • Annunciator Panel 110 Drop 8, INTMED RANGE COMPENSATE VOLT FAILURE alarms. How does this affect the Nuclear Instrumentation? a. N36 reading would immediately rise about 1 decade. The channel will be INOPERABLE for the P-6 Function once power is reduced. b. N36 reading would immediately drop about 1 decade. The channel will be OPERABLE for the P-6 Function once power is reduced. c. N36 reading would NOT immediately change. The channel will be OPERABLE for the P-6 Function once power is reduced. d. N36 reading would NOT immediately change. The channel will be INOPERABLE for the P- 6 Function once power is reduced.

d. Correct - When the compensating voltage is lost, while in the power range the effect will not be noticed since the impact from the gamma radiation is a small percentage of the total current. At lower power levels, excessive gamma current will cause the IR detector to indicate excessively HIGH. This may result in 1 of 2 channels remaining above the P-6 setpoint, which would keep all P-6 blocking features active.

The following alarms are received on Unit 2: • Steam Gen 1/2/3/4 Steam Line Flow High Alarms Steam Gen 1/2/3/4 SF>FWF Flow Mismatch Alarms The following conditions exist: • RCS Tavg is 561oF and lowering • Turbine load is lowering • Rods are stepping out • Steam flows are - 3.6 x 106 lbm/hr • FW flows are - 2.1 x 106 lbm/hr Which one of the following correctly describes the cause and required action to be taken for the above conditions? a. A steam line break exists. Direct the operators to perform a Reactor Trip and Main Steamline Isolation. b. A feed line break exists. Direct the operators to perform a Reactor Trip and Main Feedwater Isolation. c. Feedwater Pump delta P is too Low. Direct the operator to raise FW Pump Speed and FW pump flow. d. MPC-253 has failed LOW. Direct the operators to perform actions for failed First Stage Turbine Impulse Pressure Transmitter.

a. Correct - Based on the conditions presented a steam line break has occurred. Steam flow is indicating at the 97 to 98% power range. Tavg is 13oF Low for 98% power. A reactor trip and Steam Line isolation is warranted.

The following plant conditions exist on Unit 2: • The Plant is in Mode 3 preparing for Reactor Startup. Gamma Metrics Detector N21 is Inoperable. • A Loss of CRID III has occurred and operators have taken actions to stabilize the plant. What ONE of the following actions are required for the Neutron Flux Function of Technical Specification 3.3.3, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation based on these events? (Technical Specification 3.3.3, Post Accident Monitoring Instrumentation attached) a. Restore Either Neutron Flux Detector to Operable status immediately or be in Mode 4 within 12 hours. b. Restore Either Neutron Flux Detector to Operable status within 7 Days from the Loss of N23. c. Restore Neutron Flux Detector N21 to Operable status within 30 Days from the Loss of N21. N23 was not impacted by the loss of CRID III. d. Restore Both Neutron Flux Detectors to Operable status within 30 Days from the Loss of N21.

c. Correct - CRID III supplies power to the Unit 1 - N23. TS 3.3.3 requires 2 channels operable for the Neutron Flux Function. Loss of one channel allows 30 Days for repair. A loss of 2 Channels requires that 1 be restored within 7 Days.

2- OHP-4022-064-001, Control Air Malfunction, directs the operator to Check 100 PSIG Control Air Header Pressure on XPI-100. Which ONE of the following should the SRO direct with respect to 02-OHP-4022-064-001, if air pressure cannot be maintained? a. If the plant is experiencing symptoms of a loss of Control Air AND system pressure reaches 95 psig then close the Plant Air Header Unit Crosstie valves. If pressure is still lowering then trip the reactor and go to 02-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. b. If the plant is experiencing symptoms of a loss of Control Air AND system pressure reaches 80 psig and is still lowering, trip the reactor and go to 02-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. c. If the plant is experiencing symptoms of a loss of Control Air AND system pressure reaches 90 psig and is still lowering, then close the Plant Air Header Unit Crosstie valves and start both Control Air compressors. d. If the plant is experiencing symptoms of a loss of Control Air AND system pressure reaches 80 psig and is still lowering, then close the Containment Air Header Isolation valves and start a unit shutdown.

b. Correct - 02-OHP-4022-064-001, Control Air Malfunction directs a reactor trip if Control Air Pressure is <80 psig.

*DELETED* The plant is at 95% power. • 1200 on April 3, the 1S SI pump is declared inoperable. • 1430 on April 4, the 1W Centrifugal Charging pump is declared inoperable. • 1430 on April 5, the 1S SI pump is restored to OPERABLE status. Including any extensions that are permitted by TS, which one of the following describes the LATEST time and date to restore the 1W Centrifugal Charging pump to OPERABLE status without requiring a unit shutdown? a. 1200 on April 6 b. 1200 on April 7 c. 1430 on April 7 d. 1430 on April 8

a. Correct - Since the S SI pump and W Centrifugal Charging pump are associated with the same ECCS train, the inoperability of the W Centrifugal Charging pump does NOT constitute a subsequent failure expressed in the Condition. Condition A specifies one ECCS train. The subsequent inoperability above is in the same train. Therefore, a Completion Time extension is NOT allowed. * This question marked as deleted. Not sure why so take a cautious approach to it.

The following plant conditions exist on Unit 2: • The East CCW HX is in service with the West CCW Pump running. • CCW Surge Tank level is stable. • CRS-4301, East CCW HX Radiation Monitor, generates an External Failure Alarm due to a faulty flow switch Which ONE of the following describes the response of the CCW system and the required actions, if any, for this condition? a. No automatic actions will occur since the West CCW pump is running. No Lineup changes are required, operation in this condition is allowed indefinitely. The CCW system remains operable. b. No automatic actions will occur since the CRS-4401, West CCW HX Radiation Monitor is still functioning. The West CCW HX must be aligned so the 2-CRV-412 Vent Valve will automatically close on a high radiation signal. The East CCW HX must be declared Inoperable. c. 2-CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Valve, will automatically close. The West CCW HX must be aligned so the 2-CRV-412 Vent Valve may be reopened. The East CCW HX must be declared Inoperable. d. 2-CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Valve, will automatically close. No Lineup changes are required, operation in this condition is allowed indefinitely. The CCW system remains operable.

d. Correct - 2-CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Shutoff Valve closes on High Rad Level Alarm, Low Sample Flow, External Failure on CRS-4300/4400, Channel 4301 - East and/or Channel 4401-West. The automatic action is the closure of the Vent valve. The closure of the vent and monitor failure don't impact system operability, so operation may continue with this lineup.

``` The control room operators are conducting a cooldown following a LOCA. The following plant conditions exist: • Core Exit TC's are 410oF. • RCS Pressure is 260 psig. • RVLIS Narrow Range is 36%. • RVLIS Wide Range is 17%. • RCP #23 is the only RCP Operating. Which ONE of the following describes current core conditions and operational requirements?(02-OHP-4023-F-0.2, Core Cooling status tree attached) ``` a. Saturated. The operators are required to immediately enter 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.3, Response to Saturated Core Cooling to restore subcooled core cooling. b. Saturated. At their discretion, the operators may perform 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.3, Response to Saturated Core Cooling to restore subcooled core cooling. c. Degraded. The operators are required to immediately enter 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling to prevent conditions from degrading to an inadequate core cooling condition. d. Degraded. Prompt action must be taken to trip the RCP and enter 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling or conditions could degrade to an inadequate core cooling condition.

b. Correct - 260 psig = 274.7 psia = 409oF indicating that Subcooling is <36oF. With 1 RCP running and WR RVLIS > 15% the correct procedure would be 02-OHP-4023-FR-C.3, Response to Saturated Core Cooling. This is a yellow path procedure so discretion is allowed.

Unit 1 is responding to a LOCA. Upon entering 01-OHP-4023-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, the following conditions existed: • 1W RHR pump - tagged out • 1E RHR stopped when 1-ICM-305, Recirc Sump to East RHR/CTS Pumps, could NOT be opened • Containment pressure - 11 psig • RCS pressure - 1200 psig • RWST level - 16% • Both SI pumps are shutdown, but available • Both CCPs are running • Both CTS Pumps are running • No RCPs are running The crew has now reached step 12, Check if an RCP should be started. Which ONE of the following list the pump(s) that are required to be running at this point in the procedure? (01-OHP-4023-ECA 1-1, Steps 1-12 are attached.) a. An CCP only. b. An CCP and an CTS pump only. c. An CCP, an SI pump and one CTS pump only. d. An CCP, an SI pump and both CTS pumps.

c. Correct - One CTS pump is stopped at step 5 when according to the table, one CTS pump is required. One CCP is stopped in step 11a. One SI pump is started at step 11b.

Unit 1 reactor has been manually tripped due to a secondary system malfunction. 01-OHP-4023-E-0 has been performed and a transition made to 01-OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response. The STA has identified a YELLOW path on the Heat Sink Status Tree for steam generator pressure. The crew has entered 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.2, Response to Steam Generator Overpressure. The following conditions exist: • Steam Generator #13 Pressure - 1100 psig • Steam Generator #13 NR Level - 96% What is the appropriate action relative to steam release from S/G #13? a. Steam release should NOT occur because it may result in excessive RCS cooldown and depressurization, potentially causing a SI. b. Steam release should NOT occur because it may result in two phase flow and water hammer, potentially damaging pipes and valves. c. Steam may be released via the SG PORV ONLY since narrow range level is greater than 67%. d. Steam may be released without restriction since narrow range level has been adequately established.

b. Correct - Per 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.2 Step 3, if the SG level is >92% a transition is made to 01- OHP-4023-FR-H.3 to address the high level that may be causing the pressure concern. Also as discussed in 01-OHP-4023-FR-H.3 Step 1, with a high SG level steam should not be released until the steam lines can be evaluated.

The following conditions exist : • Large Break LOCA is in progress • Containment pressure is 1.9 psig and stable • You notice an ORANGE condition on CONTAINMENT CSF ST due to the "FLOOD LEVEL" lights being Lit. What action will be directed by OHP-4023-FR-FR Z.2, Response to Containment Flooding, and what is the concern if these actions are not successful? a. Divert RHR flow from the Containment Sump to the RWST to lower Containment Level. High water levels could result in critical components needed for plant recovery being damaged and rendered inoperable. b. Identify and isolate the source of excess water using control board indications and Containment Sump samples. Water levels could reach the bottom of the reactor vessel resulting in thermal shock and vessel failure. c. Identify and isolate the source of excess water using control board indications and Containment Sump samples. High water levels could result in critical components needed for plant recovery being damaged and rendered inoperable. d. Stop both containment spray pumps. Water levels could reach the bottom of the reactor vessel resulting in thermal shock and vessel failure.

c. Correct - Containment design basis flood level takes into account the entire water contents of the RCS, RWST, Ice condenser ice bed melt, and SI accumulators, plus the added mass of a LOCA and a steam line or feedline break inside containment. NESW and CCW may be major contributors to exceeding "flood" level and causing a loss of equipment required for long term cooling.

Unit 1 is in MODE 3 preparing for a reactor startup. All shutdown bank rods are withdrawn. I&C informs you that MPC-254 (Main Turbine 1st stage pressure transmitter) must be placed in the test (failed high) position in order to perform work on the transmitter. Which ONE of the following correctly describes your response to this request and the reason? a. Allow Testing. MPC-253 is still indicating properly, so P-13 and P-7 will indicate correctly. b. Do NOT Allow Testing. The reactor trips associated with permissive P-7 would be unblocked. c. Do NOT Allow Testing. The Steam Dumps will close when MPC-254 is placed in the Failed Condition. d. Allow Testing, after placing AMSAC to the Bypass Condition.

b. Correct - P-13 is actuated by 2 of 2 Impulse channels below 10. Failing 1 channel high will remove P-13 which will remove the P-7 Blocks.

You are the Unit Supervisor responding to a Unit 2 LOCA and are currently implementing 02- OHP-4023-FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure. Step 6 of this procedure requires you to place DIS in Service. Which ONE of the following correctly describes required actions to place the Distributed Ignition System (DIS) in operation? Direct the RO to turn on the Hydrogen Igniters after verifying that the .. a. AEO has locally stopped the Ice Condenser Air Handling Units. b. AEO has locally started the Ice Condenser Air Handling Units. c. Ice Condenser Air Handling Units have automatically tripped. d. Ice Condenser Air Handling Units have automatically started.

a. Correct - The Ice Condenser AHUs are locally stopped when DIS is placed in service to reduce potential ignition sources (defrost units). The Hydrogen Igniters are started in the MCR.

Unit 1 is in Mode 6. The following conditions exist: - Fuel Handling Area Ventilation System is aligned with flow through the Charcoal Filter - Fuel Handling Building Radiation Monitor, R-5 alarm/actuation circuitry has just failed. - VRS- 5000 Fuel Handling Area Monitor is available - MTI has been called for troubleshooting the R-5 failure. Which of the following describes the required ACTION, if any, to be taken in order to allow core alterations and fuel movement to continue? a. Core Alterations and Fuel Movement in the Auxiliary Building must be stopped until the R-5 monitor is repaired. b. Core Alterations and Fuel Movement in the Auxiliary Building may continue uninterrupted, since the Fuel Handling Area Ventilation System is already aligned with flow through the Charcoal Filter. c. Core Alterations and Fuel Movement in the Auxiliary Building may continue uninterrupted, since the VRS-5000 Fuel Handling Area Monitor is available. d. Core Alterations may continue but Fuel Movement in the Auxiliary Building must be stopped until the R-5 monitor is repaired.

d. Correct - The Fuel Handling Ventilation System must be operable to conduct Fuel Movement in the Auxiliary Building. Upon receipt of a Fuel Handling Area Radiation - High signal the fuel handling area supply fans are tripped, thus ensuring a negative pressure within the space. The charcoal filter section bypass dampers also receive a close signal upon receipt of Fuel Handling Area Radiation - High signal (however, these dampers are maintained closed when the required FHAEV train is in operation). Thus failure of R-5 alarm/actuation circuitry makes the FHAEV inoperable (Supply fans won't trip - SR 3.7.13.4)

You are the Unit Supervisor. Unit 2 is at 100% power. Panel 215 Drop 48 - BATTERY N UNDERVOLTAGE has just alarmed. Investigation revealed that a metal plate has shorted the battery terminals. Which ONE of the following identifies the effects on the operability and capability of the Auxiliary Feedwater System? a. The TDAFW Pump will NOT start and the FMO-211, 221, 231, & 241 TDAFW to SG Isolation valves are failed in the open position. Declare the TDAFW train inoperable. b. The TDAFW Pump will start and the FMO-211, 221, 231, & 241 TDAFW to SG Isolation valves are failed in the open position. Declare the N Train battery inoperable. c. The TDAFW Pump will start but the MCM-221 SG Steam supply to TDAFW Pump Isolation valve is failed in the closed position. Declare the TDAFW Pump inoperable. d. The TDAFW Pump will NOT start and the FMO-211, 221, 231, & 241 TDAFW to SG Isolation valves are failed in the closed position. Declare the TDAFW train inoperable.

a. Correct - The Train N battery supplies power to the TDAFW pump start circuitry, Trip & Throttle Valve, SG FW Valves and Test Valves. The TDAFW pump valves are normally open and so they will fail in the open position. TS 3.7.5 Condition B allows 72 hours.

Unit 1 is 100% power and Unit 2 is in Mode 3. All Unit 1 CW pumps are operating. Only 2 Unit 2 CW pumps are operating. The following conditions exist : - Ann. 223, Drop 44, Travelling Screen DP High - LIT - Ann. 223, Drop 45, Travelling Screen DP High-High - LIT - Screen DP is 43". - Lake Inlet temperature is 75oF Which ONE of the following describes the required actions and the plant impact if these actions are not taken? (12-OHP-4022-057-001 Attached) a. Reduce Power to <78% and Shutdown 2 Unit 1 CW pumps. Continued operation at high DP could cause loss of screens and subsequent clogging of the Main & FW Pump condensers. b. Reduce Power to <91% and Shutdown 1 Unit 1 CW pump. Continued operation at high DP could cause loss of screens and subsequent failure of the Essential Service Water System. c. Immediately Trip Unit 1 and Shutdown All CW pumps on Both units. Continued operation at high DP could cause loss of screens and subsequent failure of the Essential Service Water System. d. Immediately Trip both Unit 2 CW pumps. Continued operation at high DP could cause loss of screens and subsequent clogging of the Main & FW Pump condensers.

b. Correct - 12-OHP-4022-057-001 requires that power be reduced to < 91 % on unit 1 and 1 CW pump stopped. (Step 5 & Attachment A)

The following conditions exist : - Unit 2 is in Mode 1. - A Reactor Operator and the Unit Supervisor are in the Unit 2 Control Room. - A high vibration alarm is received on the HD pump requiring someone to go behind the panel to check the indications. Which ONE of the following describes the procedurally accepted method of checking the indications? a. The Unit Supervisor can go behind the panel to check the vibration. b. The Reactor Operator can go behind the panel to check the vibration. c. Both the Reactor Operator and the Unit Supervisor are allowed to go behind the panel to check the vibration as long as all controls are in automatic. d. Neither the Reactor Operator or the Unit Supervisor can go behind the panels. They must get another operator to check the vibration.

a. Correct - The Unit Supervisor must be in the Control Room but may go behind the panels. The RO must remain in the view of the panels. OHI-4000

Which ONE of the following describes a responsibility of the SRO when reviewing an On-The- Spot Change (OTSC)? a. Verifies that the change is consistent with appropriate source documentation. b. Determines that the change is technically correct. c. Ensures that the change meets equipment engineering requirements. d. Ensures that the change does not adversely affect plant safety or operation.

d. Correct - The SRO is responsible for ensuring that the change doesn't affect safety or plant operation.

Unit 2 is in Mode 1 at 100% power. Maintenance activities require that the North SI pump discharge cross-tie valve must be CLOSED for 2 hours. What actions must be taken to ensure Technical Specifications AND LOCA analysis requirements protection is provided? a. Reduce thermal Power to < 3304 MW No equipment alignment changes are required. b. Open both RHR discharge x-tie valves, IMO-314 and IM-324. Place the E RHR pump switch in the pull to lock position c. Open the “E” RHR discharge x-tie valve, IM-314 Place the W RHR pump switch in the pull to lock position. d. Reduce thermal Power to < 3304 MW Open both RHR discharge x-tie valves, IMO-314 and IMO-324. Place the E RHR pump switch in the pull to lock position.

d. Technical specifications require that both SI Discharge crosstie valves be open. If one valve must be closed then power must be reduced to < 3304 MWt within 1 hour. additionally the RHR Crossties must be opened to ensure 4 loop injection. The East RHR pump is placed in PTL to prevent the RHR pumps from overpowering each other.

Rad monitor VRS-1505, Unit Vent Effluent Low Range Noble Gas Channel, has failed HIGH. Repairs will take at least 3 days. Which ONE of the following actions is required by PMP-6010-OSD-001, Off-site Dose Calculation Manual, regarding a release from the waste gas decay tank? References Attached: PMP-6010-OSD-001, Off-site Dose Calculation Manual, Attachment 3.4 (pages 50-52) The release … a. may NOT be started until the repairs on VRS-1505 are completed. b. may be started provided RP recalculates the trip set points using VRS-2505 as the release path alarm and termination monitor. c. may be started for up to 30 days provided grab samples are taken shiftly and analyzed within 24 hours d. may be started for up to 14 days provided 2 independent samples are analyzed and the calculations and valve lineups are dual verified

d. PMP-6010-OSD-001 Attachment 3.4 Action 9 allows releases to continue for 14 days provided 2 independent samples are analyzed and the calculations and valve lineups are dual verified.

The maximum time that can elapse between a gas decay tank being approved for release and the start of the release is … a. 4 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours

c. Correct - 12-OHP-4021-023-002 Release of Radioactive Waste from Gas Decay Tanks, Data Sheet 1 requires the SRO to ensure that not more than 24 hours have elapsed since the Release was approved.

Unit 1 was in MODE 4 with a Containment Inspection in progress. An explosive device was found in close proximity to the Main Steam Leads. How should the this event be classified per the Emergency Plan? (PMP-2080-EPP-101 Attachment 1 is attached) a. General Emergency b. Site Area Emergency c. Alert d. Unusual Event

b. Correct - Security event H-2 requires a Site Area Emergency if a bomb is found within the Vital Area. * EAL charts have changed since this test so check charts for current call.

2006 NRC Flashcards

(99 cards)