2012 NRC Flashcards by Nathan Waters

Over core life (BOC to EOC), the differential rod worth will become ..

a. more negative (worth more) due to a lower boron concentration and a shift in the radial flux.
b. less negative (worth less) due to a lower boron concentration and a shift in the radial flux.
c. more negative (worth more) due to increased neutron absorption in moderator.
d. less negative (worth less) due to increased resonance absorption of neutrons.

a. CORRECT Over core life the boron concentration is lowered allowing less competition for neutrons. Additionally as the flux shifts to the outer portion of the core more rods are affected (exposed to a higher flux) also making rod worth more negative.

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Given the following initial conditions on Unit 2:
• QRV-251 CCP Discharge Flow Control Valve is in MANUAL.
• QRV-200 Charging Header Pressure Control Valve is in MANUAL.
• Pressurizer pressure is 2235 psig.
• Reactor Coolant Pump seal injection flow is 32 gpm.
• Charging line flow is 89 gpm.
If pressurizer pressure is raised to 2300 psig, which ONE of the following sets of system parameter changes is correct?
a. Charging line flow lowers and total seal injection flow lowers.
b. Charging line flow lowers and total seal injection flow remains the same.
c. Charging pump discharge header pressure remains the same and total seal injection flow rises.
d. Charging pump discharge header pressure rises and total seal injection flow remains the same.

a. CORRECT Centrifugal pump laws require that the discharge header pressure raises and flow lowers as system pressure rises. Therefore charging line flow and total seal flow will lower while charging line discharge pressure rises.

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Unit 1 is in Mode 3 at normal operating temperature and pressure.
While performing trouble shooting activities, CCM-453 (CCW from RCP Thermal Barrier) closes.
Which ONE of the following describes the impact this failure will have on the Reactor Coolant Pump(s) (RCP)?
Thermal Barrier Component Cooling Water return flow has been lost from …
a. only 1 RCP. RCP operation may continue.
b. all RCPs. RCP operation may continue.
c. only 1 RCP. The affected RCP must be stopped within 5 minutes due to a loss of cooling.
d. all RCPs. All RCPs must be stopped within 5 minutes due to a loss of cooling.

b. CORRECT The CCW thermal barrier isolation valve is common to all RCPs. RCP operation may continue provided seal injection is maintained.

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Given the following plant conditions:
• Unit 2 is operating at 100%.
• 120 GPM letdown is in service.
• Volume Control Tank (VCT) blender controls are in automatic.
• VCT level transmitter QLC-452 fails to 100%.
Which ONE of the following describes the expected impact to the VCT?
With NO operator action, the VCT level will lower …
a. slowly due to normal RCS losses. Auto VCT makeup will NOT start and eventually the VCT level will lower to the RWST switchover setpoint. With QLC-452 failed high, the coincidence for switchover will not be made up and level will continue lowering to 0%. At this time suction will be lost to the charging pumps.
b. due to Letdown diverting. Auto VCT makeup will NOT start and eventually the VCT level will lower to the RWST switchover setpoint. QLC-451 will acuate a switchover to RWST Suction on Lo-Lo VCT level. At this time VCT level will start to rise due to seal return.
c. due to Letdown diverting. Auto VCT makeup will attempt to control VCT level. Eventually VCT level will lower to the RWST switchover setpoint. With QLC-452 failed high, the coincidence for switchover will not be made up and level will continue lowering to 0%. At this time suction will be lost to the charging pumps.
d. slowly due to normal RCS losses. Auto VCT makeup will attempt to control VCT. Eventually VCT level will lower to the RWST switchover setpoint. QLC-451 will acuate a switchover to RWST Suction on Lo-Lo VCT level. At this time VCT level will start to rise due to seal return and VCT Makeup.

c. CORRECT QLC-452 causes full divert, QLC-451 actuates makeup and switchover to the RWST requires both channels.

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It is desired to provide suction to the Safety Injection (SI) pumps from the Residual Heat Removal (RHR) Pumps during the Recirculation Phase. The RHR and Containment Spray (CTS) Pump suction valves from the Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST) are already closed.
Which ONE of the following actions must be done to provide suction to the SI Pumps
from RHR?
a. Open ICM-305 Recirc Sump to East RHR/CTS Pumps.
Close IMO-361 AND IMO-362 SI Pp Suction X-Tie to Charging Pumps Suction.
Open IMO-340 Charging Pump Suction from East RHR Hx.
b. Open ICM-306 Recirc Sump to West RHR/CTS Pumps.
Close IMO-361 AND IMO-362 SI Pp Suction X-Tie to Charging Pumps Suction.
Open IMO-350 SI Pp Suction from West RHR Hx.
c. Open ICM-305 Recirc Sump to East RHR/CTS Pumps.
Close IMO-262 OR IMO-263 SI Pps Recirc to RWST.
Open IMO-340 Charging Pp Suction from East RHR Hx.
d. Open ICM-306 Recirc Sump to West RHR/CTS pumps.
Close IMO-262 OR IMO-263 SI Pps Recirc to RWST.
Open IMO-350 SI Pp Suction from West RHR Hx.

d. CORRECT The West RHR pump provides suction to the SI pumps and closing either the IMO-262 OR IMO-263 SI Pps Recirc to RWST valves will allow opening IMO-350.

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Which ONE of the following would be a concern if the Core Exit Thermocouple (CETC) temperatures were approaching 2200°F?

a. A zircalloy-water reaction is accelerated at temperatures above 2200°F.
b. 2200°F is 500 degrees below the fuel cladding melting point.
c. Clad temperature at 2200°F correlates to a fuel centerline temperature at the fuel’s melting point.
d. The cladding weakens due to a zirconium phase change (from a close-packed hexagonal structure to body-centered cubic) at temperatures above 2200°F.

a. CORRECT Zircalloy-water reaction is accelerated at temperatures above 2200 °F.

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Which ONE of the following describes the power supply for the Unit 1 North Safety Injection (SI) Pump?

a. Bus T11A
b. Bus T11B
c. Bus T11C
d. Bus T11D

d. CORRECT. The North SI and Train A pumps are supplied from T11D.

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Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
• Unit was operating at 100% power when the turbine tripped.
• The reactor failed to automatically trip but was manually tripped.
• All other systems operated as expected.
• The Emergency procedures have been performed and the plant stabilized.
• A pressurizer Power Operated Relief Valve (PORV) was failed open and was isolated by closing the block valve.
Which ONE of the following represents the expected status of the Pressurizer Relief Tank (PRT) and the actions that must be taken to restore it to normal limits?

a. PRT Temperature = 100°F, Level = 15%, and Pressure = 14 psig
Open the Vent to depressurize and add water to cool the tank.

b. PRT Temperature = 140°F, Level = 84%, and Pressure = 12 psig
Reduce level and add water to cool & depressurize the tank.

c. PRT Temperature = 280°F, Level = 82%, and Pressure = 34 psig
Open the Vent to depressurize and add water to cool the tank.

d. PRT Temperature = 240°F, Level = 95%, and Pressure = 3 psig
Reduce level and add water to cool & depressurize the tank.

b. CORRECT. PRT temperature is normally at Containment Temperature of ~100-110°F with level 80-84% and pressure of ~ 2-3 psig.

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The following plant conditions exist on Unit 2:
• The East CCW HX is in service with the West CCW Pump running.
• CCW Surge Tank level is stable.
• CRS-4301, East CCW HX Radiation Monitor, generates an External Failure Alarm due to a faulty flow switch.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the CCW system and the required actions, if any, for this condition?
a. No automatic actions will occur since the West CCW pump is running. No Lineup changes are required, operation in this condition is allowed indefinitely.
b. No automatic actions will occur since the CRS-4401, West CCW HX Radiation Monitor is still functioning. The West CCW HX must be aligned so the CRV-412 Vent Valve will automatically close on a high radiation signal.
c. CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Valve, will automatically close. The West CCW HX must be aligned so the CRV-412 Vent Valve may be reopened.
d. CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Valve, will automatically close. No Lineup changes are required.

d. CORRECT. 2-CRV-412, CCW Surge Tank Vent Shutoff Valve closes on High Rad Level Alarm, Low Sample Flow, External Failure on CRS-4300/4400, Channel 4301 - East and/or Channel 4401-West. The automatic action is the closure of the Vent valve. The closure of the vent and monitor failure don’t impact system operability, so operation may continue with this lineup.

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Which ONE of the following describes the design alignment which provides power to the pressurizer heaters during a loss of off-site power condition?

a. Group A1, A2, and A3 from the 2AB Emergency DG via bus T21B.
b. Group C1, C2, and C3 from the 2CD Emergency DG via bus T21D.
c. Group A1, A2, and A3 from the 21BD bus crosstie.
d. Group C1, C2, and C3 from the 21AC bus crosstie.

b. CORRECT Group C heaters are supplied from the 21PHC transformer which is tied to the 2CD EDG via bus T21D.

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Given the following conditions in Unit 2:
• Reactor Power is above the Permissive P-8 setpoint.
• All systems are in AUTO.
Which ONE of the following sets of conditions describes the inputs and coincidence to the Reactor Protection system indicating that the Main Turbine Generator is tripped?
Auto Stop Oil Press Stop Valve Positions
a. 1/3 less than 62 psig OR 3/4 less than 1% Open
b. 1/3 less than 800 psig AND 4/4 less than 1% Open
c. 2/3 less than 62 psig AND 3/4 less than 1% Open
d. 2/3 less than 800 psig OR 4/4 less than 1% Open

d. CORRECT. Coincidences are correct: ASO is 2/3; TSV is 4/4. Logic stated correctly as an “OR” function ASO Pressure is < 800 psig

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Concerning the Engineered Safety Features (ESF) initiation instrumentation for Pressurizer pressure, there are _____(1)_____ channels that input to Safety Injection for _____(2)_____ independent safety trains of ESF.

(1) (2) a. 3	2 b. 4	4 c. 4	2 d. 3	3

a. CORRECT. There are 4 channels Pressurizer pressure. The fourth channel inputs to Reactor Protection Trip (RPS) ONLY. There are 2 TRAINS for ESF actuation (A & B).

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The following plant conditions exist:
• With Unit 1 operating at 100% power and Unit 2 is shutdown in Mode 5.
• A Loss of Instrument CRID III occurred on Unit 2.
• The Unit 2 operators have taken their actions to verify proper shutdown condition.
What effect does this have on the Unit 1’s ability to monitor reactor power?
a. NI Neutron Flux Power Level recorder SG-12 is lost which requires alternate monitoring of power level.
b. NI Neutron Flux Power Level recorder NR-43 is lost which requires alternate monitoring of power level.
c. Gamma Metric instrument N23 is inoperable which reduces the post accident monitoring capability to only one available Nuclear Instrument.
d. Gamma Metric instrument N21 is inoperable which reduces the post accident monitoring capability to only one available Nuclear Instrument.

c. CORRECT Gamma Metirc instrument N23 is inoperable since it is powered from the opposite unit.

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Unit 2 Containment Chill Water is operating on the OPEN loop (NESW) configuration when a Non-Essential Service Water (NESW) rupture inside containment occurs.
The crew has entered 2-OHP-4022-020-001, NESW System Loss/Rupture.
Which ONE of the following describes the required action(s) and the reason(s) for this/
these action(s)?
The Unit Supervisor should direct the crew to trip the Reactor and …
a. stop all RCPs to minimize the risk of fire since RCP fire protection has been lost.
b. stop all RCPs to prevent pump damage since all RCP cooling has been lost.
c. stop three RCPs. A containment pressure relief is performed to minimize the risk of a safety injection actuation since containment cooling has been lost.
d. stop three RCPs. A containment pressure relief is performed to allow containment purge supply to be started since ice condenser cooling has been lost.

c. CORRECT The reactor must be tripped if a loss of NESW to containment occurs. Three RCPs are removed from service to stop heat input to the containment atmosphere during a loss of containment cooling. The heat input would cause a rapid rise in containment pressure, resulting in an SI and CTS actuation based solely on a loss of containment cooling.

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Which ONE of the following correctly describes the operation of the Ice Condenser Air
Handling Unit Fans?
a. The Containment Cooling System is used to maintain Ice Condenser temperature within limits and the Ice Condenser Air Handling Unit Fans must be STARTED when the Distributed Ignition System (DIS) is placed in service.
b. The Ice Condenser Air Handling Unit Fans are run to maintain Ice Condenser temperature within limits but must be STOPPED when Distributed Ignition System (DIS) is placed in service.
c. The Ice Condenser Air Handling Unit Fans are run to maintain Ice Condenser temperature within limits but must be STOPPED on High Containment Pressure to allow steam flow up through the ice condenser.
d. The Containment Cooling System is used to maintain Ice Condenser Temperature within limits and the Ice Condenser Air Handling Unit Fans must be STARTED on High Containment Pressure to direct steam flow up through the ice condenser.

b. CORRECT The Ice Condenser Air Handling Unit Fans are run to maintain Ice Condenser temperature within limits but must be STOPPED when DIS is placed in service.

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The following plant conditions exist:
• A Unit 2 LOCA is in progress.
• Containment Pressure is 8.5 psig.
• IMO-210/211/220/221 (CTS Pump Discharge Valves) are Open.
• IMO-202/204 (SAT Outlet Valves) are Open.
• IMO-212/222 (SAT Eductor Valves) are Open.
• East Containment Spray (CTS) Pump is Running.
• West Containment Spray (CTS) Pump is NOT Running.
• Both RHR Pumps are Running.
• All SG Stop Valves are Closed.
• Panel 205, Drop 5, CONTAINMENT SPRAY ACTUATED, alarm actuated.
• Panel 205, Drop 10, CONTAINMENT ISOLATION PHASE B, alarm actuated.
Which ONE of the following failures would result in the above listed conditions?
a. Failure of Train A, Containment Isolation Phase B relay to actuate.
b. Failure of Train B, Containment Isolation Phase B relay to actuate.
c. Failure of Train A, Containment Spray (CTS) relay to actuate.
d. Failure of Train B, Containment Spray (CTS) relay to actuate.

b. CORRECT The Train B CTS pump is the West CTS Pump. The CTS pumps are actuated from the respective train Phase B signal while the associated valves reposition based on the CTS signal.

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Unit 1 has experienced a large break LOCA.
The following conditions exist:
• OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety injection, is complete.
• OHP-4023-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirc, is complete.
• Only 1 Train of Containment Spray was available so RHR Spray was aligned as follows:
• ICM-311 (RHR Discharge Isolation) is CLOSED.
• IMO-330 (RHR to Upper Containment Spray) is OPEN.
• The remainder of the system is aligned as expected for this condition.
Which ONE of the following best describes the effects on the RHR system if the East RHR pump trips?
a. RHR Flow is lost to Cold Legs 2 & 3
RHR flow is still delivered to Cold Legs 1 & 4 and RHR Spray.
b. RHR Flow is lost to the RHR Spray.
RHR flow is still delivered to core through all 4 Cold Legs
c. RHR Flow is lost to the core through all 4 Cold Legs
RHR flow is still delivered to RHR Spray.
d. RHR Flow is lost to the RHR Spray.
RHR flow is still delivered to Cold Legs 2 & 3.

d. CORRECT The West RHR will supply Cold Legs 2 & 3 but spray flow from the East RHR is lost.

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Unit 1 has experienced a LOCA and Loss of Offsite power.
The following conditions exist:
• Emergency Diesel Generator 1AB failed to start.
• Emergency Diesel Generator 1CD has started and loaded as designed.
• Power has been restored to the Reserve Aux Transformers (RAT).
• No buses have been energized from the RATs.
The Unit Supervisor directs you to verify or restore power so a hydrogen recombiner may be run.
Which ONE of the following actions is required to enable the associated Hydrogen Recombiner to be operated?
a. Verify that bus T11C has energized 600V Bus 11C and MCC-1-EZC-C for (Train A) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 2.
b. Verify that bus T11C has energized 600V Bus 11C and Close the 11AC crosstie to supply power to Bus 11A and MCC-1-EZC-A for (Train B) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 1.
c. Energize RCP Bus 1B from the RAT to supply power to 600V Bus 11BMC for (Train B) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 1.
d. Energize RCP Bus 1C from the RAT to supply power to 600V Bus 11CMC for (Train A) Hydrogen Recombiner Number 2.

a. CORRECT Hydrogen Recombiner #1 is powered form MCC-1-EZC-B and Hydrogen Recombiner #2 is powered form MCC-1-EZC-C.

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Given the following plant conditions on Unit 1:
• Containment Purge System is operating in the PURGE (clean-up) MODE.
• A power supply spike caused a HIGH alarm on ERS-1305, Noble Gas Low Range Containment Monitor.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Containment Ventilation System to this alarm?
a. Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-101 through VCR-106 close.
HV-CIPS-1 Containment Instrument Room Purge Supply Fan trips.
b. Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-101 through VCR-106 close.
HV-CPS-1/2 Containment Purge Supply Fans 1 and 2 trip.
HV-CPX-1/2 Containment Purge Exhaust Fans 1 and 2 trip.
c. Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-201 through VCR-206 close.
HV-CIPX-1 Containment Instrument Room Purge Exhaust Fan trips.
d. Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-201 through VCR-206 close.
HV-CPS-1/2 Containment Purge Supply Fans 1 and 2 trip.
HV-CPX-1/2 Containment Purge Exhaust Fans 1 and 2 trip.

a. CORRECT While Operating in the Clean-UP mode the Radiation Monitor switches are unblocked allowing actuations. These are the automatic actions from the ERS-1305 monitor.

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Given the following conditions :
• The North Spent Fuel Pit (SFP) Pump is stopped with the discharge valve closed.
• The North Spent Fuel Pit Pump suction header ruptures.
Which ONE of the following describes how far the SFP level would drop before the operating SFP pump loses suction?
The level would drop approximately _________ below the normal water level.
a. 4 inches
b. 19 inches
c. 6 feet
d. 19 feet

b. CORRECT. The SFP is designed and located to minimize the probability and effects of pipe ruptures. The suction for the SFP Cooling System ~19 inches below the normal SFP water level elevation to prevent draining of the SFP in the event of a suction line break.

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As an irradiated fuel assembly is being lifted with the Spent Fuel Handling Crane, R-5, the Spent Fuel Pool Fuel Handling Building area radiation monitor, goes into HIGH alarm.
Which ONE of the following describes the automatic actions associated with this alarm?
a. Fuel Handling Area Supply Fans 12-HV-AFS-1, 2, 3, 4 – START
AFX Filter Bypass Dampers – OPEN
AFX Filter Outlet Dampers - OPEN
b. Spent Fuel Handling Crane upward motion is BLOCKED.
c. Fuel Handling Area Supply Fans 12-HV-AFS-1, 2, 3, 4 – TRIP
AFX Filter Bypass Dampers - Remain as is.
AFX Filter Outlet Dampers - Remain as is.
d. Control Room (CR) A/C Intake Dampers HV-ACRDA-1, 1A – CLOSE
CR Pressurization Outside Air Intake Dampers HV-ACRDA-2, 2A – OPEN
CR Pressurization Recirc Damper HV-ACRDA-3 - OPEN

c. CORRECT On HIGH Alarm, R-5 will cause the Fuel Handling Supply fans to trip and the Charcoal Filter to align (Bypass closes, Outlet opens). However, when fuel movement is taking place the charcoal filter is required to be in service and bypass dampers closed.

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Given the following conditions on Unit 1:
• A reactor heatup is in progress, per OHP-4021-001-001, Plant Heatup from Cold Shutdown to Hot Standby.
• RCS temperature is stable at 485°F.
Which ONE of the following will automatically close the Steam Generator Stop Valves?
a. Steam line pressure has lowered to 500 psig.
b. Manual Containment Spray (CTS) actuation.
c. Containment pressure 1.1 psig on 2/3 channels.
d. High Steam Flow of 1.7e+6 pph.

d. CORRECT. The plant is less than P-12, so the high steam flow isolation from high steam flow is enabled.

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With Unit 1 operating at 100% power, FPC-250A, Channel A Feed Pump Discharge Header Pressure, begins to drift LOW in comparison with FPC-250B, Channel B Feed Pump Discharge Header Pressure.
Which ONE of the following describes the response of the Main Feed Pumps assuming both feed pumps are operating in AUTOMATIC Differential Pressure (DP) control?
a. No change in Feed Pump DP since the program uses the highest of the two channels to control Feed Pump DP.
b. No change in Feed Pump DP since FPC-250A is automatically disabled upon a deviation.
c. Actual Feed Pump DP rises slowly since the AVERAGE of FPC-250A and FPC-250B is used for indicated Feed Pump DP.
d. Actual Feed Pump DP rises slowly since the LOWER of FPC-250A and FPC-250B is used for indicated Feed Pump DP.

d. CORRECT Lowest reading of FPC is used to be conservative on delta-p input when compared to highest UPC-101 reading. This would speed up MFP and raise delta-p.

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Given the following plant conditions on Unit 2:
• The unit is at 50% power.
• East and West Main Feed Pumps (MFPs) are running.
• North and South Condensate Booster Pumps (CBPs) are running.
Then the following alarms are received:
• Ann. 216, Drop 72, CNDST BOOSTER PUMP MOTOR OVERLOAD TRIP.
• Ann. 216, Drop 73, CNDST BOOSTER PUMP DISCH PRESSURE LOW.
• Ann. 215, Drop 41, FEEDPUMP SUCTION HEADER PRESSURE LOW.
Which ONE of the following describes the required operator actions?
a. Manually start the standby Hotwell Pump and then the Middle CBP.
b. Verify that the standby Hotwell Pump and the Middle CBP have both automatically started.
c. Manually start the Middle CBP and fully open CRV-224, Low Pressure Heater Bypass Valve.
d. Verify that the Middle CBP has automatically started and dispatch an operator to locally check CRV-224, Low Pressure Heater Bypass Valve position.

d. CORRECT. The middle CBP should auto start and CRV-224 should be checked locally to verify position.

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The following plant conditions exist: Unit 2 is at 9% power with the Main Turbine rolling at 1800 rpm. East Main Feedwater Pump (MFP) is supplying main feedwater to the Steam Generators (SG). Auxiliary Feed Water (AFW) pumps are aligned in Auto. All operating condensate booster pumps trip. Which ONE of the following describes the system response and required operator action? a. MFPs--Immediate Trip MDAFW Pumps Start from MFP trip Reactor Trip--On low low SG level Enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection b. MFPs--Immediate Trip MDAFW Pumps Start & Turbine Trips from AMSAC Enter OHP-4022-001-002, Loss of Load (Load Rejection) c. MFPs--Trip after 5 sec. Delay MDAFW Pumps Start from MFP trip Reactor Trip--On low low SG level Enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection d. MFPs--Trip after 5 sec. Delay MDAFW Pumps Start & Turbine Trips from AMSAC Enter OHP-4022-001-002, Loss of Load (Load Rejection)

c. CORRECT. The MFPs will trip after FW suction pressure has lowered to <180 psig for 5 seconds. The trip of the Main FW pumps will cause the MDAFW pumps to start. The delayed trip of the FW pumps and the current power level will cause SG levels to Lower to the low low SG level reactor trip setpoint. After the reactor is tripped E-0 is entered.

Given the following: • Unit 1 experienced a reactor trip from 100% power. • The crew is currently taking actions in 1-OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response. • Steam generator levels are being maintained at 40% with both Motor Driven AFW pumps. • Unit 1 CST level is at 25% and rapidly lowering. • Unit 2 CST is at 89% and stable. • ESW headers are available to both units. • The Makeup Water plant is available. You have just received a call in the control room that a forklift has punctured the side of Unit 1 CST. Based on the given conditions, if CST level lowers to ____ then the operator should align the AFW pumps suction to the alternate suction source starting with __________ a. 10%, Unit 1 Hotwell supply. b. 10%, Makeup Water Plant. c. 15%, the Emergency ESW supply. d. 15%, the opposite Unit CST.

d. CORRECT Per the foldout page for ES-0.1, Switchover to alternate suction source for AFW should begin at 15% in the CST. If the CST is determined to NOT be intact then the operator is directed to go straight to CST crosstie with the opposite unit.

The following plant conditions exist: • 100% power. • No equipment out of service. • The Unit Auxiliary Transformers are supplying all plant equipment. • An operator noted that the closed light for 1A7, Normal Feed Breaker to Bus 1A, was NOT lit. • The light bulb was verified as good. Which ONE of the following statements describes the condition for this breaker? a. Breaker 1A7 cannot be remotely opened with the control switch. b. An overload condition will cause breaker 1A7 to trip open. c. A generator trip will cause breaker 1A7 to trip open. d. Breaker 1A7 cannot be locally tripped.

a. CORRECT With the Close Light extinguished a loss of DC control power is indicated. This will prevent breaker operations with the control switch.

The following plant conditions exist: • Unit 2 is at 100% power, steady state conditions. • A POSITIVE 250V ground exists on DC Bus 2CD. If a NEGATIVE 250V ground also occurs on Bus 2CD, which ONE of the following describes the Plant response and the required operator actions? (Assume ground is on the bus bar) a. The DC bus fuses will blow causing a complete loss of DC 2CD busses resulting in a Reactor Trip. Perform actions of OHP-4023-E-0, OHP-4023-ES-0.1 and OHP-4022-082-002CD to stabilize the plant. b. The Positive and Negative ground will balance out the circuit, however many relays will actuate causing a Reactor Trip. Perform actions of OHP-4023-E-0, OHP-4023-ES-0.1 and OHP-4022-082-002CD to stabilize the plant. c. The DC bus fuses will blow causing a complete loss of DC 2CD busses. The Reactor will NOT Trip. Perform actions of OHP-4022-082-002CD to stabilize the plant. d. The Positive and Negative ground will balance out the circuit, however many relays will fail to actuate if required. The Reactor will NOT Trip. Perform actions of OHP-4022-082-002CD and begin a Unit shutdown.

a. CORRECT The complete ground on opposite busses will cause the fuse to blow and the loss of DC Bus 2CD. The Loss of either DC bus causes a reactor trip due to the RCP Under Frequency. [Note grounds of the same magnitude will typically cause the ground detection circuit to null out. This is true for all size grounds, but full grounds will also cause excessive current flow (similar to a direct short) which will result in a blown fuse.]

If the Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) Day Tank level is unexpectedly lowering, which ONE of the following is the LOWEST of the listed quantities of fuel oil remaining in the Day Tank that will maintain the EDG OPERABLE per Technical Specifications? a. 430 gallons. b. 210 gallons. c. 110 gallons. d. 60 gallons.

c. CORRECT TS requires 101.4 gallons (Low alarm 103~).

The in-service gas decay tank is being switched to another tank. At the Waste Disposal System (WDS) panel you receive the Annunciator Panel 128 Drop 28, AUTO GAS ANALYZER, alarm. A few minutes later you receive the following Annunciator Panel 128 alarms: • Drop 10, WASTE GAS ANALYZER OXYGEN HIGH • Drop 15, WASTE GAS ANALYZER O2 EXT HIGH Drop 28 occurred ______, and Drops 10 and 15 occurred _______. a. during the GDT tank transfer; because there is high O2 in the in-service tank. b. because the analyzer is removed from service before the tanks are switched; due to the analyzer being placed back in service. c. after the GDT tank transfer; due to the analyzer being placed back in service. d. because the analyzer is removed from service before the tanks are switched; because there is high O2 in the in-service tank.

a. CORRECT Per Panel 128 Drop 28 alarm response this alarm is expected during component position changes such as switching in-service GDTs. Drop 10 and Drop 15 will alarm when high O2 is sensed in the in-service GDT which has been aligned per 12-OHP-4021-023-001, Operation of the Waste Gas System.

The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 was in Mode 1. • A Containment Pressure Relief was in progress with the following lineup: • VCR-107, Cntmt Press Relief Valve IC - OPEN • VCR-207, Cntmt Press Relief Valve OC - OPEN • HV-CPR-1, CNTMT Press Relief Fan - RUNNING • A HIGH alarm on VRS-1101, Upper Containment Normal Range Monitor, occurs. Which ONE of the following describes the required operator response for the Containment Pressure Relief System due to the failure alarm? a. Manually close VCR-107. Verify VCR-207 has automatically closed. Manually trip HV-CPR-1. b. Verify VCR-107 has automatically closed. Manually close VCR-207. Manually trip HV-CPR-1. c. Verify VCR-107 has automatically closed. Verify VCR-207 has automatically closed. Verify HV-CPR-1 has automatically tripped. d. Verify VCR-107 has automatically closed. Verify VCR-207 has automatically closed. Manually trip HV-CPR-1

b. CORRECT Correct Actions for failure of the VRS-1101. VCR-107 is closed by the VRS-1101.

Given the following conditions on Unit 1: • Containment Purge System is operating in the VENTILATION MODE. • A HIGH alarm on VRS-1505, Auxiliary Building Ventilation Noble Gas Activity Monitor, occurs (unplanned). Which ONE of the following describes the required operator response for the Containment Ventilation System to the High alarm? a. Stop the Containment Purge and consult with Radiation Protection prior to restarting the system. b. Continue the Purge as long as VRS-1101, Containment Normal Range Area Radiation Monitor still indicating as expected. c. Verify the following: Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-101 through VCR-106 close; HV-CPS-1/2, Containment Purge Supply Fans 1 and 2, trip; HV-CPX-1/2, Containment Purge Exhaust Fans 1 and 2, trip; HV-CPR-1, Containment Pressure Relief Fan, trips; HV-CIPS-1, Containment Instrument Room Purge Supply Fan, trips. d. Verify the following: Containment ventilation isolation valves VCR-201 through VCR-206 close; HV-CPS-1/2, Containment Purge Supply Fans 1 and 2, trip; HV-CPX-1/2, Containment Purge Exhaust Fans 1 and 2, trip; HV-CPR-1, Containment Pressure Relief Fan, trips; HV-CIPX-1, Containment Instrument Room Purge Exhaust Fan, trips.

a. CORRECT. When the Containment Purge system is operating in the Ventilation Mode, the automatic isolation signals are blocked. The procedure requires the Purge to be stopped and radiation protection concurrence prior to restarting the system.

Units 1 and 2 are at 100% power. The following conditions exist: • Unit 1 has experienced several fuel pin failures. • A leak must be repaired on a pipe at the end of the Aux. Bldg. 601 ft. elev. Pipe tunnel. • The general area dose rate in the location of the repair is 300 mrem/hr. • In order to reach the location of the repair the worker must transit through a 8 Rem/hr high radiation area for 3 minutes and return via the same path. • The worker currently has a Cook Plant accumulated annual dose of 200 mrem. Which ONE of the following is the maximum allowable time that the worker can participate in the repairs and NOT exceed the Site TEDE Administrative Dose Limit? a. 200 minutes b. 280 minutes c. 360 minutes d. 400 minutes

a. CORRECT The candidate should determine that the ADL is 2000 mrem. Transient exposure is 800 mrem (8000mrem/hr x 6/60hr). (transit to and from the job). (Current) 200 mrem + (transit) 800 mrem = 1000 mrem ADL of 2000 mrem - 1000 mrem = 1000 mrem allowable before reaching ADL. 1000 mrem /300 mrem/hr = 3.33 hours

``` Given the following: • U1 'W' ESW Pump is Running. • U2 'W' ESW Pump is Running. • U1 'E' ESW Pump is in Standby. • U2 'E' ESW Pump is in Standby. If the U2 'W' ESW Pump motor fails, the _______ will be supplied with cooling water from the _______. a. 2E CCW Hx, 2E ESW pump b. 2E CCW Hx, 1E ESW pump c. 2W CCW Hx, 2E ESW pump d. 2W CCW Hx, 1E ESW pump ```

d. CORRECT The ESW System normally operates with two of four ESW pumps running, one pump supplying a header on each unit. Either the Unit 1 East or Unit 2 West Pumps supply the Unit 1 East Header and the Unit 2 West Header. Either the Unit 1 West or Unit 2 East Pump supplies the Unit 1 West Header and the Unit 2 East Header. A low ESW header pressure at 40 psig will start the standby pump (if in auto).

The Plant and Control Air Systems are aligned as follows: • Unit 1 Plant Air Compressor (PAC) is running loaded. • Unit 2 PAC is in standby (Auto) alignment. • Both Control Air Compressors (CACs) are in standby (Auto) alignment. The following events occur: • Unit 1 PAC trips. • Unit 1 "PAC OVERLOAD TRIP" alarm annunciates. If air header pressure drops continuously, in what order will the following automatic actions occur? • 1) Plant Air Header Crosstie Valves CLOSE • 2) Control Air Compressors (CACs) START • 3) U-2 Plant Air Compressor (PAC) STARTS The above actions occur in the order… a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3, 2 c. 3, 2, 1 d. 3, 1, 2

c. CORRECT. The PAC will start first and attempt to restore pressure, if it fails the CAC will start, if that also fails the air header will isolate to section off the leak.

The control room has been evacuated per 2-OHP-4025-001-001, Emergency Remote Shutdown. The crew has performed 2-OHP-4025-LS-6-1, Seal Injection from CVCS Cross-Tie. Which ONE of the following describes the source and method of monitoring borated water addition? Prior to aligning RHR for shutdown cooling, RCS boration is accomplished by … a. manually aligning Unit 1 Boric Acid makeup to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by Unit 1 Boric Acid flow recorder. b. locally aligning Unit 2 Boric Acid makeup to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by Boric Acid Flow indicator on the Local Instrument Panel. c. manually aligning Unit 1 CCP suction to the RWST to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by the sum of local seal injection flows added to the Unit 1/2 CCP Crosstie Flow indicator. d. manually aligning Unit 1 CCP suction to the RWST to feed Unit 2 through the crosstie. Flow is tracked by the Unit 1/2 CCP Crosstie Flow indicator.

d. CORRECT Prior to initiating the Unit Crosstie, Unit 1 is directed to trip the unit and align CCP suction to the RWST. The Total flow from Unit 1 to Unit 2 is indicated on the Unit 1/2 CCP Crosstie Flow indicator.

The control room crew has just completed immediate actions of 2-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection and completed transition to 2-OHP-4023-E-1, Loss Of Reactor Or Secondary Coolant. The Balance of Plant Operator notes Critical Safety Function Status as follows: • Subcriticality - GREEN • Core Cooling - YELLOW • Heat Sink - GREEN • Integrity - YELLOW The Shift Manager checks containment conditions to determine if the containment barrier is intact. The following conditions exist: • Containment pressure: 8 psig and slowly rising • Containment water level "Flood Level" lights: LIT • Containment Radiation: 8.0 R/hr and stable • All Containment Phase A & B penetrations are isolated Given these conditions, what is the correct crew response? Attachment Provided a. Transition to 2-OHP-4023-FR-Z.2, Response to Containment Flooding b. Transition to 2-OHP-4023-FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure c. Remain in 2-OHP-4023-E-1, Yellow Path Functional Restoration Procedures are entered on discretion only. d. Remain in 2-OHP-4023-E-1, until first transition at which time Functional Restoration Procedures become applicable.

b. CORRECT Containment conditions generate an ORANGE path containment CSF status tree. Per rules of usage an orange path requires transition to appropriate FRP. In this case FR-Z.1 is the correct procedure.

``` A malfunction of the Containment Chilled Water (CHW) system has resulted in a partial loss of CHW flow to the Containment Ventilation Units. Under this condition, which ONE of the following sets of containment readings would result in Unit 2 containment still being within Technical Specification limits? a. Pressure is 0.18 PSIG, Upper containment temperature 97°F, Lower containment temperature 110°F. b. Pressure is 0.35 PSIG, Upper containment temperature 105°F, Lower containment temperature 97°F. c. Pressure is 0.15 PSIG, Upper containment temperature 105°F, Lower containment temperature 105°F. d. Pressure is -1.55 PSIG, Upper containment temperature 97°F, Lower containment temperature 115°F. ```

a. CORRECT. LCO 3.6.4 Containment pressure shall be > -1.5 psig and < +0.3 psig. LCO 3.6.5 Containment average air temperature shall be: >60°F and < 100°F for the containment upper compartment and >60°F and < 120°F for the containment lower compartment.

Given the following conditions: Unit 1 tripped from 100% power. • Pressurizer (PRZ) PORV NRV-151 opens and sticks partially open. • The associated PORV Block Valve could NOT be closed. • Pressurizer Relief Tank (PRT) pressure rose to the point that the Rupture Disc ruptured. • Safety Injection actuated and filled the pressurizer (water solid). • The crew is currently performing OHP-4023-ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. The PRZ PORV leakage was estimated at 100 gpm when the Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure was at 2000 psig with PRT pressure reading 3 psig. (assume water solid conditions) Which ONE of the following is the approximate current leak rate if RCS pressure is 1000 psig with PRT pressure reading 3 psig? Assume: NRV-151 position has not changed. a. Approximately 25 gpm b. Approximately 50 gpm c. Approximately 70 gpm d. Approximately 100 gpm

c. CORRECT Break flow is Proportional to the Square Root of the Pressure Differential. Flow is ~70% of initial or 70 gpm Flow Int. = 100GPM ~ Square Root (2000-3) = 44.67 Flow FINAL = X GPM ~ Square Root (1000-3) = 31.57 Flow FINAL = X GPM = 31.57/44.67 times 100 GPM = 70.7 gpm

Unit 2 is responding to a Small Break LOCA in accordance with OHP-4023-ES-1-2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. Step 14 directs the operators to check if a Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) should be started. Given the following indications: • Panel 207, Drops 14, 34, 74, & 94, RCP SEAL OUTLET TEMP HIGH alarms - LIT. • No. 1 seal leakoff temperatures are 208°F. Which ONE of the following best describes the restoration or non-restoration of RCP seal cooling and the requirements for RCP start? a. Slowly restore seal cooling, limiting the cooldown rate to 1°F/minute. Do NOT start the RCP until seal leakoff temperatures are less than 200°F. b. Do NOT restore seal cooling. If seal leakoff flow is acceptable, the RCP may be used for a forced circulation cooldown and depressurization of the plant. c. Restore seal cooling as soon as possible to minimize the potential for seal degradation. The RCP should be started to minimize the potential for shaft warpage. d. Do NOT restore seal cooling due to potential damage from thermal shock to the RCP seals. Do NOT start the RCP until the Reactor Coolant System (RCS) has cooled the seals and an evaluation is completed.

d. CORRECT If all seal cooling has been lost long enough that the maximum RCP seal parameters identified in the RCP Vendor Manual have been exceeded, seal injection and CCW thermal barrier cooling should not be re-established to the affected RCP(s). Seal cooling should instead be restored by cooling the RCS, which will reduce the temperature of the water flowing through the pump seals.

After a large break LOCA, recirculation is transferred from cold leg recirculation to hot leg recirculation. Which ONE of the following is the primary reason hot leg recirculation is used at this point rather than continuing to use cold leg recirculation? a. To prevent boron precipitation in the core. b. To cool the upper head and reduce thermal stresses. c. To flush any "hard bubble" of noncondensible gasses out of the head. d. To collapse any voids that have formed on the coolant side of the steam generator tubes.

a. CORRECT The transfer to hot leg recirculation is made to prevent the plate out of boron on heat transfer surfaces.

Given the following conditions: • Unit 1 is in Mode 4 during cooldown per OHP-4021-001-004, Plant Cooldown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown. • West Residual Heat Removal (RHR) Pump and Heat Exchanger are operating, aligned to the cooldown path through injection lines to Cold Legs Loops 2 & 3. • Reactor Coolant System (RCS) temperature is 300°F and stable. • RCS pressure is 335 psig and stable. The air supply line to IRV-320, West RHR Hx Outlet Valve, breaks, causing a complete loss of Instrument Air to the valve. Which ONE of the following describes the effect on the RCS and Component Cooling Water (CCW) system? a. The RCS Cooldown rate and CCW temperatures will both LOWER. b. The RCS Cooldown rate will RISE and CCW temperatures will LOWER. c. The RCS Cooldown rate and CCW temperatures will both RISE. d. The RCS Cooldown rate and CCW temperatures will both REMAIN THE SAME.

c. CORRECT IRV-320 fails open on loss of air. This will raise RHR flow through the HX causing the RCS return temperature to lower and more heat transfer to CCW.

After indications of a lowering Component Cooling Water (CCW) Surge tank level the crew entered 2-OHP-4022-016-001, Malfunction of the CCW System. The Crew has started the West CCW pump, split the East and West Headers, and identified that the leak is downstream of 2-CMO-410, East CCW HX Outlet Valve. The East CCW pump is shutdown and Attachment A is performed to isolate the CCW leak. In this alignment, the West CCW pump will supply cooling to the West Safeguards Header and the … a. East Safeguards Header. The Miscellaneous Services Header will also be supplied through the crosstie. b. Miscellaneous Services Header. The East Safeguards Header will be WITHOUT Cooling. c. East Safeguards Header. The Miscellaneous Services Header will be WITHOUT Cooling. d. Miscellaneous Services Header. The East Safeguards Header will be crosstied to Unit 1 CCW Cooling.

b. CORRECT The Miscellaneous Services Header is aligned to only the West CCW header when the trains are split. The East CCW header must be isolated to isolate the leak.

The Unit is operating at 100% power with the following conditions: • Pressurizer PRESS CTRL SELECTOR switch is in the Channel 1-2 position. • NPP-153, Channel 3 Pressurizer Pressure, failed HIGH four minutes ago. • RU-27, PRZ Pressure Controller has just failed to 100%. Assuming NO operator actions, how will the failure of the Pressurizer Pressure Master Control to 100% demand affect pressurizer pressure? a. No PORVs will open. Pressurizer heaters will energize. Pressure will rise to the reactor trip setpoint. b. PORV NRV-152 remains CLOSED and NRV-153 and 151 will OPEN. Pressure will lower to the backup heater setpoint. Pressurizer heaters will energize. c. Pressurizer sprays will open. PORV NRV-152 will OPEN and NRV-153 and 151 will remain CLOSED. Pressure will lower to the reactor trip setpoint. d. Pressurizer sprays will open. No PORVs will open. Pressure will lower to the reactor trip setpoint.

d. CORRECT The indications given represent a failure high of 2-RU-27, PRZ Press Control. This will cause the spray valves to open, the high pressure alarm and actual pressure to lower. The pressure master controls all heaters, pressurizer spray and PORV NRV-152 & but it is not armed (from Channel 4). With the RU 27 Demand at 100% the signal is sent to Open the Sprays fully (and PORV NRV-152 except it is not armed). This will result in Lowering PRZ Pressure. The heaters will not energize since the Signal from RU-27 remains high.

``` Given the following condition: The crew is implementing OHP-4023-FR-S.1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS Which ONE of the following combinations of breaker positions indicate that the reactor has been tripped? Note: The Motor Generator INPUT Breakers are both closed. RTA = Reactor Trip Breaker A RTB = Reactor Trip Breaker B BYA = Reactor Trip Bypass Breaker A BYB = Reactor Trip Bypass Breaker B MGN Output = MG North output Breaker MGS Output = MG South output Breaker LEGEND: X = CLOSED; O = OPEN RTA RTB BYA BYB MGN MGS a. X X O O X O b. X O O X O X c. O X X O X X d. X O X O X X ```

d. CORRECT. With both RTB and BYB open, the MG set output supply to the rod coils is interrupted, which will result in the rods dropping into the core (a reactor trip).

Given the following plant conditions on Unit 2: • The unit is in Mode 6 with refueling activities in progress. • Containment purge is in service. • A fuel element is accidentally dropped into the cavity. • All radiation monitor TRIP/BLOCK switches are in their NORMAL position. • The Manipulator Crane area radiation monitor has a HIGH radiation alarm. • Containment Radiation Monitors show a rise but no alarms have actuated. (Assume: All equipment responds as designed.) Which ONE of the following actions would occur, assuming that operators follow the instructions of 12-OHP-4022-018-004, Irradiated Fuel Handling Accident In Containment Building - Control Room? a. Verify containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically. Verify containment purge stops automatically. b. Containment evacuation alarm is manually actuated by the control room operator. Verify containment purge stops automatically. c. Verify containment evacuation alarm sounds automatically. Containment purge is stopped manually by the control room operator. d. Containment evacuation alarm is manually actuated by the control room operator. Containment purge is stopped manually by the control room operator.

d. CORRECT. 12-OHP-4022-018-004, Step 1 directs the operator to actuate the Containment Evacuation alarm. For the protection of personnel, it is important to evacuate the affected area until radiation surveys can be completed. Step 2 follows up the alarm with a page announcement notifying all non-essential personnel to evacuate the containment. Steps 5 through 9 verify the containment purge and pressure relief systems are shutdown and isolated. This will limit the exposure of personnel outside containment.

A Steam Generator Tube Rupture (SGTR) has occurred and 2-OHP-4023-E-3, SGTR procedure, is being performed. The crew has isolated the ruptured Steam Generator and has completed the cooldown to a target temperature of <475.6°F. The Unit Supervisor directs you to stabilize Reactor Coolant System (RCS) Temperature and set up Steam Dump Pressure Controller to maintain RCS temperature at approximately 470°F. Which ONE of the following is the correct Steam Dump Pressure Controller setpoint required to maintain RCS temperature at approximately 470°F? a. 446 psig b. 500 psig c. 530 psig d. 543 psig

b. CORRECT 514.67 psia is Psat for 470°F. The Controller would need to be set at 500 psig. (514.67 -14.7 = 500).

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 1 Reactor Trip from 100% power. • A Safety Injection has occurred due to Containment pressure. • Pressurizer level and pressure are lowering rapidly. • Reactor Coolant System temperature is 530°F and lowering. Which ONE of the following is the cause of the above indications? a. Steam Line Break b. Steam Generator Tube Rupture c. Pressurizer Safeties Stuck Open d. Steam Generator Safeties Stuck Open

a. CORRECT High Containment pressure, lowering temperature, pressure and level indicate a Steam Line Break.

Unit 1 and Unit 2 were operating at 100% power with the Unit 1 and Unit 2 East Essential Service Water (ESW) pumps running with the Unit Crossties open. Given the following sequence of events: • Unit 2 tripped due to a turbine Electro-Hydraulic Control oil leak. • Unit 1 remained on line. • The Unit 2 Reserve Transformers are unavailable. • Both Unit 2 Emergency Diesel Generators (EDGs) started. • Buses T21A, T21B, and T21C were energized from the EDGs. • Bus T21D failed to energize. Assuming NO operator actions, which ONE of the following describes the ESW cooling water status for the Unit 2 EDGs? a. 2CD EDG must be tripped immediately as ESW cooling has been lost. b. 2CD EDG has ESW cooling supplied by the Unit 2 West ESW Pump. c. 2AB EDG must be tripped immediately as ESW cooling has been lost. d. 2CD EDG has ESW cooling supplied by the Unit 1 West ESW Pump.

a. CORRECT When bus T21D is lost the Unit 2 East ESW Pump Trips, this will cause a low header pressure condition and automatically start the Unit 1 West ESW pump to Supply U2 East ESW Header. However the normal supply valve for EDG Cooling (Normally closed) will not have power and therefore will not open to supply CD EDG with ESW cooling.

Given the following plant conditions: • The Unit was operating at 100% power when a Small Break LOCA has occurred. • CRID 1 Instrument Bus tripped off just before the reactor trip. • The RO turned both Safety Injection (SI) Actuation switches to ACTUATE on the Pressurizer Panel. Which ONE of the following describes the status of the QMO-225, White SI Signal light and automatic/required manual actions for the QMO-225 East CCP Leak-off Valve? The SI Signal light will … a. be lit since a manual SI has been performed. QMO-225 will cycle with pressure. b. NOT be lit. The RO must manually actuate SI from the Safety Injection Panel switches to cause the light to illuminate and allow the valve to cycle with pressure. c. NOT be lit. The RO must manually close QMO-225 if RCS pressure lowers below 1812 psig. d. NOT be lit. QMO-225 will cycle with pressure since QMO-226 has the Safety Injection Signal light lit.

c. CORRECT. Since CRID 1 is lost, Train A SSPS output relays will not actuate. This is true regardless of which manual switch is turned. Since the relays do not energize, QMO-225 will not receive the SI signal and will not close on SI with low RCS pressure.

Given the following plant conditions on Unit 2: • The unit was operating at 100%. • The Train 'A' 250 VDC, CRID 1 Inverter DC Input Breaker trips OPEN. Which ONE of the following describes the status of CRID 1 and expected automatic actions, if any? CRID 1 will be … a. energized from its respective 600 VAC alternate supply. The Auto Re-Transfer switch will attempt 1 transfer back to the normal supply if the DC Input breaker is manually reclosed. b. energized from its respective 600 VAC alternate supply. The Auto Re-Transfer switch will attempt 1 reclosure of the DC Input breaker. c. automatically re-energized from CRP-3. The Auto Re-Transfer switch will attempt 1 transfer back to the normal supply if the DC Input breaker is manually reclosed. d. de-energized, but may be manually aligned to CRP-3. The Auto Re-Transfer switch will attempt 1 transfer back to the normal supply if the DC Input breaker is manually reclosed.

a. CORRECT. Auto transfer will occur to the vital bus on a loss of the normal 250 VDC feed to the inverter. The static transfer switch provides a virtual zero time transfer to the alternate source in case of inverter failure. Thirty seconds after the static switch transfer event ceases and all system parameters are normal, the static switch automatically re-transfers the load to the inverter.

Unit 1 has just entered mode 3 following a maintenance outage to replace a leaky fuel assembly. During work on the East RHR pump, an accidental spill causes radiation levels to increase. The following radiation channels have alarmed: • ERA-7305 U1 East RHR Pump Room - RED • VRS-1505 Unit Vent Effluent Low Range Noble Gas - RED Which ONE of the following is true regarding system operations based on these conditions? a. The Auxiliary Building Supply fans have automatically tripped. b. The AES Fan Charcoal Filter has automatically aligned. c. The AES Fan Charcoal Filter must be manually placed in service. d. The Auxiliary Building Supply fans must be manually tripped.

c. CORRECT. If the alarm actuates on the ERA-7300 pump rooms the Operator is required to place the AES Fan Charcoal Filter test Selector Switch to the CHAR FILT position.

Which ONE of the following describes the Control Room Ventilation System pressurization fan alignment following receipt of a ERS 8401 Control Room Radiation Monitor High alarm? a. Both Unit 1 Control Room Pressurization Fans are RUNNING Both Unit 2 Control Room Pressurization Fans are RUNNING b. Both Unit 1 Control Room Pressurization Fans are STOPPED Both Unit 2 Control Room Pressurization Fans are RUNNING c. Both Units West Control Room Pressurization Fans are RUNNING Both Units East Control Room Pressurization Fans are STOPPED d. Both Units West Control Room Pressurization Fans are STOPPED Both Units East Control Room Pressurization Fans are RUNNING

b. CORRECT. Each Control Room has a Separate Control Room Ventilation System. Each Control Room Has a Separate Radiation Monitor which controls its associated fans. ERS-7400 for Unit 1 and ERS-8400 for Unit 2.

Unit 1 is operating at 100%, steady state condition, when Annunciator Panel 118, Drop 84, ESW PIPE TUNNEL SUMP LEVEL HI-HI, alarm is received. East ESW supply and return flows indicate an abnormal high differential. Unit 2 has reported that 2-OHP-4022-019-001, ESW SYSTEM LOSS/RUPTURE has been implemented. What action(s) would be taken by BOTH Unit control room operators? a. Close affected header unit crosstie valves. b. Align alternate ESW cooling to non affected diesel generators. c. Stop affected header ESW pumps. d. Place associated diesel generators in tripped condition.

a. CORRECT When ESW supply and return flows indicate an abnormal high differential both units are directed to isolate the affected header unit crosstie valves.

Unit 2 is performing OHP-4022-064-002 Loss of Control Air Recovery procedure. All RCPs have been tripped. You are told to initiate a cooldown. Which ONE of the following describes the method used to perform a RCS cooldown and the concerns? Nitrogen must be locally aligned to the Steam Generator (SG) PORVs and then the cooldown is performed by… a. evenly steaming all 4 SGs from the Control Room SG PORV Controllers to prevent uneven cooling which could lead to a SI. b. steaming SGs #1 & 2 from the Control Room SG PORV Controllers to prevent excessive cooldown in the Pressurizer loop which could lead to loss of level. c. directing operators stationed at #1/4 & #2/3 SG PORV Emergency Control Loader valves to evenly steam all 4 SGs to prevent uneven cooling which could lead to a SI. d. directing an operator to steam SGs #1 & 4 from the SG PORV Emergency Control Loader valves to prevent excessive cooldown in the Pressurizer loop which could lead to loss of level.

c. CORRECT The Loss of Air Causes Steam Stops to Fail Closed. After Nitrogen is aligned to the SG PORVs, They must be controlled locally using the SG PORV Emergency Control Loader valves ( Two Stations each with 2 controllers for #21/24 SG PORVs & #22/23 SG PORVs). With the RCPs Stopped the cooldown must be evenly performed to prevent lowering 1 SG pressure below the others. If 1 Pressure is < 100 psig below 2 others an SI signal is generated.

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • A reactor trip occurred from 100% power. • Chemical and Volume Control System (CVCS) Letdown is at 75 gpm. • The operators have transitioned from OHP-4023-E-0 Reactor Trip or Safety Injection to OHP-4023-ES-0.1 Reactor Trip Response. • ERA-8309, Reactor Coolant Filter Room has a high alarm. • ERA-8303, East CCP Room shows a rising trend, but has yet to alarm. • The SRO implements 12-OHP-4022-002-019, High Reactor Coolant Activity or Failed Fuel. Which ONE of the following describes the correct actions to take with the CVCS and the basis for these actions? a. Charging and Letdown are isolated to contain the high radioactivity within the containment building. b. Letdown is diverted to the CVCS HUT to limit radiation levels in the charging pump area. c. Charging and Letdown are maximized through the letdown demineralizers to maximize clean up. d. Excess Letdown is placed in service through the letdown demineralizers to maximize clean up.

c. CORRECT. 12-OHP-4022-002-019 directs the operator to verify Letdown lineup and maximize letdown flow to help reduce RCS Activity.

Given the following plant conditions on Unit 1: • Plant is at 100% power. • Generator output: 1100 MWe. • Generator Reactive MVA Indication: 50 MVAR OUT. • All systems normally aligned. • The Transmission Operator has notified the plant that system grid voltage is high and forecast to go higher. • The Transmission Operator requests the plant to take actions to help stabilize the grid. Which ONE of the following describes the changes that will be required by the operator and the expected indications? The exciter field current will need to be … a. REDUCED causing the Main Generator to become OVER-Excited as indicated by Negative MVARs (VARs IN). b. REDUCED causing the Main Generator to become UNDER-Excited as indicated by Negative MVARs (VARs IN). c. RAISED causing the Main Generator to become OVER-Excited as indicated by Positive MVARs (VARs OUT). d. RAISED causing the Main Generator to become UNDER-Excited as indicated by Positive MVARs (VARs OUT).

b. CORRECT Exciter field current will be lowered to lower voltage leading to Negative MVARS and under-excited conditions.

Following a SBLOCA, you have entered the ECCS flow reduction sequence in OHP-4023-ES-1.2 Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. You are preparing to stop the first CCP. RCS subcooling exactly meets the subcooling table requirements to do this. After you stop the pump, you expect subcooling to: a. Lower more than it will when you isolate the BIT later. b. Lower then return to the original value when pressure stabilizes. c. Lower to the minimum required value then recover with the cooldown. d. Lower to the point at which SI must be reinitiated.

c. CORRECT With break flow now greater than ECCS flow, RCS pressure begins to decrease as inventory decreases and the bubble in the PRZ expands. As RCS pressure decreases, ECCS flow increases and break flow decreases. Eventually a new equilibrium point is reached where the ECCS flow from 1 CCP + SI pumps is equal to the reduced break flow at the new lower equilibrium RCS pressure. The RCS will remain subcooled at this new lower equilibrium pressure.

Given the following conditions: • A LOCA outside containment has resulted in RCS subcooling dropping to 0°F. • The operating crew has entered OHP-4023-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment. Which ONE of the following identifies the expected status of Containment Phase A Isolation, and the parameter used to verify that the LOCA has been isolated in accordance with ECA-1.2? Parameter Monitored Phase A Status for LOCA Isolation a. NOT automatically actuated Pressurizer level rising b. NOT automatically actuated RCS pressure rising c. automatically actuated Pressurizer level rising d. automatically actuated RCS pressure rising

d. CORRECT. The procedure directs the use of RCS pressure increasing as the method used to indicate the leak has been isolated. A Phase A has actuated, since a Safety Injection was automatically initiated due to low RCS pressure resulting from the LOCA.

The crew has entered OHP-4023-FR-C-2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling. The following conditions exist: • RCS Hot Leg Temperatures are 300°F. • Reactor Vessel Level Indication System (RVLIS) NR indications are 37%. Which ONE of the following would be most effective in restoring core cooling? a. Depressurizing SGs to Atmospheric Pressure. b. Aligning BIT flow from the Opposite Unit. c. Starting a Residual Heat Removal Pump. d. Starting a Reactor Coolant Pump.

c. CORRECT An RHR pump will provide the greatest injection flow to restore inventory and thus will restore core cooling. At this temperature with the RCS Saturated, pressure will be less than 60 psig resulting in ~3000 gpm from the RHR pump.

Given the following events and conditions: • Unit 1 is responding to a steam break inside containment while at full power. • All systems operate as designed. • Narrow range Steam Generator (SG) level is 15% for each intact SG. • AFW flow is 40 X 103 lbm/hr to each intact SG. • The Reactor Coolant Pumps (RCP) were tripped. The crew entered OHP-4023-FR-P-1, Response to Imminent Pressurized Thermal Shock Condition, due to low temperature: • RCS temperature is now stable. • RCS pressure is stable with only the control group of pressurizer heaters energized. • Letdown has been restored . • The crew has determined that a one-hour soak is required. Which ONE of the following evolutions could be performed by the crew in the next hour while continuing through the procedures? a. Start #13 RCP. b. Place auxiliary spray in service. c. Raise AFW flow to one intact SG to raise NR level to >25%. d. Commence a 25°F/hour cooldown to Mode 5.

b. CORRECT Any actions that will NOT cause either a cooldown or a pressure rise and are specified by any other procedure in effect are permitted during this soak period.

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • The plant was operating steady-state at 100% power. • A Reactor Trip and Safety Injection have occurred due to a LOCA outside containment. • The crew has performed all the applicable procedure steps of OHP-4023-ECA-1.2, LOCA Outside Containment. • The LOCA has NOT been isolated, and OHP-4023-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, has been implemented. Which ONE of the following states the basis for cooling the Reactor Coolant System (RCS) at a maximum cooldown rate during the implementation of OHP-4023-ECA-1.1? The cooldown rate will… a. prevent void formation in the head. b. minimize offsite releases due to this event. c. ensure adequate shutdown margin is maintained. d. limit the depletion of the Condensate Storage Tank (CST).

b. CORRECT. By reducing the overall temperature of the RCS (including metal), a reduction of the need for supporting systems and equipment needed to remove heat is obtained. This action will minimize any offsite releases during the event.

Unit 1 experienced a large break LOCA. The following conditions exist: • E RHR Pump is tagged out for maintenance. • Containment pressure is stable at 9 psig. • RWST level has lowered to less than 25%. The crew has performed OHP-4023-FR-Z.1, Response to High Containment Pressure. The crew implemented OHP-4023-ECA-1.1, Loss of Emergency Coolant Recirculation, after the Recirc Sump to West RHR/CTS Pumps' valve (ICM-306) failed CLOSED while attempting to open the valve per OHP-4023-ES-1.3, Transfer to Cold Leg Recirculation. ASSUME: E CTS Pump running on the Recirc. Sump. NOTE: OHP-4023-FR-Z.1 requires both CTS pumps to be in operation, but OHP-4023-ECA-1.1 limits the operators to only one CTS pump. Which ONE of these two procedures takes priority under these conditions and what is the basis for this requirement? a. OHP-4023-FR-Z.1 takes priority because a total loss of RHR causes the CTS system to become relatively more important to reduce containment pressure. b. OHP-4023-FR-Z.1 takes priority because red path FRPs always have priority over ECA procedures. c. OHP-4023-ECA-1.1 takes priority because it conserves RWST water level as long as possible for injection while providing sufficient CTS flow to mitigate containment pressure. d. OHP-4023-ECA-1.1 takes priority because ECA procedures always have priority over FRPs.

c. CORRECT ECA-1 .1 operation of the CTS pumps takes priority over FR-Z.1 in order to limit RWST usage.

Given the following conditions on Unit 1: • The Unit has experienced a rupture of the NESW piping inside containment. The following conditions now exist: • NLI-330/331 MIN RECIRC LEVEL lights are LIT. • NLI-340/341 FLOOD LEVEL lights are LIT. Why is safe plant recovery not assured for a design basis Large Break LOCA when FLOOD LEVEL lights are LIT? a. Operation of critical ECCS components needed for safe recovery is endangered by submersion. b. Operation of the CTS pumps is endangered by excess debris fouling the containment suction strainers. c. Operation of the hydrogen recombiners is compromised by loss of direct access to the containment atmosphere. d. Operation of the RHR system is compromised by high suction pressure.

a. CORRECT. Containment design basis flood level takes into account the entire water contents of the RCS, RWST, Ice condenser ice bed melt, and SI accumulators, plus the added mass of a LOCA and a steam line or feedline break inside containment. NESW and CCW may be major contributors to exceeding "flood" level and causing a loss of equipment required for long term cooling.

Given the following plant conditions: • All shifts are manned to the minimum composition per Technical Specifications. • One RO becomes seriously ill and must be taken to the hospital. • There are four hours left until shift change. Which ONE of the following describes the required actions? a. Action must be taken within one hour to identify a relief operator who will arrive within the following three hours. b. The affected operator must not be allowed to leave site until a relief operator arrives. c. Action must be taken to ensure a relief operator arrives within two hours. d. No action is required since turnover will occur within four hours.

c. CORRECT TS requires that action be taken to find a replacement. The position cannot remain unmanned for greater than 2 hours.

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 1 is shutdown with the RCS at 2085 psig and 547ºF. • Unit 2 is shutdown with the RCS at 325 psig and 170ºF. In addition to the Shift Manager, Unit Supervisors, STA, and WCC-SRO; minimum shift staffing for the station also requires which ONE of the following under the conditions shown above? Attachment Provided Reactor Operators Qualified Operators a. 3 8 b. 4 3 c. 3 4 d. 4 8

d. CORRECT The Conditions place Unit 1 in Mode 3 and Unit 2 In Mode 5. This requires staffing per the second table of Section 3.6 In OHI-4000 Attachment 22.

Core Alterations are in progress on Unit 2. RCS boron concentration has been verified to be 2360 ppm (two samples analyzed). The crew is required to … a. suspend core alterations and positive reactivity changes, and initiate boration. b. suspend core alterations and positive reactivity changes, and establish containment integrity. c. suspend core alterations and remove all personnel from the containment building. d. remove all personnel from the containment building, establish containment integrity, and initiate boration.

a. CORRECT. Technical Specification 3.9.1 requires either Keff

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • Unit is in Mode 1 at 10% • In order to repair broken conduit, power must be removed from the air supply solenoid for MRV-211, SG Stop Valve 1 (MRV-210) Dump Valve. Which ONE of the following identifies the: 1) response of the MRV-210, Steam Generator Stop Valve when power is procedurally removed from the Dump Valve, MRV-211 and, 2) required Technical Specification LCO entry, if any? a. 1) MRV-210 will fail CLOSED 2) Technical Specification entry is required. b. 1) MRV-210 will fail CLOSED 2) Technical Specification entry is NOT required. c. 1) MRV-210 will remain OPEN 2) Technical Specification entry is required. d. 1) MRV-210 will remain OPEN 2) Technical Specification entry is NOT required.

c. C - CORRECT. The Stop Valve will remain open. Removing power from the dump valve solenoid prevents it from opening to dump steam. Tech Spec entry is required since one train of isolation is disabled (3.3.2 and 3.7.2).

Which ONE of the following conditions would require an LCO Action Statement entry for Technical Specification Section 3.6, Containment Systems? a. While in MODE 1, an electrician opens the outer airlock door at the lower containment access without prior approval. b. While in MODE 3, during an inspection of an containment equipment hatch, it is determined that the equipment hatch is NOT sealed. c. While in MODE 4, Containment internal pressure is found to be -0.5 psig prior to placing Containment Purge in service. d. While in MODE 5, during performance of the Overall Integrated Containment Leakage Rate Test, Containment leakage exceeds the maximum allowable Technical Specification leakage rates.

b. CORRECT The airlock door interlocks are required to be operable in Modes 1 - 4 per T.S. 3.6.2.

When changing the configuration of the Aux Building Ventilation System, ___ should be notified to ensure ___. a. the Shift Manager; that management personnel are aware of current Aux Building Ventilation configuration in the event of an accident. b. Maintenance; that the fans are checked for proper operation prior to running for prolonged periods of time. c. Radiation Protection; that the radiological conditions in the Aux Building are appropriately monitored. d. Work Control; that the surveillance requirements for the ventilation systems are up-to-date and remain current.

c. CORRECT In accordance with the Normal Operating Procedure, RP is to be notified whenever the ventilation alignment in the Aux Building has been altered to ensure proper monitoring of radiation levels.

Which ONE of the following will AUTOMATICALLY stop the selected Monitor Tank pump during a liquid release to the Unit 2 Circulating Water System? a. HIGH flow alarm on Liquid Waste Sample Flow channel RFS-1010. b. ALERT alarm on Liquid Waste Effluent channel RRS-1001. c. Loss of all Unit 2 Circulating Water pumps. d. HIGH alarm on Liquid Waste Local Area channel RRA-1003.

a. CORRECT HIGH or LOW sample flow on RFS-1010 will cause the monitor tank pumps to trip. Channel Failure on RRS-1001 or RRR-1002 or a high radiation alarm on RRS-1001 will also cause the pumps to trip.

Which ONE of the following is correct concerning RCP trip criteria and/or RCP operation during a Small Break LOCA event? a. The purpose of the trip criteria is to minimize RWST depletion that would result from the increased mass loss caused by RCP operation. b. The RCPs are tripped because natural circulation flow is a more effective core heat removal mechanism when considering two-phase flow. c. If the RCPs trip prior to break uncovery, more core uncovery will occur than if they are tripped later in the event. d. If the RCPs continued to operate for the duration of the event, sufficient two-phase flow would be available to adequately remove heat from the core.

d. CORRECT If the RCPS remain running heat removal is more effective. Two phase heat removal is more effective but can not be guaranteed.

Which ONE of the following describes the significance of the "GREEN" annunciators in the control room based on the OHI-4000 (Conduct of Operations, Alarm Response) Annunciator Priority System? The Green Lens alarms … a. mean that compensatory actions may be required. b. signify those alarms which are generated by local panels. c. signify those alarms which are expected on a shiftly basis and do not need to be announced. d. indicate alarms which seal-in and require the Reset button to clear once the condition has cleared.

b. CORRECT Green lens indicates local panel alarms.

The Unit 2 reactor failed to automatically trip when the Reactor Coolant Pumps tripped. The following conditions exist after a MANUAL Turbine Trip is attempted per OHP-4023-FR-S-1, Response to Nuclear Power Generation/ATWS step 3: • Turbine Stop Valve Closed Status Lights - 1, 2, and 3 Lit • Turbine Stop Valve Closed Status Lights - 4 NOT Lit • MAIN TURBINE STOP VALVE CLOSED alarm - Lit • AMSAC INITIATED alarm - Lit Which ONE of the following is the NEXT action the operator is required to take? a. Shut the Main Steam Stop Valves. b. Actuate ATWS Turbine Runback. c. Verify AFW Pumps running. d. Manually actuate AMSAC.

b. CORRECT The turbine is verified tripped by checking all 4 status lights closed. The alarms are lit based on 1 stop valve closed and the AMSAC initiated. Since the turbine is not tripped, 2-OHP-4023-FR-S-1 requires that load be manually reduced.

Given the following conditions: • Unit 2 was operating at 100% power. • The West Centrifugal Charging Pump (CCP) was tagged out due to shaft misalignment. • Following a feedwater line break outside containment the crew encountered complications due to a loss of Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW). • The operating crew responded in accordance with the Emergency Operating Procedures and has entered OHP-4023-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink. • When checking if Bleed and Feed is required, the following is noted: • The East CCP just Tripped. • Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure is currently 2280 psig. • All Three Pressurizer PORVs are available. • Steam Generator (SG) levels are: • SG #1: 38% wide range • SG #2: 5% wide range • SG #3: 31% wide range • SG #4: 38% wide range Which ONE of the following identifies the requirement for RCS Bleed and Feed and the subsequent required actions? a. RCS Bleed and Feed cooling must NOT be initiated. Continue with OHP-4023-FR-H.1 steps to perform an immediate secondary depressurization to inject condensate pump flow. b. RCS Bleed and Feed cooling must NOT be initiated. Transition to OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling immediately. c. Immediately initiate RCS Bleed and Feed and then transition to OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling. d. Immediately initiate RCS Bleed and Feed and then continue with OHP-4023-FR-H.1 steps to restore a secondary heat sink.

d. CORRECT Bleed and feed is required immediately since both high head CCPs are lost.

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • Unit is at 100% with Emergency Diesel Generator 2AB out of service due to contaminated fuel oil. • The diesel was declared inoperable at 1100 on 8/15/12. • The Supplemental Diesel Generators are NOT available. • At 1600 on 8/15/12, the plant experiences a trip due to a spurious reactor trip signal generated during Instrument Maintenance testing. • At 2200 on 8/15/12, while maintaining the plant in Hot Standby, Annunciator Panel 204 Drop 86 CCW FROM EAST CCP PUMP FLOW LOW, alarms. • Investigation shows CCW flow to East CCP has been lost due to an apparent valve stem/disc separation. CCW flow to the West CCP is normal. Which ONE of the following describes the status for plant startup? Attachment Provided. Modes 1 and 2 may … a. be entered. Power operations may continue as long as Emergency Diesel Generator 2AB is restored to service by 1100 on 8/18/12. b. be entered. Power operations may continue as long as East CCP is restored to service by 2200 on 8/18/12. c. NOT be entered and must be in Cold Shutdown NO later than 0900 on 8/17/12. d. NOT be entered and must be in Cold Shutdown NO later than 1500 on 8/17/12.

d. CORRECT. With 2AB EDG inoperable, for the West CCP to be considered operable its normal power source must be operable AND the East CCP must be operable. The given condition results in East CCP being inoperable. This places the plant in the requirements of TS 3.8.1 Action B.3 requiring restoration in 4 hours or West CCP is also Inoperable. TS 3.5.2 Action C (2 ECCS Pumps <100% single train flow) requires TS 3.0.3 to be implemented immediately which requires Cold Shutdown in 37 hours. (6 hours to Hot Standby is lost).

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. • Ann. 209, Drop 8, LETDOWN HX OUTLET TEMP HIGH is LIT. • Letdown HX Outlet temperature is 135°F and rising slowly (and has been verified locally). • CRV-470, Letdown Hx Temp Ctrl shows 100% demand and will NOT transfer to MANUAL. Which ONE of the following describes this failure and the required actions to mitigate this event? CRV-470, Letdown Heat Exchanger Temperature Control Valve has failed… a. CLOSED. If temperature continues to rise, direct the operator to place QRV-302, Cold Letdown Path Select to the RC Filter Position, Close the Reactor Coolant Normal Letdown Isolation Valves, and Place Excess Letdown in service per 2-OHP-4021-003-001, Letdown, Charging And Seal Water Operation. b. CLOSED. Raise Charging flow by adjusting QRV-200, Charg Hdr Press Ctrl, and QRV-251, CCP Disch Flow Ctrl. and enter 2-OHP-4022-016-001, Malfunction Of The CCW System to address this failure. c. OPEN. Place divert valve QRV-303, VCT/ Holdup Tk Inlet Selector, to CVCS Hold Up Tanks and borate the RCS per 2-OHP-4021-005-002, Operation of the Boric Acid Blender to counteract the dilution effects. d. OPEN. Place divert valve QRV-303, VCT/ Holdup Tk Inlet Selector, to CVCS Hold Up Tanks and borate the RCS per 2-OHP-4021-005-007, Operation Of Emergency Boration Flow Paths to counteract the dilution effects

a. CORRECT. Rising temperature indicates that the cooling valve has failed CLOSED. The demins will need to be bypassed, letdown removed from service, and excess letdown used.

Given the following plant conditions on Unit 2: • Reactor power is 12%. • The controlling Pressurizer (PRZ) Pressure Channel slowly fails high. • The RO takes manual control of PRZ Pressure Master Controller and Lowers demand. • All PRZ heaters have energized. • RCS pressure is 2075 psig and slowly lowering. • You notice that NRV-163 (PRZ spray) is failed OPEN. • When the RO places NRV-163 in manual it will NOT close. Which ONE of the following is the proper sequence of actions to stop the pressure reduction? a. Trip RCP #3. Dispatch an AEO to locally isolate Spray Valve NRV-163. b. Reduce Power to 8%. Trip RCPs #3 and #4. Dispatch an AEO to locally isolate Spray Valve NRV-163. c. Trip RCP #3. Go to OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection. d. Manually trip the reactor. Go to OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection. Trip RCPs #3 and #4.

d. CORRECT. Three loop operation is not allowed. The RCP#3 & 4 must be stopped to stop the spray flow. Therefore the Reactor must be manually tripped and then the RCPs tripped.

Unit 1 is in MODE 3 preparing for a reactor startup. All shutdown bank rods are withdrawn. I&C informs you that MPC-254 (Main Turbine 1st stage pressure transmitter) must be placed in the test (failed high) position in order to perform work on the transmitter. Which ONE of the following correctly describes your response to this request and the reason? a. Allow Testing. MPC-253 is still indicating properly, so P-13 and P-7 will indicate correctly. b. Do NOT Allow Testing. The reactor trips associated with permissive P-7 would be unblocked. c. Do NOT Allow Testing. The Steam Dumps will close when MPC-254 is placed in the Failed Condition. d. Allow Testing, after placing AMSAC to the Bypass Condition

b. CORRECT P-13 is actuated by 2 of 2 Impulse channels below 10. Failing 1 channel high will remove P-13 which will remove the P-7 Blocks.

Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. The 43-TSAT-2 Thermocouple Selector Switch is selected to use the Auctioneering function. A "Short" has caused ALL of the Train A and Train B Quadrant 1 Core Exit Thermocouples (CET) to Fail. Which ONE of the following describes the operability and the required actions to address the associated Technical Specifications? Attachment Provided The CET Quadrant 1 Instrumentation is INOPERABLE and the RCS Subcooling Margin Monitor (SMM) is … a. OPERABLE. Restore one train of Quadrant 1 CETs within 7 days or be in Mode 3 within 6 hours and Mode 4 within 12 hours. b. OPERABLE. Operation is allowed for up to 30 days or submit a Post Accident Monitoring Report detailing the restoration plan as directed by Specification 5.6.6 . c. INOPERABLE. Select a Quadrant 2,3, or 4 CET to feed the RCS SMM Immediately AND Restore one train of Quadrant 1 CETs within 7 days or be in Mode 3 within 6 hours and Mode 4 within 12 hours. d. INOPERABLE. Restore one train of Quadrant 1 CET (which also restores the RCS SMM) within 30 days or submit a Post Accident Monitoring Report detailing the restoration plan as directed by Specification 5.6.6.

a. CORRECT A CET with a "Short" will indicate LOW (200oF) . There are eight thermocouple signals to the SMM. The operator can select high-select or one of seven of the eight thermocouple signals in order to perform the margin calculation. Since the Stem states that the Switch is in the Auctioneering Function, the failure does not impact the Saturation meter indication. TS. 3.3.3 Action D (two trains) is applicable. Failure to Complete D requires Condition E & F.

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 1 is performing OHP-4021-002 Reactor Start-Up . • Reactor Power is at 3% power . • UPC-101, Bypass Steam Header Pressure, has just failed HIGH. • Annunciator Panel 111 Drop 2 LOOPS 1 2 3 4 TAVG LOW-LOW has just alarmed • The Operator placed the Steam Dump Pressure Control in Manual and reduced demand to 0%. • All Steam Dumps currently indicate closed EXCEPT URV-124 which indicates full open. • RCS temperature is 538°F and lowering. Which ONE of the following describes the required actions? a. Place the "A" and "B" "STEAM DUMP INTLK BYP" switches to "OFF/RESET" to close the Steam Dump Valve and restore RCS Temperature to > 541°F within 30 minutes. b. Dispatch operator to isolate the steam dump valve locally and restore RCS Temperature to > 541°F within 30 minutes. c. Place the "A" and "B" "STEAM DUMP INTLK BYP" switches to "OFF/RESET" to close the Steam Dump Valve and slowly withdraw Control Bank D until Tave is > 541°F. d. Immediately trip the reactor and go to OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection.

d. CORRECT OHP-4021-002 Reactor Start-Up Step 3.12 states that criticality shall NOT be maintained with Tave < 539°F. So the Reactor Should be Tripped. Atmospheric dumps have local isolation valves. The Steam Dumps receive a close signal when Tave is < 541°F. This can be bypassed for Group 1 only. TS 3.4.2 requires Tave to be > 541°F when the reactor is critical. This must be restored within 30 minutes.

Given the following conditions: • Unit 1 is at 25% power with the Steam Dump System in the Tavg Mode. • The South NESW pump out of service for maintenance. • Annunciators associated with low NESW header pressure are received. • The crew has closed 1-WMO-906 (Pump Discharge Hdr Xtie to Unit 2). • NESW Header pressure is observed to be less than normal. • The Unit 1 Turbine Tour AEO reports water spilling from the common 10" supply line to the Unit 1 Main Turbine Lube Oil Coolers. (Leakage is being collected in floor drains). Which ONE of the following describes the correct course of action? Prompt action should be taken to … Attachment Provided a. Trip the reactor and go to 1-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip and Safety Injection. Transition to 1-OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip. Trip the Main Turbine and Main Feed Pumps and then break condenser vacuum. b. Trip the Main Turbine and Main Feed Pumps Break condenser vacuum. Stop Main Turbine Lube Oil Pumps c. Stop and lockout the Unit 1 North NESW pump, and close its suction and discharge valves. Trip the reactor and go to 1-OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip and Safety Injection. Transition to 1-OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip. Stop all but one RCP d. Request Unit 2 implement 2-OHP-4022-020-001, NESW System Loss/Rupture. Re-open 1-WMO-906 (Pump Discharge Hdr Xtie to Unit 2). Return to 1-OHP-4021-001-006, Power Escalation

b. CORRECT Since power is 25% (

Given the following plant conditions: • A Reactor trip from 100% power has occurred on Unit 1. • OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, is being implemented. • Containment pressure is 0.6 psig and stable. • SG NR Levels are offscale low. • RCS pressure is 2150 psig and lowering. • Control Rod H-8 is indicating 32 steps. • All systems responded normally to actuation signals. Which ONE of the following actions must be taken? a. Transition to OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response, and initiate boration for the stuck rod. b. Transition to OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response. Rod H-8 condition is expected so boration is not required for a stuck rod. c. Initiate Safety Injection and continue with OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, as pressurizer pressure is too low. d. Initiate Safety Injection and continue with OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip Or Safety Injection, as Steam Generator levels are too low.

a. CORRECT. Rod H-8 and all rods should be less than 10 steps. Plant conditions do not require a Safety Injection. Boration for the stuck rod is initiated in OHP-4023-ES-0-1, Reactor Trip Response .

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • Reactor is at 100% power. • All control systems are in normal alignment. • Letdown flow is 75 gpm on QFI-301, Letdown Flow Indicator. The following parameters are now noted on the CVCS system: Seal Return Flows are 3 gpm per Reactor Coolant Pump. • Charging flow is 94 gpm and rising. • QTA-160, Regen HX Outlet Temp - Letdown, has risen 25°F from its steady state value. • Volume Control Tank level is 33% and lowering. • Pressurizer level is 55% and lowering slowly. • Reactor Coolant System (RCS) average temperature is 574°F and stable. Which ONE of the following describes the correct leak location AND associated leakage monitoring requirements? The Leakage is from the … a. letdown line between the letdown isolation valves and the orifices valves. This leakage must be monitored as post accident recirculation flowpath leakage, as required by TS 5.5.2, Leakage Monitoring Program. b. charging line between the flow indicator and Containment. This leakage is required to be monitored as RCS leakage, as required by TS 3.4.13 RCS Operational LEAKAGE. c. letdown line between the letdown isolation valves and the orifices valves. This leakage is required to be monitored as RCS leakage, as required by TS 3.4.13 RCS Operational LEAKAGE. d. charging line between the flow indicator and Containment. This leakage must be monitored as post accident recirculation flowpath leakage, as required by TS 5.5.2, Leakage Monitoring Program.

d. CORRECT. Correct location for leak. This leakage would cause a temperature rise on QTA-160, Regen HX Outlet Temp - Letdown due to less charging flow to cool the letdown exiting the RHX. Since charging flow increased from a normal value of 87 GPM to 94 GPM with no other changes the leak rate is approximately 7 GPM and will required isolation of the charging header to isolate the leak.

Given the following conditions on Unit 2: • A reactor startup is in progress with the reactor just critical. • Intermediate Range Power indication has just come online and is 3 x 10-11 amps. • Source Range (SR) nuclear instrumentation channel (N-31) Instrument Power Fuse Blows. Which ONE of the following actions, if any, is required? a. NO action required, source ranges are NOT required to be operable. b. VERIFY Reactor trip and enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Suspend all operations involving positive reactivity changes and restore both SR channels to operability within 48 Hours. c. Conduct a reactor shutdown and restore both SR channels to operability prior to the next startup. d. VERIFY Reactor trip and enter OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Place N31 in the trip position within 1 hour and restore both SR channels to operability within 48 Hours.

b. CORRECT. The Reactor will trip. The SR channel requires restoration within 48 hours and suspension of positive reactivity.

The crew has just completed actions of 1-OHP-4023-FR-H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, that established bleed and feed. Given the following plant conditions: • SG #3 is faulted with ZERO indicated level on SG Wide Range Level. • SG #1, 2, and 4 are intact and SG Wide Range levels are 14%. • Core Exit Thermocouples are 570°F (hottest) and slowly lowering. • RCS Hot Leg temperatures are 565°F and slowly lowering. • RCS Wide Range Pressure is 1200 psig and stable • Containment pressure is 0.8 psig and rising. • The Turbine-driven AFW Pump was just made available. What actions are taken to establish a secondary heat sink and ensure core heat removal? Attachment Provided a. Initiate feed flow to SG #1, 2, OR 4 at less than 50 X103 lbm/hr. Raise feed flow as required after SG Wide Range level is > 17%. Terminate bleed and feed after SG Narrow Range level is above 14%. b. Initiate feed flow to SG #1, 2, OR 4 at the maximum rate until RCS Subcooling is > 40°F. Terminate bleed and feed after SG Narrow Range level is above 14%. c. Initiate feed flow to SG #3 at the maximum rate until RCS Subcooling is > 40°F. Initiate feed flow to SG #1, 2, OR 4 at less than 50 X103 lbm/hr after RCS Subcooling is > 40°F. Terminate bleed and feed after any SG Wide Range level is > 17%. d. Initiate feed flow to SG #1, 2, AND 4 at less than 50 X103 lbm/hr. Terminate bleed and feed after any SG Wide Range level is > 17%.

a. CORRECT. Since core exit TCs are lowering and there is concern with thermal stress to hot, dry SG, procedural direction is to initiate flow in controlled flow rate (50 X103 lbm/hr) to provide heat removal while minimizing stresses. This flow rate may be raised when SG WR level is > 17%. Feed and bleed is terminated at SG NR level > 14% NR.

Unit 2 was stable at 100% power with the 2CD Emergency Diesel Generator tagged out for oil pump replacement. A loss of offsite power occurs and the 2AB EDG fails to start. It is estimated that it will take 1 hour to restore power. Which ONE of the following denotes the required actions (if any) for Unit 2 Control Room cooling as per OHP-4023-ECA-0.0, Loss of All AC? a. Unit 2 Control room cooling is NOT required since power will be restored in 1 hour. b. Open doors to provide cooling to Vital cabinets within 30 minutes. c. Crosstie ESW to Unit 1 and align ESW cooling water to the Control Room Air handling unit. d. Start the Unit 2 North Control Room air handling unit since it is supplied by Unit 1 power.

b. CORRECT Unit 2 fans have lost power. The cabinet doors must be opened within 30 minutes to ensure equipment (control and protection cards/circuits) temperatures stay within design limits.

Given the following conditions: • Unit 1 is in Mode 3. • Annunciator Panel 101 Drop 28, UNIT 1 PYRALARM ABN OR FIRE actuates. • Annunciator Panel 101 Drop 79, 4KV AREA CO2 VOLT FAIL OR SYS ARMED/ABN actuates. • The Turbine Tour AEO has reported that a fire does NOT exist. • Investigation reveals that the ionization/smoke detectors for the 4 KV Switchgear Room AB (12-3 & 12-4) are inoperable. • Which ONE of the following describes the required actions, if any, per TRM 8.7.4 Fire Detection Instrumentation and TRM 8.7.8 Low Pressure CO2 Systems? Attachment Provided a. No actions for TRM 8.7.4 nor TRM 8.7.8 are required since 3 infrared detectors are still operable and capable of automatic actuation. b. Restore the ionization detectors to operable status within 14 days per TRM 8.7.4. No additional actions are required for TRM 8.7.8 since Manual Actuation is still available. c. No actions for TRM 8.7.4 nor TRM 8.7.8 are required since only 1 Train of 4KV switchgear is required to be operable in Mode 3. d. Establish hourly fire watch patrol per TRM 8.7.4 since 3 infrared detectors are still operable. No additional actions are required for TRM 8.7.8.

d. CORRECT These are Detector Function B which requires action B.1 of TRM 8.7.4 and an Ionization and infrared are required for actuation so Actions B.1.1 AND B.1.2 of TRM 8.7.8 are required.

The first charging pump is shutdown during safety injection termination per OHP-4023-ES-1.1, Safety Injection Termination, following a Unit 2 LOCA. The following parameter trends are noted: • Subcooling is +41°F and lowering. • Pressurizer level is 25% and lowering. • RCS pressure is 1680 psig and lowering. Which ONE of the following describes parameter(s) that were affected by the charging pump shutdown and what procedure will be used to stabilize the plant? Lower injection flow is causing … a. pressure to lower. Go to OHP-4023-ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. b. pressure to lower. Go to OHP-4023-FR-C.2 Response to Degraded Core Cooling. c. temperature to rise. Go to 2-OHP-4023-ES-1.2, Post LOCA Cooldown and Depressurization. d. temperature to rise. Go to OHP-4023-FR-C.2 Response to Degraded Core Cooling.

a. CORRECT After the first CCP is stopped, RCS pressure is checked to determine if 1 CCP will be sufficient to maintain control with the lower flow. If the leak is large enough to cause RCS pressure to lower, then a transition is made to ES-1.2 to address the leak.

The Unit 1 operators are responding to a RED path on the Heat Sink Critical Safety Function (CSF). They are implementing OHP-4023-FR H.1, Response to Loss of Secondary Heat Sink, when they identify a RED path on the Core Cooling CSF. Which ONE of the following describes the proper procedural implementation based on these conditions? a. Perform OHP-4023-FR-H.1 until completion, then implement OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling. b. Suspend OHP-4023-FR-H.1, and immediately implement OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling. c. Concurrently implement OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling, and OHP-4023-FR-H.1. d. Perform only steps 1 through 17 of OHP-4023-FR-H.1, then implement OHP-4023-FR-C.1, Response to Inadequate Core Cooling.

b. CORRECT Core Cooling is a higher priority and should be implemented immediately.

Conditions at 1400 hrs: • Unit 2 safety injection occurred due to a LOCA • Reactor coolant system pressure is 915 psig • RCS T-Cold temperatures are 535°F • Core Exit Thermocouples (CETC) are 565°F • Crew has implemented OHP-4023-FR-C.2, Response to Degraded Core Cooling • The SM has directed a cooldown to allow RHR to be placed in service Assuming temperatures have been stable since 1300 hrs, what is the maximum cooldown rate allowed per OHP-4023-FR-C.2, and what is the lowest temperature that could be attained by 1600 hrs using that rate? a. Cooldown at 60°F/hr to 415°F on RCS T-Colds b. Cooldown at 60°F/hr to 385°F on CETCs c. Cooldown at 100°F/hr to 335°F on RCS T-Colds d. Cooldown at 100°F/hr to 265°F on CETCs

c. CORRECT. This procedure allows 100°F/hr. (TS 3.4.3 limit). The reference temperature to use is the T-Cold over 2 hours (1400-1600).

Unit 2 has experienced a steamline break. None of the Steam Generator (SG) Stop Valves can be closed. OHP-4023-ECA-2.1, "Uncontrolled Depressurization of all Steam Generators," has been implemented. Which ONE of the following statements is correct regarding Attachment A, Local SG Isolation? a. Isolation of both steam supply lines to the TDAFP is allowed, regardless of the status of the other sources of feed flow to the SGs, since no secondary heat sink is intact. b. Integrity must be restored to all SGs before the operator can transition to OHP-4023-E-2, Faulted Steam Generator Isolation, via the foldout page. c. Valves are closed one loop at a time in order to restore integrity to at least one SG as early as possible. d. The Operator is allowed to place the Stop Valve Dump Valve control switches to LOCKOUT only if the selected valve is NOT accessible for local isolation.

c. CORRECT Valves are closed one loop at a time in order to ensure a complete, local check of the valves for each SG to restore integrity to at least one SG as early as possible.

Given the following conditions: • A tornado warning has been issued for the Cook Plant Area • The SRO has entered 12-OHP-4022-001-010, Severe Weather During a procedure implementation with offsite power still available, the SRO will direct the operators to ensure all EDGs are __(1)___ to __(2)____. (1) (2) a. running in parallel maintain positive control with offsite power source of electrical power to the plant b. running in parallel allow isolation of safeguards bus with offsite power source from the RCP bus c. stopped and prevent a switchyard fault in standby from damaging the EDG d. stopped and ensure that diesels are only started in standby following verification of no damage

c. CORRECT. EDGs are verified stopped and in standby if offsite power is available to ensure a switchyard fault does not damage the EDGs.

The plant is in MODE 6. Fuel movement was suspended for repairs to the Spent Fuel Bridge Crane. Repairs to the Spent Fuel Bridge Crane are complete. • Source Range Channel N31 is INOPERABLE • Source Range Channels N32 and N23 are OPERABLE. • The West RHR pump has just been placed in service due to the failure of the East RHR pump seal. • The Reactor Cavity Water Level is 644' 6". The refueling team has established communications with the control room, and has requested permission to move the next fuel bundle from the fuel building to the core. Are administrative conditions met to recommence fuel movement? a. Yes, but only if the Reactor Cavity Water Level is raised to greater than 644' 9" b. No, the East RHR pump must be restored to OPERABLE. c. No, Source Range Channel N31 must be restored to OPERABLE. d. Yes, provided that the Audible count rate circuit is selected to N32.

d. CORRECT For refueling to begin, 2 SR channels are required, one with an audible count rate indication. This comes only from N31 or N32. The gamma metrics (N23) may be used for the other channel. One RHR pump must be operating and level must be > 23' or 644' 1.5". The conditions are met for refueling provided that the audible count rate is selected to N32.

Given the following conditions: • At 1800 on May 13, SR 3.8.9.1 (verifies that DC Distribution system breaker lineup is correct at a specified frequency of 7 days) was performed satisfactorily. • On May 23 at 1700, it is discovered by the Shift Manager that SR 3.8.9.1 was last performed on May 13. Which ONE of the following is correct regarding the status of the DC Distribution and requirements for SR 3.8.9.1 performance? Attachment Provided The affected DC Distribution is _______________________________________ a. INOPERABLE because the delay period beyond the maximum extension time has been exceeded. SR 3.8.9.1 must be completed satisfactorily by May 23 at 1900. b. INOPERABLE if SR 3.8.9.1 is not completed satisfactorily by May 23 at 1900. c. OPERABLE. If a risk evaluation is performed to determine risk impact, then SR 3.8.9.1 completion can be extended at the latest, to May 27 at 1800. d. OPERABLE. If a risk evaluation is performed to determine risk impact, then SR 3.8.9.1 completion can be extended at the latest, to May 30 at 1700.

d. CORRECT. SR 3.0.3, ‘Surveillance Requirement Applicability,’ permits delaying the requirement to declare the LCO not met, from the time of discovery, up to 24 hours or up to the limit of the specified frequency, whichever is greater. However, if the surveillance is delayed greater than the 24 hour period, a risk impact must be performed to determine the scope of any risk. Since the SR was last performed on May 13 at 1800, it should have been performed by May 22 at 1200 (specified frequency = 7 days + .25 maximum extension time = 8 days and 18 hours). The discovery (29 hours later) that it had not been performed does not exceed the specified frequency of the surveillance if a risk assessment is performed. The required completion time is calculated by adding the specified frequency (7 days) to the time of discovery; i.e., May 23 at 1700 + 7 days = May 30 at 1700.

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 2 is in Mode 5 • Actions are being taken to start the Containment Purge system in the Clean-Up Mode. • Due to an inadvertent overload trip of the Containment Purge supply fan, there has been a 30 hour delay since Radiation Protection (RP) approval to start the purge. An operator is ready to start aligning purge and asked for Unit Supervisor permission to continue. Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response by the Unit Supervisor? a. Purge may be initiated since RP approval was within 48 hours of the start of the purge operation. b. Purge may be initiated as long as Plant Manager notification made within 24 hours of purge initiation. c. Purge can NOT be placed in service due to exceeding 24 hours from the time of initial RP approval. d. Purge can NOT be placed in service until a second air sample is obtained from the containment atmosphere.

c. CORRECT. Purge must be initiated within 24 hours of RP approval.

Given the following plant conditions: • A rapid load reduction from 100% power to 60% power was performed on Unit 1 approximately 3 hours ago. • Chemistry confirms that RCS I-131 activity exceeds Technical Specification limit of acceptable operation. • The US directs a plant shutdown to be performed . Which ONE of the following post shutdown actions is subsequently performed to limit the release of activity? a. All Steam Generator Stop Valves are closed. b. Reactor Coolant System temperature is reduced below 500°F. c. All Steam Generator PORV setpoints are raised. d. Reactor Coolant System letdown flow is diverted to the CVCS Hold Up Tank (HUT).

b. CORRECT. Reduce temp IAW TS 3.4.16.

Given the following plant conditions: • Unit 2 was operating at 100% power with the West CCW pump Tagged Out. • The East CCW pump tripped and could NOT be restarted, resulting in the loss of CCW. Which ONE of the following describes the correct Operator response? Immediately trip the Reactor and implement … a. OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Trip the RCPs after reactor trip has been verified. OHP-4022-016-004, Loss of CCW, may be performed concurrently after the immediate actions are complete. b. OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Trip the RCPs after the immediate actions are complete. OHP-4022-016-004, Loss of CCW, is NOT needed since the EOP network addresses a loss of CCW. c. OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection. Trip the RCPs after the immediate actions are complete. Steps from OHP-4022-016-004, Loss of CCW, may NOT be performed until completion of OHP-4023-ES-0.1, Reactor Trip Response. d. OHP-4022-016-004, Loss of CCW, until restoration of CCW from any source. Trip the RCPs after reactor trip has been verified. Perform OHP-4023-E-0, Reactor Trip or Safety Injection steps as time allows.

a. CORRECT. OHI-4023, Abnormal/Emergency Procedure User's Guide allows Abnormal Procedures to be implemented concurrently with Emergency Procedures after the immediate actions are complete. The RCPs are tripped after the reactor trip has been verified per the Note in OHP-4022-016-004.

Given the following conditions occur on Unit 1: • A Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA) has occurred. • A Site Area Emergency (SAE) has been declared. • The Technical Support Center (TSC) has been activated. • The Operation Support Center (OSC) has been activated. • It is necessary to enter Unit 1 Safety Injection Pump Room to prevent core damage. • Projected dose rate in the pump room is 1.16E+5 mR/hr. • Duration of the exposure is expected to be 4 minutes. Which ONE of the following is the lowest authority (by title) who can authorize the exposure as specified in RMT-2080-TSC-001, Activation and Operation of the TSC, Attachment 13? a. Radiation Protection Manager b. Site Emergency Coordinator c. OSC Manager d. Operations Shift Manager

b. CORRECT. In accordance with RMT-2080-TSC-001, the site SEC is the only individual who is authorized to approve emergency dose exposures and the authority cannot be delegated to anyone else. Dose is above the 5 Rem annual whole body limit.

2012 NRC Flashcards

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