2006 RO Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 2006 RO Deck (75):
1

Given the following conditions:
• The plant was tripped from 100% power due to loss of load.
• The operating crew has completed EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions", and
transitioned to EOP-2.0, "Reactor Trip Recovery".
• Two minutes later, a forklift operator delivering barrels of EHC fluid to the turbine
building loses control of the forklift and tears a large hole in the bottom of Condensate
Storage Tank T-2.
• Alarm EK-1115 CONDENSATE STORAGE TANK T-2 LO-LO Level is received.
• The operating crew secures all AFW pumps to prevent damage after receiving a low
suction pressure trip on AFW P-8A.
• Both Main Feedwater Pumps are operating at minimum speed.
Which of the following describes the actions the crew is directed to take to restore Steam
Generator feedwater, per EOP-2.0?
A.) Maintain PCPs operating and align service water to P-8C.
B.) Secure PCPs and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.
C.) Secure PCPs and align service water to P-8C.
D.) Maintain PCPs operating and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.

D.) Maintain PCPs operating and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.

A) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not allow the use of service water. The listed action is from EOP-
7, "Loss of All Feedwater Recovery", which is not appropriate for these conditions.
B) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not direct securing primary coolant pumps for a loss of feedwater.
The listed action is from EOP-7 which is not appropriate for these conditions.
C) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not direct securing primary coolant pumps for a loss of feedwater,
this is from EOP-7 which is not appropriate for these conditions.
D) Correct - EOP-2 allows the operator to recover steam generator levels using Main
Feedwater. Staying in EOP-2 is preferred to transitioning to EOP-7 since it allows the
plant to maintain PCPs that will aid in a more controlled shutdown.

2

During a routine containment tour on 'B' shift with the plant at full power the upper sensing
line for a pressurizer level indication shears off causing a vapor space LOCA. The HP Tech
that was accompanying the AO on rounds calls from the airlock and says that there was a
loud bang followed by a squealing noise. He thinks the AO has had a heart attack and says
he needs help to get the AO out of containment. Dose rates in the general area have risen to
40 rem/hr and the rescue is expected to take 10 minutes.
You are an extra NCO on-shift, and are directed to assist in rescuing the AO. Which one of
the following is true?
A.) Since the dose rate in the general area exceeds 25R/hour, you may assist in this
rescue only as a volunteer.
B.) Since it is projected that you will receive more than 5R, you may assist in this rescue
only as a volunteer.
C.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must wear electronic
dosimetry, in addition to primary dosimetry..
D.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must receive a briefing from
the HP Supervisor prior to the rescue.

D.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must receive a briefing from
the HP Supervisor prior to the rescue

A) Incorrect - The decision on whether the task is volunteer or not is based expected dose
received, not solely on dose rate.
B) Incorrect - The cutoff point for a rescue which requires only volunteers is 25R, not 5R
(Federal limit for non-emergency exposure).
C) Incorrect - Candidate correctly recognizes that volunteering is not required. Facility
procedures specify that NO electronic dosimetery is required for emergency entry.
D) CORRECT - Per provided reference, a brief from HP Supervisor is required for these
conditions, and since expected dose is less than 25R, this task does not require
volunteers.

3

With the plant at normal operating pressure and Charging Pump P-55A in service, the
controlled bleedoff line for Primary Coolant Pump P-50A breaks off between the pump and
the first manual isolation valve.
What is the response of charging system flow to a PCS leak in this location?
A.) Raise by 0 to 1 gal/min
B.) Raise by 2 to 3 gal/min
C.) Raise by 4 to 8 gal/min
D.) Lower by 1 to 2 gal/min

A.) Raise by 0 to 1 gal/min

A) Correct - This LOCA will result in a reduction in flow to the VCT but would not
significantly change charging flow, The leak rate through the PCP pump will be slightly
higher since it now discharges to containment atmosphere and not to the VCT that is
slightly pressurized.
B) Incorrect - This is approximately the leak rate created by this failure.
C) Incorrect - This is approximately the leak rate if there were not check valves preventing
the controlled bleedoff from the other pumps to reach the break.
D) Incorrect - This answer might be chosen by a candidate who believed this leak was down
stream of the stop check valve.

4

During a Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident inside containment the operator notes that the
Plant Process Computer (PPC) displayed value for containment pressure has changed color
from MAGENTA to WHITE.
How is this information verified on the PPC and what is its significance?
A.) Depress "URGNT" hardkey. Containment pressure is now LESS THAN the alarm level
setpoint.
B.) Depress "ALARM" hardkey. Containment pressure is now ABOVE the alarm level
setpoint.
C.) Depress "EVENT" hardkey. A Containment High Pressure (CHP) has just actuated.
D.) Depress "UPDATE" hardkey. Criteria for resetting Containment High Pressure are
now met

A.) Depress "URGNT" hardkey. Containment pressure is now LESS THAN the alarm level
setpoint.

a. CORRECT - Per PPC operating manual the URGNT hardkey is used to access the
information, and it is interpreted as shown here.
b. Incorrect - Though this hardkey does exist, it would not be used for the condition;
candidate also misinterprets the significance of the indication.
c. Incorrect usage of this hardkey; candidate also misinterprets the significance of the
indication.
d. Incorrect - UPDATE key is a commonly used key on the PPC, but not for this application;
further, candidate misinterprets significance of the indication.

5

Which of the following describes the Component Cooling Water interlock associated with
Primary Coolant Pump P-50A?
a. Automatically trips the PCP if CCW FLOW to the PCP integral heat exchanger drops to
less than 80 gpm, to protect PCP seals from overheating and damage.
b. Automatically trips the PCP if CCW TEMPERATURE out of the integral heat exchanger
exceeds 175º F to protect from overheating the thrust bearing.
c. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW FLOW to the integral heat exchanger is less than 80
gpm to ensure adequate oil cooling capability.
d. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW PRESSURE supplied to the integral heat exchanger
is less than 80 psig to ensure adequate oil cooling capability.

c. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW FLOW to the integral heat exchanger is less than 80
gpm to ensure adequate oil cooling capability

A) Incorrect, there is no pump trip interlock for the PCP on CCW Flow.
B) Incorrect, there is no pump trip interlock for the PCP on CCW Temperature
C) Correct, there is a start permissive associated with CCW flow to the primary coolant pump
to ensure that it is adequately cooled prior to being run to avoid damage/failure.
D) Incorrect, there is no start permissive associated with CCW pressure for the primary
coolant pump.

6

Given;
• Plant is operating in Mode 1.
• Charging Pump P-55A is out of service for maintenance.
• Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C are in manual, with P-55B in-service.
• A loss of all Forced Circulation occurs.
• PCS pressure returns to 2060 psia.
How will indicated charging flow change, and why? Indicated flow will...
A.) lower because of reduced PCP controlled bleedoff.
B.) not change due to design of Palisades charging pumps.
C.) rise because Tave will lower as a result of the loss of pump heat.
D.) lower because core delta T will rise causing coolant volume to swell.

B.) not change due to design of Palisades charging pumps

A) Incorrect - Candidate believes that controlled bleedoff flow will affect charging. With a
constant speed charging pump in service this will have no effect.
B) Correct - B Charging Pump is a constant speed, positive displacement pump.
C) Incorrect - Reflects the effect on PCS volume the loss of pump heat may have.
D) Incorrect - Reflects the effect on PCS volume the larger delta T that will be required will
cause.

7

Given the following conditions:
• The PCS is being filled from Reduced Inventory.
• It is day 5 of a forced outage to replace a PCP seal package.
• Current PCS level is 628' 5".
• Both SGs have level at approximately 50%.
• Current Average Qualified CET temperature is 140 o
F.
• Shutdown Cooling has been lost.
The PCS will reach 200 o
F in _______ minutes.
A.) 14 to 18
B.) 20 to 24
C.) 30 to 34
D.) 60 to 70

B.) 20 to 24

a. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used.
b. Using ONP-17, Attachment 1, page 4, intersection of 5 day line and 140 o
F initial
temperature is approximately 21 minutes.
c. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used.
d. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used

8

The plant is operating at full power. An auxiliary operator (AO) is in the field performing an oil
change on the motor of Component Cooling Water Pump P-52B. The AO calls the control
room to report that there is a lot of noise coming from the pump seal area of the operating
CCW pump, P-52A. While discussing what actions to take in the control room, the operating
crew receives the following alarms:
• EK-1167 COMPONENT CLG PUMPS P-52A, P-52B, P-52C TRIP
• EK-1169 COMPONENT CLG PUMP DISCHARGE LO PRESS
The control room enters ONP-6.2, Loss of Component Cooling. The AO in the field reports
that CCW P-52A has now tripped and that the seal appears to have been damaged causing
an approximately 2 gpm leak. CCW Surge T-3 level is 50% and lowering slowly. P-52C is
NOT running.
Per ONP-6.2 should the control room operator manually start P-52C, and why?
A.) No. P-52C should have started in standby and cannot be started until the cause of
this failure is known.
B.) No. Starting P-52C will cause more leakage, it cannot be started until P-52A is
isolated.
C.) Yes, since P-52C should have started in Standby and CCW surge tank level is
sufficient and will auto fill.
D.) Yes, since the AO in the room can verify the required valve lineup and make
necessary heat exchanger adjustments

. C.) Yes, since P-52C should have started in Standby and CCW surge tank level is
sufficient and will auto fill.

A) Incorrect - The pump should have started in standby but the procedure does not require
that this be resolved prior to starting the pump.
B) Incorrect - Starting P-52C will probably cause more leakage but there is no requirement
in the procedure to stop all leakage. This leakage will be compensated for by the make
up to the CCW Surge Tank. The AO is in the room and would be able to isolate the
pump shortly after the P-52C was started. A crew may choose to wait until the pump is
isolated, but the procedure does not require it, and waiting too long could preclude the ability to attempt to start P-52C. (10 minute limit) This would result in a plant trip. This
is a much higher consequence than additional leakage.
C) Correct - as stated in step ONP-6.2, Loss of CCW, step 4.1.
D) Incorrect - ONP-6.2 does not require that the valve lineup be verified or that heat
exchanger dP be reviewed. While these checks may be performed by the crew after
restoration of the pump they are not required as part of ONP-6.2 which is what the
question asks.

9

With the plant at full power the input signal to the B channel Pressurizer Pressure Control fails
low. The B channel of Pressurizer Pressure Control is the in-service channel. Which of the
following is an expected procedural direction from the CRS that would restore Pressurizer
pressure to normal?
A.) Operate 1/LIC-0101 Heater Control Selector switch to "Channel A" position.
B.) Manually open the pressurizer spray valves using the handswitches.
C.) Take manual control of the in-service pressure controller.
D.) Manually close the pressurizer spray valves using the handswitches.

C.) Take manual control of the in-service pressure controller

A) Incorrect - While the ONP does allow the CRS to direct transfer to the other controller,
simply transferring control will not result in pressure returning to normal. Since the out of
service controller will be at 50% output signal, pressure will continue to rise. The CRS
would also have to provide direction to take manual control or transfer to automatic
control.
B) Incorrect - The spray valves cannot be manually opened using the handswitches. There
is direction in the ONP to close the sprays using the handswitches if pressure is lowering,
that is why this was chosen as a distractor.
C) Correct - one of the options provided by the procedure.
D) Incorrect - This action can be taken but it will not aid in recovering pressurizer pressure

10

With the Plant at full power the control room receives EK-0548, "125V DC BUS
UNDERVOLTAGE/TROUBLE" along with several other alarms. Following a quick scan of the
panels the Reactor Operators report position indication for CV-0510, S/G E-50A MSIV has
been lost and CV-2009, Cont Letdown Isolation has failed closed.
Which of the following is an additional condition that the operators should be able to observe?
A.) CV-1359, Non-Critical Service Water Isolation failed closed.
B.) Auxiliary Feedwater P-8B in-service.
C.) Control Power to Bus 1C lost.
D.) Control Power to Bus 1D lost.

B.) Auxiliary Feedwater P-8B in-service

A. Incorrect - Caused by a failure of another part of the DC system, not by failure of D-11-1.
B. Correct - The automatic start of P-8B on a loss of D-11-1 is part of the ATWS
modification. This question tests whether or not the student can recognize the a loss of
D-11-1 and then if they know that this causes an auto start of P-8B.
C. Incorrect - Failure that is caused by a loss of a different section of the DC system.
D. Incorrect - Failure that is caused by a loss of a different section of the DC system.

11

During a Steam Generator Tube Rupture which of the following is an automatic action
initiated by RIA-0707 Steam Generator Blowdown monitor and the basis for the action?
The monitor signals the ......
A.) isolation of both outer bottom blowdown valves (CV-0770, 0771) to limit the spread of
contamination in the blowdown system.
B.) isolation of both surface blowdown valves (CV-0738, 0739) to prevent contamination
from reaching chemistry's sample panel.
C.) isolation of PCV-6003, Flash Tank T-29A Pressure Control to minimize Main
Condenser contamination.
D.) trip of both S/G blowdown pumps to prevent spread of contamination from the
blowdown system.

A.) isolation of both outer bottom blowdown valves (CV-0770, 0771) to limit the spread of
contamination in the blowdown system

A.) Correct - The outer isolation valves get a close signal and isolate the blowdown system.
B.) Incorrect - Chemistry's continuous sample points come off the bottom blowdown lines
and upstream of RIA-0707
C.) Incorrect - This valve doesn't receive a signal from RIA-0707.
D.) Incorrect - RIA-0707 doesn't provide a signal to the blowdown pumps.

12

With the plant at full power the main steam line on the B Steam Generator fails inside
containment. Which of the following instruments are affected by degraded containment
conditions in a way that prevents using direct readings in determining if Safety Injection
Throttling Criteria are met?
A.) Pressurizer Level
B.) Steam Generator Level
C.) Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring
D.) PCS Temperature

A.) Pressurizer Level


A.) Correct - Pressurizer level must be corrected for containment conditions before it is
used to verify SIAS throttling conditions.
B.) Incorrect - Steam generator level does have to be corrected to read level accurately,
however only a rising trend is required to meet throttling criteria and this can be done
without correction.
C.) Incorrect - This parameter is used for validating throttling criteria but is not affected by
the given conditions.
D.) Incorrect - This parameter is used for throttling criteria but is not affected by containment
conditions, however during an ESDE the loss of PCP often requires the use of CETs,
but this does not match the stem of the question.

13

The Plant has tripped due to a Loss of Off-site power at 1300. Emergency D/G 1-1 will not
start. Power control has been contacted and is unable to project when power will be restored
to the switchyard.
Assuming operators take all required actions which of the following design capacities will be
the FIRST to be exceeded before power is restored?
A.) Diesel Generator Fuel oil inventory.
B.) Condensate inventory.
C.) Station Battery Voltage.
D.) ADV Nitrogen backup supply

B.) Condensate inventory

A.) Incorrect - The day tank contains 15 hours of fuel oil and there are no given problems
with fuel oil transfer pumps.
B.) Correct - The required inventory is sufficient to supply the AFW system for 8 hours.
Without power there is no way to retrieve addition volume from other tanks.
C.) Incorrect - The station batteries are designed for only 4 hours, however the procedures
direct supplying both busses from a single operating diesel generator.
D.) Incorrect - Operating air for the ADVs can be provided via a D/G 1-2 powered air
compressor. The back-up Nitrogen supply is from the bulk nitrogen tank and not a
nitrogen bottle station

14

The state of Michigan has been affected by a large system blackout. Palisades tripped and
initially neither diesel generator would supply its associated bus. Subsequently the on-shift
crew was able to replace control power fuses on the output breaker for D/G 1-1 and it is now
supplying Bus 1C. Shift management has decided that it is the right time for the on-shift crew
to be relieved.
Which of the following information is NOT required to be reviewed during turnover between
the off-going and on-coming NCOs?
A.) All completed steps in the work order to replace fuses on the D/G 1-1 output breaker.
B.) Status of in-progress Station Battery load stripping per EOP Supplements 7 and 8.
C.) The station log and associated notes.
D.) Current control bands and methods of control

A.) All completed steps in the work order to replace fuses on the D/G 1-1 output breaker.

A.) Correct - This would not be an operations evolution and the status of the completed
steps is not a required turnover item.
Distractors B, C, and D are all required by the conduct of operation procedures.

15

The plant is at full power when a problem with a breaker failure relay in the switchyard causes
a loss of F bus. After stabilizing the plant the operating crew observes the following
indications;
• D/G 1-1 is not operating.
• D/G 1-2 is running with its output breaker closed.
• Bus 1C is indicating 2380 VAC.
• Bus 1D is indicating 2405 VAC.
• Bus 1E is indicating 2380 VAC.
• Bus 12 is indicating 0 Amps.
• Bus 13 is indicating 81 Amps (normal).
• Station Power Transformer 15 is indicating 110 Amps (normal).
• Station Power Transformer 16 is indicating 0 Amps
Based on these indications which of the following statements is accurate?
A.) D/G 1-1 should have started.
B.) Bus 1E should have de-energized.
C.) Bus 12 should be carrying some load.
D.) Transformer 16 should be carrying some load.

C.) Bus 12 should be carrying some load.

A) Incorrect - All safety related busses will have fast transferred to startup power.
B.) Incorrect - Bus 1E also fast transfers to startup power.
C) Correct - Although there was a problem with Bus 1D it is now being supported by its
diesel generator and Bus 12 doesn't load shed.
D) Incorrect - There is a lockout on the breaker for transformer 16 (PZR heaters) to ensure
that it doesn't re-energize without operator action (plant modification ~ 1 year ago).
E-17 Sheet 10

16

A loss of Preferred AC bus Y-10 has caused the following indications (along with several
others) to fail low. Of the indications listed which one does NOT have a redundant instrument
that operators could use to trend level changes in the associated components?
A.) LIA-0102A PZR Level (Cold Calibrated)
B.) LIA-0920 CCW Surge Tank Level
C.) LIA-0365 SIT T-82A level
D.) LI-0751A A Steam Generator Level

C.) LIA-0365 SIT T-82A level

A.) Incorrect - This instrument does have a redundant indication.
B.) Incorrect - This instrument does have a redundant indication.
C.) Correct - Level switches can provided a form of redundancy, but cannot be used to
provide a trend.
D.) Incorrect - This parameter has 3 additional indications (this is a steam generator level
input to the RPS and is powered by Y-10).

17

When a Safety Injection Actuation signal is generated the Service Water inlet isolation valve
CV-0869, for Containment Air Cooler #4 goes closed. Why does this valve close?
A.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1D.
B.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1C.
C.) To isolate Containment Air Cooler #4 since it is not rated for use in accident
conditions.
D.) To minimize the potential for vapor binding of the SW piping inside containment.

B.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1C.

A.) Incorrect - Containment cooling capacity remains adequate, since two Cont. Spray
pps. are still powered. It is also likely, per procedural actions, that Service Water to
containment will have manually isolated.
B) Correct - This train doesn't rely on SW. It isolates and raises flow to the other coolers.
C.) Incorrect - It is not isolated because it is not rated for accident conditions. In fact the
outlet valve still gets an open signal so the CAC is not even isolated in an emergency.
D) Incorrect - Since the downstream valve is open, there is no vapor binding concer

18

The plant has experienced a plant trip followed by a complete loss of instrument air. Per
EOP-9, "Functional Recovery Procedure" the CRS directs the NCO to match the handswitch
positions of the air operated valves with their failed positions.
Why does the EOP direct this action?
A.) To conserve inventory of nitrogen back up systems.
B.) To ensure that valves do not spontaneously change position while air is lost.
C.) To ensure that the valves do not reposition when air is restored.
D.) To place all valves to their safety related position.

C.) To ensure that the valves do not reposition when air is restored.

A.) Incorrect - A valve that was being held open by a nitrogen back up system would not
be repositioned. This attachment does not conserve nitrogen back up system
inventory.
B.) Incorrect - Moving the handswitches will not affect valves during the event. Since there
is no air pressure the handswitches cannot keep valves from changing position.
C.) Correct - The handswitches are placed in the failed position to ensure that the valves
do not reposition during restoration of air.
D.) Incorrect - There are no directions in the checklist to match valves with their safety
related position. The checklist directs matching the handswitch regardless of whether
it has failed to its safety position or not

19

Given the following conditions:
• The plant is in MODE 5.
• PCS is at 623' with S/G nozzle dams installed.
• The Shutdown Cooling System is controlling PCS temperature at 103°F.
• T-91, Utility Water Storage Tank, batch release is in progress
• The batch release calculation assumed two Service Water Pumps in operation.
• Main Condenser East and West Waterboxes are open for installation of a modification.
• Service Water Pumps P-7A and P-7B are in service.
• Service Water Pump P-7C is tagged out for bearing replacement.
• Both Cooling Tower Pumps P-39A/B are available, but not in service.
• The Canal Sample Pump is in service.
The Secondary AO reports that the basket strainer on P-7A discharge appears to be clogging
as indicated by differential pressure trending steadily upward. A crew brief is held to discuss
removing P-7A from service to disassemble and clean the basket strainer.
For the above plant conditions, what are the implications of the proposed maintenance on the
SW pump basket strainer?
A.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Terminate the batch release before stopping P-7A.
B.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Establish 15 minute periodic sampling of batch release flow.
C.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.7.8 Service Water System. Terminate the
batch release before stopping P-7A.
D.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.7.8 Service Water System. Start a
Dilution Water Pump before stopping P-7A.

A.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Terminate the batch release before stopping P-7A.

A.) Correct - The Service Water LCO does not apply below MODE 4. The batch release requires that the dilution flow requirements be met. Securing a Service water pump
would violate these requirements and require that the batch be secured while the
release calculations are updated. In Mode 5 with the loops not filled two SDC trains are
required to be operable. To be operable each train needs to have a separate SW
pump. With only one pump operable only one train could be considered operable.
B.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.
C.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.
D.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.

20

Planned maintenance is to be conducted on RIA-1113, Waste Gas Discharge Monitor. To
conduct the maintenance, the following valve lineup was performed, per SOP-18A,
Radioactive Waste System - Gaseous:
● MV-WG117, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Inlet CLOSED
● MV-WG119, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Outlet CLOSED
● MV-WG118, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Bypass OPEN
AFTER the maintenance is completed, the following valve lineup is noted:
● MV-WG117, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Inlet OPEN
● MV-WG119, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Outlet OPEN
● MV-WG118, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Bypass OPEN
Which one of the following correctly evaluates the above AFTER maintenance valve lineup?
A.) The monitor inlet valve should be CLOSED, since the monitor is placed in service only
as part of preparations for a planned gas batch release.
B.) The monitor bypass valve is OPEN to allow a release path in case RV-1111, Waste
Gas Surge Tank Relief, lifts.
C.) The monitor outlet valve is OPEN to ensure the monitor will not overpressurize when
RV-1111, Waste Gas Surge Tank Relief, lifts.
D.) The monitor bypass valve should be CLOSED, to ensure the monitor will sense a high
radiation condition.

D.) The monitor bypass valve should be CLOSED, to ensure the monitor will sense a high
radiation condition.

A) Incorrect - This monitor is normally aligned for service.
B) Incorrect - The bypass should be closed, this is the reason the valve is opened for
maintenance.
C) Incorrect - Candidate misapplies function of monitor's normal flowpath.
D) Correct -,This is the required in-service line up, per procedure.

21

The plant is nearing the end of a long production run with elevated PCS activity due to a failed
fuel rod. Operators note a rising sump trend along with elevated counts on the Containment
Gas monitor. The crew enters ONP 23.1 for a PCS leak and the reactor is manually tripped.
During the immediate actions of EOP-1 the NCO at the controls notes that EK-1363
"CONTAINMENT HI RADIATION" has annunciated.
Based on this alarm which of the following accounts for the above conditions and describes
any required actions?
A.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into WARNING. Ensure
containment is isolated.
B.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. No manual actions
are required.
C.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. Ensure
containment is isolated.
D.) At least two containment radiation monitors have gone into ALARM. No manual
actions are required.

C.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. Ensure
containment is isolated.

A.) Incorrect - Warning function exists, but does not provide containment isolation function.
B.) Incorrect - This alarm will come in when the first containment monitor goes into alarm.
The operator is expected to check the monitors when the alarm comes in and manually
initiate containment isolation if the alarm is valid.
C.) Correct - This alarm will come in when the first containment monitor goes into alarm.
Containment doesn't automatically isolate until at least two Containment Radiation
monitors go into alarm. This is a knowledge item from EOP-1 because an operator is
expected to check the monitors when the alarm comes in and isolate containment if
necessary.
D.) Incorrect - This alarm annunciates when one or more containment radiation monitors
have alarmed.

22

A fire in the Electrical Equipment room has resulted in a loss of Bus 1D and D/G 1-2. Bus 1C
is still being powered by the Safeguards Transformer. The reactor has been tripped and
operators are stabilizing the plant and supporting the fire brigade. Per ONP-25.1 "FIRE
WHICH THREATENS SAFETY RELATED EQUIPMENT" the CRS directs an NCO to
dispatch the safe shutdown AO to align the alternate power supply to the D/G 1-1 Room
ventilation fans.
For the stated conditions, this action is taken to ensure that the vent fans ....
A.) do not spuriously start and over cool the room.
B.) are available to prevent engine damage in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.
C.) are available to maintain room habitability in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.
D.) are powered by a safety related power supply that is unaffected by the fire.

B.) are available to prevent engine damage in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.

A.) Incorrect - This is not the reason for performing this action. If this were a concern
outside air temperature would be part of the prerequisites.
B.) Correct - Per the caution in ONP-25.1.
C.) Incorrect - The vent fans are needed for engine operability not operator comfort.
D.) Incorrect - This action actually aligns the fans to a non-safety related power supply.

23

A fire in the cable spreading room associated with the DC power to the ADVs is in progress.
The fire causes the ADVs to open. In order to close the ADVs both DC shunt trip buttons
have been pushed. Due to the fire and the loss of indication the control room has been
evacuated.
If offsite power becomes unavailable to Bus 1C and Bus 1D, would either D/G auto start?
A.) Yes, both diesels will start.
B.) Yes, only D/G 1-1 will start.
C.) Yes, only D/G 1-2 will start.
D.) No, neither D/G will start

A.) Yes, both diesels will start.

A.) Correct - Pushing the shunt trip push buttons isolates the batteries from everything
except the control power for the diesels and Bus 1C and Bus 1D.
B.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly believes this requires manual control of the D/G or use
of the RLT switches which would mean that only D/G 1-1 could be started.
C.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly believes this requires manual control of the D/G and
misapplies understanding of the RLTS, and concludes that only D/G 1-2 will start.
D.) Incorrect - Candidate misunderstands the scope of what part of the system is isolated
when using the shunt trip pushbutton feature.

24

The plant has experienced an excess steam demand event caused by the failure of a main
steamline inside containment. The pressure in containment caused the tubing associated
with the containment sump level indication to fail resulting in a leak of the containment sump
to East Safeguards that cannot be isolated. Containment pressure was 40 psia when the leak
was discovered and estimated to be 3 gpm.
What will the leak rate be if containment pressure is lowered to 20 psia?
(Assume atmospheric pressure is 15 psia.)
A.) 0.60 gpm
B.) 1.37 gpm
C.) 1.50 gpm
D.) 2.12 gpm

B.) 1.37 gpm

The leak rate will be proportional to the square root of the differential pressure. The
candidate has to remember this fact and recognize the units of the containment pressure are
PSIA. This is the unit that would be available in the control room. The correct answer is
3gpm*5psig^0.5/25psig^0.5 = 1.37 gpm. The other answers are the result of either using
the wrong units, assuming a straight ratio, or both.

25

The head has just been re-installed and tensioned. The PCS is filled to 628 feet and is stable
at 110ºF. Based on decay heat it will take 60 minutes to reach 200ºF if Shutdown Cooling is
secured. No primary coolant pumps have been started yet. To support troubleshooting on
CV-3006, SDC HX BYPASS, operations has been requested to secure shutdown cooling.
Can Shutdown Cooling be secured, and if so, how long can it be secured without violating
Technical Specifications for Shutdown Cooling or PCS Heatup/Cooldown rates?
A.) SDC cannot be secured under these conditions.
B.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 13 minutes.
C.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 26 minutes.
D.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 60 minutes.

B.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 13 minutes.

A) Incorrect - Candidate believes conditions do not allow securing SDC,
B) Correct - TS allows SDC to be secured for up to an hour. However for the conditions
given the heat up rate is such that 20ºF/hour heatup rate limit will be exceeded in 13.3
minutes. PCS will heat up to 200 F in 60 from references provided.
C.) Incorrect - candidate believes the limit on heatup rate is 40F/hr
D) Incorrect - candidate believes that shutdown cooling can be secured for a full hour

26

The reactor trips while the NCO Turbine is out of the control room. As a result neither Main
Feed Pump is slowed and both Steam Generators are overfilled. When the NCO turbine
arrives in the control room he quickly slows both Main Feed Pumps, closes both Main Feed
Reg Valves, and plant conditions begin to recover. The following readings represent the plant
conditions at the point at which the primary coolant system begins to recover;
• Pressurizer Pressure - 1432 psia
• SIAS has actuated.
• PCS Thot - 480°F
• PCS Tcold - 478°F
• Actual Pressurizer Level - 32%
• A Steam Generator Level - 89%
• B Steam Generator Level - 88%
Assuming no operator action what would be the status of the Pressurizer heaters when
pressurizer level recovers to 40%?
A.) Both banks of heaters would be energized.
B.) Only the heaters powered by Bus 1E would be energized.
C.) Only the heaters powered by Bus 1D would be energized.
D.) None of the heaters would be energized

D.) None of the heaters would be energized

A. Incorrect SIAS de energ Bus 1E which powers one bank of htrs. D Bus Deenergizes when low Lpzr heater cutout occurs
B. Incorrect. SIAS deenergizes Bus 1 E
C. Incorrect Bus 1D deenergizes when low Lpzr hearter cutout occurs
D. Correct Bus 1D htrs do not reset after low Lpzr cutout and Bus 1E was load shed on SIAS

27

While operating at full power the control room receives EK-0734 "CHARGING PUMPS SEAL
COOLING LO PRESS", the NCO at the boards notes that Charging Pump P-55B has started.
Additionally, the NCO notes that sump level is rising.
Initially the containment sump level rate of rise was 0.05 gpm, the VCT was at 78.0%, and the
Pressurizer was at 56.9%. After 10 minutes the rate of rise in the sump is 7.9 gpm (actual
rate of rise based on level change, not PPC calculation), the VCT is at 73.7%, and the
Pressurizer is at 57.1%. PCS Temperature has remained stable.
Which of the following is the required action?
A.) Trip the reactor.
B.) Perform an emergency downpower per ONP-28.
C.) Continue to gather leakrate data and start a downpower per GOP-8.
D.) Attempt to isolate the leak and prepare for a downpower per GOP-8.

A.) Trip the reactor.

A.) Correct - The leakrate is greater than 10 gpm. This is trip criteria per ONP-23.1.
B.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
C.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
D.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
The stem provides some information concerning the leakrate into the sump. This leakrate
would not necessarily be indicative of all leakage. The candidate should expect that sump fill
rate would lag actual leakrate due to moisture not immediately condensing in areas that would
drain directly to the sump. The additional clarification on rate of containment sump rise is due
to the fact that the value calculated on the PPC is a 15 minute average.

28

With the plant at 10% power, RIA-1805, Containment Area Radiation Monitor, suffers a short
causing it to fail high. While investigating this issue Preferred AC Bus Y-30 de-energizes.
What effect does this have on the plant?
A.) A reactor trip due to closure of the MSIV's.
B.) A turbine trip due to closure of the MSIV's.
C.) Loss of Instrument Air to the Pressurizer Spray Valves.
D.) PCP controlled bleed-off being controlled by a relief valve.

D.) PCP controlled bleed-off being controlled by a relief valve.

A.) Incorrect - MSIVs do not close on a CHR. Candidate confuses CHP and CHR. Power
level also plausibility of these choices as it leads them down the path of turbine only trips.
B.) Incorrect - MSIVs do not close on a CHR. Candidate confuses CHP and CHR. Power
level also plausibility of these choices as it leads them down the path of turbine only trips.
C.) Incorrect - Instrument air does not isolate on a CHR.
D.) Correct - This will result in a loss/trip of 2 of 4 Containment Area Radiation Monitors
(loss of Y-30 results in loss of power to RIA-1807) which will cause a containment
isolation on high radiation (CHR). The MSIV's will not close.

29

Which of the following provides the correct power supply for each of the Component Cooling
Water pumps?
P-52A P-52B P-52C
A.) Bus 1D Bus 1D Bus 1C
B.) Bus 1D Bus 1C Bus 1D
C.) Bus 1C Bus 1D Bus 1C
D.) Bus 1C Bus 1C Bus 1D

C.) Bus 1C Bus 1D Bus 1C

A) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly recalls the power supply configuration of the
containment spray pumps as the Component Cooling Water pumps power supply
configuration.
B) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly recalls the power supply configuration of the Service
Water pumps as the power supply configuration of the Component Cooling Water pumps.
C.) Correct - This is the correct power supply configuration for the Component Cooling
Water pumps.
D) Incorrect - Candidate fails to identify the correct power supplies for the Component
Cooling Water pumps.

30

Operations has aligned Charging Pump P-55C to its alternate power supply to support
maintenance on its breaker. If a fault on Bus 1C resulted in a loss of the front bus in the
switchyard, which charging pumps would have power?
A.) All three charging pumps P-55A, P-55B, and P-55C
B.) Only charging pumps P-55A and P-55B
C.) Only charging pump P-55C
D.) None of the charging pumps will have power.

B.) Only charging pumps P-55A and P-55B

A.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
B.) Correct - See explanation below.
C.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
D.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
P-55C is normally powered by LCC-11 off Bus 1C. When on its alternate supply it is powered
by LCC-13. LCC-13 is powered by Bus 1C. A fault on Bus 1C that de-energized the front
bus would cause Bus 1D and Bus 1E to fast transfer to startup power. P-55C would loss
power.

31

What is the MINIMUM amount of seal leakage at which SOP-2A, Chemical and Volume
Control System, would recommend a Charging Pump be secured?
A.) 401 ml/min
B.) 801 ml/min
C.) 1301 ml/min
D.) 1601 ml/min

C.) 1301 ml/min

A.) Incorrect - SOP-2A requires the charging pump to be secured if leakage exceeds 900
ml/min.
B.) Incorrect - SOP-2A requires the charging pump to be secured if leakage exceeds 900
ml/min.
C.) Correct - SOP-2A requires the charging pump to be secured if leakage exceeds 900
ml/min.
D.) Incorrect - SOP-2A requires the charging pump to be secured if leakage exceeds 900
ml/min.
Securing a leaking charging pump at the right time will help prevent a radiation release.
Failure to take this action can lead to high contamination levels in the auxiliary building and
elevated count rates at the plant stack.

32

Assume the plant is on Shutdown Cooling when a complete loss of Instrument Air occurs.
Which of the following describes the effect on the Shutdown Cooling System and on the
Primary Coolant System (PCS)?
A.) Since CV-3006, SDC Hx Bypass, fails CLOSED, the PCS will begin to heat up.
B.) Since CV-3025, SDC Hx Outlet, fails CLOSED, the PCS will begin to heat up.
C.) Since CV-3006, SDC Hx Bypass, fails OPEN, there is a concern for PCS overcooling.
D.) Since CV-3025, SDC Hx Outlet fails OPEN, there is a concern for PCS overcooling.

B.) Since CV-3025, SDC Hx Outlet, fails CLOSED, the PCS will begin to heat up

A) Incorrect - The bypass fails open
B) Correct - Since CV-3025 is on the outlet of the SDC heat exchanger, and is failed
CLOSED, that means there is no component cooling water providing cooling to SDC
return to the PCS.
C) Incorrect - With the bypass open there will be less cooling of the PCS.
D) Incorrect - CV-3025 fails closed

33

The plant has been tripped and the operators are in the process of working through EOP-4
Loss of Coolant Accident. Safety Injection has actuated and containment pressure is 3 psig
and rising, when all off-site power is lost. Following the loss of power both Diesel Generators
start and load. When the sequencers have timed out the NCO at the controls notes that CCW
P-52C is not running.
Is the response of P-52C correct and why?
A.) No, the pump should have started on Safety injection.
B.) No, the pump should have sequenced on when power was restored.
C.) Yes, P-52C is not safety related and doesn't get a sequencer start signal.
D.) Yes, P-52C only starts if there is a low CCW system pressure.

D.) Yes, P-52C only starts if there is a low CCW system pressure.

A) Incorrect - P-52C doesn't get an auto start in this situation
B) Incorrect - P-52C doesn't start if pressure is normal
C) Incorrect - it gets a start signal if pressure is low.
D) Correct - P-52C does get a start signal but only if CCW system pressure is low.

34

Given the following:
• The plant is in MODE 1.
• T-82A, Safety Injection Tank (SIT) sampling is to be performed.
• During the pre-job brief for this evolution, it is discussed that per SOP-3, Safety
Injection and Shutdown Cooling System, SIT pressure should not be allowed to lower
below 200 psig.
What operational concern is addressed by the above precaution?
A. Will ensure adequate sample flow from the SIT to the sample point.
B. Will ensure SIT pressure remains above the low alarm setpoint.
C. Avoids drawing a vacuum on the SIT during level reduction.
D. Avoids the potential for water hammer upstream of PCS check valves.

D. Avoids the potential for water hammer upstream of PCS check valves.

A. Incorrect - There is no minimum pressure requirement for the purpose of ensuring
adequate sample flow.
B. Incorrect - The low pressure alarm is expected during SIT sampling. Setpoint is 205
psig
C. Incorrect - For certain plant conditions, there is a concern for a minimum pressure due
to a vacuum, but it is misapplied here.
D. Correct - Per the technical reference, steam voids can be encountered upstream of
the PCS check valves when the plant is at operating temperature, and the check
valves leak slightly. The water hammer is a concern if these steam voids collapse
during introduction of cooler water which will collapse the voids.

35

For a Large Break LOCA (which includes a Loss of All Offsite Power and a double-ended
break of the Cold Leg), which of the following represents the expected correct sequence of
events?
A. Start of HPSI and LPSI injection
Broken loop SIT starts injecting
Broken loop SIT empties
Remaining SITs start injecting
B. Broken loop SIT starts injecting
Broken loop SIT empties
Start of HPSI and LPSI injection
Remaining SITs start injecting
C. Start of HPSI and LPSI injection
Broken loop SIT starts injecting
Remaining SITs start injecting
Broken loop SIT empties
D. Broken loop SIT starts injecting
Remaining SITs start injecting
Start of HPSI and LPSI injection
Broken loop SIT empties

D. Broken loop SIT starts injecting
Remaining SITs start injecting
Start of HPSI and LPSI injection
Broken loop SIT empties

A.) Incorrect - Candidate fails to recognize that for the analyzed accident, pumps must be
sequenced on (which takes time); in the meantime, analysis shows the SITs will inject
first on the broken loop.
B.) Incorrect -
C.) Incorrect -
D.) Correct - This is the order of events as described in the FSAR. It is important that
operators know the expected response in order to monitor performance.

36

Following a plant start-up the ATC (at the controls) NCO notes rising level, pressure and
temperature trends in the Quench Tank T-73. After entering the appropriate ONP for a
primary coolant leak, the crew determines that there is a small leak past one of the
Pressurizer relief valves.
If pressure were allowed to rise, at what pressure would the rupture disc fail and what action
is directed to reduce/stop the leakage?
A.) 10 psig, vent Quench Tank to containment.
B.) 10 psig, Lower PCS pressure.
C.) 90 psig, vent Quench Tank to the Vent Gas Collection Header.
D.) 90 psig, Lower PCS pressure.

D.) 90 psig, Lower PCS pressure

A) Incorrect, 10 pounds is not the rupture point of the Quench Tank, it is the alarm point.
B) Incorrect, 10 pounds is not the rupture point of the Quench Tank, it is the alarm point.
C) Incorrect, the procedure doesn't direct venting the quench tank to reduce leakage.
D) Correct, 90 psig is the limit, and lowering PCS pressure is what is prescribed by the
procedure

37

The plant is in Mode 6 with the cavity flooded to 648'. NO refueling operations are in
progress. CCW Heat Exchanger E-54A has been removed from service to allow for a tube
inspection. No other safety related equipment is out of service.
If a loss of off-site power were to occur and all equipment responded as expected what action
would the control operators be REQUIRED to take?
A.) Ensure only one Component Cooling Water Pump is operating.
B.) Secure either LPSI Pump P-67A or P-67B.
C.) Secure Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps, P-8A and P-8B.
D.) Open CCW Hx E-54B Service Water Flow Valve CV-0826.

A.) Ensure only one Component Cooling Water Pump is operating

Explanation: A.) with only one heat exchanger in service the plant is only allowed to operate a
single CCW pump to prevent excessive CCW flow through the remaining CCW heat
exchanger. The normal shutdown sequencer will start two CCW pumps. As a result one
must be secured. B.) neither LPSI pump will start on a normal shutdown sequencer (they
only get a start signal on the DBA sequencer) the crew will actually need to start one per
ONP-17. C.) Auxiliary Feedwater pumps are given a start permissive. There is no auto start
of the auxiliary feedwater pumps on the normal shutdown sequencer. The CCW Hx E-54 V
service water flow CV-0826 fails to the open position.

38

The A channel of Pressurizer Pressure control is powered by .......
A.) Y-10
B.) Y-20
C.) Y-30
D.) Y-40

A.) Y-10

Explanation: A channel of the pressurizer pressure control is powered by Y-10. This is only a
two channel system so the correct answer is not as obvious as this may seem.

39

With the plant at full power, a loss of all offsite power occurs. All other plant equipment
functions as designed. On the Reactor trip what is the initial effect on Primary Coolant
System pressure (pressure at 10 seconds versus pre-trip), and the appropriate method for
controlling PCS pressure once entry into EOP-8.0, Loss of Forced Circulation, occurs?
A. pressure is higher; use Auxiliary Spray and Bus 1D heaters to control PCS pressure.
B. pressure is lower, operate Atmospheric Dump Valves to control PCS pressure.
C. pressure is higher; operate Atmospheric Dump Valves to control PCS pressure.
D. pressure is lower, use Auxiliary Spray and Bus 1D heaters to control PCS pressure

D) Correct, pressure lowers and the operator can reset Bus 1D heaters and align auxiliary
spray.

A) Incorrect, pressure lowers after this reactor trip.
B) Incorrect; candidate incorrectly applies guidance from EOP-3.0 (Station Blackout) that
use of ADVs is desired. Despite the loss of offsite power operators still have use of aux
spray and 1/2 heaters
C) Incorrect, pressure lowers after this reactor trip. Candidate incorrectly applies guidance
from EOP-3.0 (Station Blackout) that use of ADVs is desired. Despite the loss of offsite
power operators still have use of aux spray and 1/2 heaters
D) Correct, pressure lowers and the operator can reset Bus 1D heaters and align auxiliary
spray.

40

An ASI alarm will be annunciating for which one of the following conditions?
A.) Core Power 40%, ASI +0.10
B.) Core Power 40%, ASI -0.10
C.) Core Power 100%, ASI +0.10
D.) Core Power 100%, ASI -0.10

D.) Core Power 100%, ASI -0.10

Explanation: This question requires that the candidate have a basic understanding of the
shape of the Local Power Density Function that is the main input to the ASI alarm. The
correct answer can be reached by recognizing the that top core is more restrictive than
bottom core and that the LPD Function is more restrictive at high power.

41

With the plant at 100% power the control room receives both SIRW Tank Hi-Lo temperature
alarms. Control room determines that SIRW tank temperature is low at 74°F. An AO sent to
the field determines that the SIRW tank heat exchanger's steam side is water logged.
In addition to needing to raise the SIRW tank temperature what other impact does this alarm
have on plant operation?
A.) I&C needs to verify that the thermometers are reading accurately since the tanks T.S.
limit may be approached.
B.) The tank is potentially reaching the boron precipitation temperature if the tank's boron
is near the upper limit.
C.) If SIRW were used to flood the cavity during refueling the vessel minimum
temperature would be exceeded.
D.) The tank temperature has reached the point where it may contribute to overcooling
the vessel during a SBLOCA or an Excess Steam Demand event.

D.) The tank temperature has reached the point where it may contribute to overcooling
the vessel during a SBLOCA or an Excess Steam Demand event.

Explanation: A.) is wrong because the tech spec is set at 40°F and the alarm setpoint has
nothing to do with instrument uncertainties to the tech spec. This was true back when the
alarm setpoint was 45°F. B.) There is no potential for boron precipitation at the allowed tank
concentrations. This distracter was used because we have been trying to maintain SIRW
tank boron concentrations higher to support outage evolutions. C.) There is a concern with
respect to a vessel temperature below 73°F but that evolution would be done slowly, and you
can't go less than 73F by adding 74F water. D) The minimum temperature of the SIRW tank
was changed to reduce the likelihood of a PTS event based on PRA

42

Consider if the plant were to experience two separate excessive steam demand events inside
containment on the A steam generator. During both events the leak size was the same. The
only difference between the two events is that service water to containment was secured on
the second event.
During the second event, Pressurizer level would indicate ______ and the Steam Generator B
level would indicate ______ than during the first event. (assume between 1 to 2 hours into the
event)
A.) Higher, Lower
B.) Higher, Higher
C.) Lower, Higher
D.) Lower, Lower

B.) Higher, Higher

Explanation: Both of these level instruments have external wet reference legs that are
exposed to containment conditions. The higher containment temperature caused by the lack
of service water would raise the temperature in these reference legs and lower the waters
density. This would cause them to indicate high.

43

Given the following conditions:
• A LOCA has occurred inside Containment.
• A Recirculation Actuation Signal (RAS) has been received.
• 2400V Bus 1D equipment is operating.
• 2400 V Bus 1C is de-energized and isolated due to a fault.
• The operators are aligning for recirculation in accordance with EOP-4.0, Loss of
Coolant Accident Recovery.
Which of the following alignments would provide the MAXIMUM permissible spray flow and
subcooling flow?
A.) ONE Containment Spray Valve open and
ONE HPSI Subcooling Valve open.
B.) ONE Containment Spray Valve open and
BOTH HPSI Subcooling Valves open.
C.) BOTH Containment Spray Valves open and
ONE HPSI Subcooling Valve open.
D.) BOTH Containment Spray Valves open and
BOTH HPSI Subcooling Valves open

A.) ONE Containment Spray Valve open and
ONE HPSI Subcooling Valve open.

a. Correct - With only 1 CS Pump and 1 HPSI Pump capable of operating, only 1 CS valve
and 1 HPSI subcooling valve are permitted to be open.
b. Only 1 HPSI subcooling valve can be open.
c. Only 1 CS valve can be open.
d. Only 1 CS valve and 1 HPSI subcooling valve are permitted to be open.

44

Which of the following combination of SIRWT levels will provide the required logic to generate
a Recirculation Actuation Signal (RAS)?

LS 0327 LS 0328 LS 0329 LS 0330
L R L R
A. 1% 5% 5% 1%
B. 1% 5% 1% 5%
C. 5% 1% 5% 1%
D. 5% 1% 5% 5%

A. 1% 5% 5% 1%

a. CORRECT RAS actuation requires either LS-0327 or LS-0329 below 2% AND either LS-
0328 or LS-0330 below 2%.
b. Plausible since combination of levels is required for RAS. Either LS-0328 or LS-0330
must also be below 2%.
c. Plausible since combination of levels is required for RAS. Either LS-0327 or LS-0329 must
also be below 2%.
d. Plausible since combination of levels is required for RAS. Either LS-0327 or LS-0329
must also be below 2%

45

Following a refueling outage, the plant is in a Chemistry Hold at 35% power, when the
Turbine Bypass Valve CV-0511 fails open.
Assuming no operator action and no change in turbine load, what is the approximate final
steady state reactor power level?
A.) 31%
B.) 35%
C.) 39%
D.) 43%

C.) 39%

a.) Candidate erroneously subtracts the 4% from initial power level. b.) Incorrectly believes
TBV steam load is not significant enough to cause a change in power. c.) CORRECT. The
TBV accounts for steam flow equivalent to ~4% power. d.) Incorrectly doubles TBV 4% load
and adds to initial power level.

46

Which of the following is NOT an action from ONP-23.2 to help limit the spread of
contamination following the discovery of a Steam Generator Tube Leak?
A.) Start a plant heating boiler.
B.) Route after condenser drains to the condenser.
C.) Isolate Steam Generator Blowdowns.
D.) Isolate the Main Steam Reheaters.

D.) Isolate the Main Steam Reheaters.

A) Incorrect a plant heating boiler is started so that all extraction steam can be isolated.
B) Incorrect after condenser drains can be routed to the floor for chemistry control, the
procedure ensures they are captured.
C) Incorrect blowdowns are isolated to keep contamination levels in the turbine building down.
D) Correct, there is no step in the ONP for isolating the reheaters.

47

With the plant at 70% power the steam flow indication to the 'A' Steam Generator Level
controller, FIC-0701, fails HIGH. Operators are alerted to the condition when EK-0961,
STEAM GEN E-50A HI LEVEL, alarms. The NCO reports the following conditions.
• A S/G Level 88% and lowering.
• B S/G Level 61% and rising quickly.
• A S/G Main Feed Reg. CV-0701 is closed.
• B S/G Main Feed Reg. CV-0703 is 70% open and closing.
• Both Main Feed Pump speeds are rising slowly.
What actions should the operator take in accordance with the appropriate procedure?
A.) Monitor S/G levels and ensure the level dominate system returns S/G levels to target.
B.) Take manual control of the Main Feed Reg. valves and restore levels to target.
C.) Trip the reactor, the high level override has failed and A S/G level cannot be
controlled.
D.) Trip the reactor, B S/G level response is abnormal indicating additional problems.

B.) Take manual control of the Main Feed Reg. valves and restore levels to target

Explanation: A) it is possible that the level control system could recover from this failure
without operator action, however it would not return level to target. It would restore level to
some value above the target. B) is correct per ONP-10. C) is built around a
misunderstanding of the automatic setpoint for the high level override. There is a trip
requirement at 90% - if the candidate misapplies this requirement they would chose C). A
candidate may select D) if they do not recognize how the B steam generator would respond to
the event described.

48

The plant is operating at full power. Auxiliary Feedwater Pump P-8A is out of service for an
oil change. Operators start to see a rising trend in RIA-0631, Condenser Off-gas monitor,
RIA-0707, Steam Generator Blowdown monitor, and RIA-2323 Main Steam E-50B monitor.
After a short time it is determined that the primary to secondary leakage exceeds the trip
criteria of ONP-23.2, Steam Generator Tube Leak, and the plant is manually tripped. On the
plant trip Bus 1D de-energizes, Diesel Generator 1-2 starts, but doesn't load. The first
attempt to close the diesel generator output breaker fails.
Once the crew has transitioned to EOP-5 Steam Generator Tube Rupture, which of the
following describes continued operation of Auxiliary Feedwater Pump P-8B?
A.) P-8B is receiving steam from the A Steam Generator and can continue to be operated.
B.) P-8B is receiving steam from the A Steam Generator, but should be secured until
faulted generator is isolated.
C.) P-8B is receiving steam from the B Steam Generator and should be secured while P-
8A is returned to service.
D.) P-8B is receiving steam from the B Steam Generator but can continue to be run until
P-8A is returned to service.

A.) P-8B is receiving steam from the A Steam Generator and can continue to be operated.

A.) There is no steam exhaust monitor on the steam driven auxiliary feedwater pump. The
original design had the auxiliary feedwater pump being supplied by either generator, but a
steam line failure resulted in the supply from the B steam generator being plugged. There is
no requirement to secure the steam driven auxiliary feedwater pump in the event of a steam
generator tube rupture if the steam driven auxiliary feedwater pump is needed.

49

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant is at full power.
• Auxiliary Feedwater Pump P-8A is out of service for maintenance.
• Both Main Feedwater Pumps, P-1A and P-1B spuriously trip.
• The Reactor is then manually tripped and the operators begin performing EOP-1.0,
Standard Post Trip Actions.
• AFAS actuates per design.
After transitioning to EOP-2.0, Reactor Trip Recovery, the operator notes that Auxiliary
Feedwater flow to BOTH S/Gs quickly lowers to zero.
Assuming no other failures, which one of the following RISING sump level trends is indicative
of a single AFW discharge piping leak?
A. Turbine Building sump
B. Containment sump
C. East Safeguards sump
D. West Safeguards sump

D. West Safeguards sump

A) Incorrect, P-8A and P-8B are in the turbine building. However for the conditions given P-
8C would be the first AFW Pump to start. While the leak would cause P-8B to start the stem
says assume no other failures so there would be no leakage in the turbine building.
B) Incorrect, While a single leak in the containment building might result in no flow going to
either steam generator there would be a significant flow indicated on the line with the break.
The flow indicators are on the line outside of containment. The stem says that both
indications go to zero
C) Incorrect, The candidate believes that P-8C is in east safeguards.
D) Correct. The leak is on the discharge of P-8C so the sump in this room will raise

50

The Preferred AC Bus Y-40 is being re-energized by its inverter. System Operating
Procedure SOP-30, Electrical Distribution, contains a Precaution and Limitation, and
prescribes a specific sequence of steps for performing this evolution, as follows: The inverter
is loaded PRIOR TO closing the CRD Clutch Power Supply (Breaker #11).
What concern is being addressed by this prescribed sequence of procedure steps?
A.) A Reactor trip from CRD power supply current surge.
B.) Overloading of the in-service battery charger (#2 or #4) due to CRD power supply
current surge.
C.) Clutch Power Supply insulation breakdown due to CRD power supply current surge.
D.) Overloading of the Preferred AC inverter transformer due to CRD power supply
current surge.

D.) Overloading of the Preferred AC inverter transformer due to CRD power supply
current surge

A) incorrect, right idea but this would only cause a half trip not a reactor trip
B) incorrect, this doesn't overload the charger.
C) incorrect, this doesn't damage the insulation, the breaker trips are properly set.
D) correct, per the procedure and plant OE.

51

The plant has tripped from full power due to a loss of all offsite power. NEITHER Diesel
Generator will start. For these conditions, which of the following describes the importance of
Station Battery Load Stripping, per EOP Supplements 7 and 8?
Station Battery load stripping is designed to ...
A.) extend battery capacity from 30 minutes to two hours while maintaining DC bus
voltage at greater than 105 volts.
B.) ensure that the emergency loads are supplied by DC voltage at greater than 120 volts
for a minimum of two hours.
C.) extend battery capacity from two hours to four hours while maintaining DC bus voltage
at greater than 105 volts.
D.) prevent overheating of the batteries by limiting DC bus amps to less than 50 amps.

C.) extend battery capacity from two hours to four hours while maintaining DC bus voltage
at greater than 105 volts.

During emergency operation, the station batteries capacity is sufficient to provide 125V DC
power to all expected loads (emergency and selected others) for two hours; and still have
capacity to close the circuit breakers necessary to restore power to the plant, an original
FSAR requirement. The two hour profile can be further extended to four hours by manually
stripping the selected loads (See Section 3.2.2).
A) incorrect this action extends performance to 4 hours not 2 hours.
B) the batteries supply 125 volts not 120 volts during the first 2 hours. This has nothing to do
with stripping of loads.
D) stripping is never recommended unless amps exceed 157 - 172 amps. 50 amps would be
less than expected and indicates candidate doesn't know what the normal accident load is

52

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant has experienced a loss of all offsite power.
• D/G 1-1 is running at a stable load of 2200 KW.
• D/G 1-2 is unavailable.
• T-10A, Fuel Oil Storage Tank, is at its low level alarm.
• There is an unrecoverable leak of 0.7 gpm from T-10A.
For the above conditions, how long will T-10A inventory be able to support D/G 1-1 operation
at its current load?
A.) 3.6 days
B.) 5.9 days
C.) 6.5 days
D.) 8.2 days

C.) 6.5 days

Explanation: A.) this answer is calculated assuming two diesels operating. B.) This answer
assumes maximum load from the graph not the stated load. C.) is correct 30500 gallons -
1008 gpd leakage, 3714 gpd use. D.) Fails to account for leakage.

53

Assume that a particular waste gas detector consists of a sensing crystal mounted on one
side of the pipe with a window through the pipe wall, the pipe is 4 inches in diameter.
Assume that the detector is a point detector located 1 inch from the ID of the pipe.

How big of an intensity change can the detector see from a point source (i.e. a hot particle)
that passes along the window and one that passes along the far side of the pipe?
A.) A factor of 4.
B.) A factor of 5.
C.) A factor of 16.
D.) A factor of 25.

D.) A factor of 25.

Explanation: Dose is proportional to the square of the distance. A count rate of 25 dpm at 1
inch would be equivalent of a count rate of 1 dpm at 5 inches. Wrong answers A) and C)
indicate that the candidate did not account for the distance from the edge of pipe to the
detector (1 inch). Wrong answer A and B use the wrong proportionality.

54

Non-critical Service Water has been isolated for maintenance and the containment air cooler
high capacity valves are closed to help raise containment temperature.
• It is day 40 of an extended plant outage.
• Service Water Pumps P-7A and P-7B are in-service.
• Service Water Pump P-7C is in standby.
• Service water header pressure is 80 psig.
To prevent P-7B from being run at significantly reduced flows, the CRS directs the NCO to
secure P-7B. When Service Water Pump P-7B is secured header pressure lowers to 45 psig,
Service Water P-7C starts, and header pressure returns to 80 psig.
Should Service Water Pump P-7C have started and why?
A.) Yes, a standby pump starts at 40 psig discharge pressure on either of the other pumps.
B.) Yes, a standby pump starts at 45 psig header pressure.
C.) No, the standby pump should not start when a pump is manually secured.
D.) No, the standby pump should not start until header pressure reaches 40 psig.

A.) Yes, a standby pump starts at 40 psig discharge pressure on either of the other pumps

Explanation: The setpoint is 40 psig, however it is not based on header pressure but pump
discharge pressure. Each pump has a pressure switch on each of the other pumps
discharge. So while header pressure remains above 40 psig, the discharge pressure of P-7B
will lower to less than 40 psig and P-7C will start.

55

An instrument air leak inside containment has prompted the control room to isolate instrument
air to containment. Following isolation of instrument air to containment the following alarms
are received due to valid signals.
• EK-0706 LETDOWN HX COOLING EXCESS FLOW
• EK-0753 PRESSURIZER PRESSURE OFF NORMAL HI-LO
• EK-0931 PRI COOLANT PUMP P-50A CLG WTR LO FLOW
• EK-1347 CONTAINMENT AIR COOLER SERV WATER LEAK
Which of these alarms is NOT expected based on the air leak and the isolation of instrument
air to containment?
A.) EK-0706 LETDOWN HX COOLING EXCESS FLOW
B.) EK-0753 PRESSURIZER PRESSURE OFF NORMAL HI-LO
C.) EK-0931 PRI COOLANT PUMP P-50A CLG WTR LO FLOW
D.) EK-1347 CONTAINMENT AIR COOLER SERV WATER LEAK

D.) EK-1347 CONTAINMENT AIR COOLER SERV WATER LEAK

Explanation: A) CV-0909 CCW to the letdown heat exchanger fails open and brings in this
alarm. B) Pressurizer Spray valves get their control air from Instrument Air and have no back
up. The heaters are energized and the controller has a continuous spray signal in during
normal operation to maintain target pressure. C) The excessive CCW flow to the letdown
heat exchanger can rob enough flow from the Primary Coolant Pumps to cause this alarm. D)
The 4 inch bypass lines around the VHX-1,2, and 3 heat exchangers outlet isolation valve will
fail closed. (the one for VHX-4 is permanently failed closed.) This will cause a change in
service water flow through containment but will not affect the containment service water leak
detector. The detector compares service water flow into and out of containment to look for
delta of 300 gpm.

56

With the plant at 100% power Control Rod 35 (Group 3 rod very center of the core) drops
halfway into the core (66 inches withdrawn). Five minutes after the rod has dropped into the
core what will ASI be, how will the NI power indications compare to the actual core power,
and what action should be taken to lower core power?
A.) ASI will be positive, NI power will be lower than actual, lower power with group 4 up to
80 inches inserted.
B.) ASI will be positive, NI power will be higher than actual, borate to lower reactor power.
C.) ASI will be negative, NI power will be lower than actual, lower power with group 4 up
to 80 inches inserted.
D.) ASI will be negative, NI power will be higher than actual, borate to lower reactor
power.

B.) ASI will be positive, NI power will be higher than actual, borate to lower reactor power

Explanation: Power will be suppressed in the top of the core. In a CE plant that results in ASI
being positive. NI power will be higher than actual because the radial core power profile will
have shifted toward the exterior. Xenon effects are minimized by the short time frame of the
question (i.e. 5 minutes) Since the NI's are primarily monitoring the exterior of the core they
will be at an elevated power compared to actual core power until they are recalibrated. In
ONP-5.1 rods are not to be used to lower core power. This reduces the value of the dropped
rod and maintains the maximum shutdown margin.

57

If a Core Exit Thermocouple (CET) develops an open circuit in the thermocouple detector, the
temperature indication will fail ...
A. high.
B. low.
C. to reference junction temperature.
D. as is.

B. low.

Because there is no current path the output will fail low

58

Which one of the following describes the operation of the containment Iodine Removal Fan
units (V-940A/V-940B) and associated charcoal filters?
A.) Automatically started on a Safety Injection Signal (SIAS) to remove I-131 generated in
a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA).
B.) Manually started during a normal Plant shutdown to remove I-131 for containment
habitability.
C.) Manually started during a normal Plant startup to minimize potential I-131 release to
the environment.
D.) Automatically start on a Containment High Pressure (CHP) to assist containment
Spray System in removing I-131 from containment.

B.) Manually started during a normal Plant shutdown to remove I-131 for containment
habitability.

A) Incorrect, these fans do not have an automatic start signal
B) Correct, fans must be manually started
C) Incorrect, these fans are not run during normal plant startup since there is no one in
containment. Not used to mitigate releases in this way.
D) Incorrect, these fans do not have an automatic start signal

59

During a routine at power containment entry an operator performing QO-5 Containment
Isolation Valve Test closes CWRT Vent Valve CV-1064. What impact, if any, does this have
on the operator's containment entry?
A.) The operator must don a respirator to continue containment tour.
B.) Dose rates and containment pressure will both start to rise significantly.
C.) Operator will be unable to use the Personnel Airlock due to the differential pressure
across the inner door.
D.) Maintenance of a containment vent path is not a condition of the containment entry
and its isolation does not effect the entry.

D.) Maintenance of a containment vent path is not a condition of the containment entry
and its isolation does not effect the entry.

Explanation: The containment purge system at Palisades is not used except in Mode 5
because the isolation valves are not rated to close against the dP that would be created
during an accident. As a result the containment is normally vented through the CWRTs.
However this vent path is not large and temporary opening and closing of this path is not
significant. As a result our containment entry procedures have been written to compensate
for the lack of a containment purge system. A) there is no requirement to have containment
vented. B) this is a small path, there would not be a noticeable change in containment
conditions. C) the air lock is designed to operate even with large dP's, this would not impact
air lock operation.

60

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant is in MODE 6.
• Fuel movements are in progress.
• Shutdown Cooling is in service with P-67B operating.
• LPSI Pump P-67B unexpectedly trips.
• Reactor cavity level remains stable.
What action is required and why?
A. Immediately attempt one start of P-67A to maintain decay heat removal.
B. Within ONE hour install the Spent Fuel Pool South Tilt Pit gate to preserve cooling to
the Spent Fuel Pool.
C. Raise reactor cavity water level by two feet to raise suction pressure to P-67B and
attempt one restart of P-67B.
D. Stop ALL fuel movements immediately because of concerns for loss of heat removal
and potential radiation hazard.

D. Stop ALL fuel movements immediately because of concerns for loss of heat removal
and potential radiation hazard.

A) Incorrect, Per ONP-17 the alternate LPSI pump cannot be started until the cause of the
trip is known.
B) Incorrect, There is a requirement to place the tilt pit gate in if refueling operations are
going to be stopped for twenty four hours - but the requirement is not that it be installed in one
hour nor is it done to isolate the SFP cooling system.
C) Incorrect, There are steps to raise PCS (cavity) level in ONP-17 but they do not apply to
this situation since the Pool will be near the upper limit of the cavity level to support refueling.
This action would overfill the cavity.
D) Correct, this is the immediate action per the procedure.

61

Given the following plant conditions:
● Plant is at 80% power and was performing a power escalation to full power when EK-
1364, "GASEOUS MONITORING HI RADIATION" annunciated.
● It is determined that this alarm is due to RIA-0631, Condenser Off-Gas Monitor in an alarm
condition.
● PCS total gas activity is 0.17 µCi/cc.
● Off Gas flow is 3 cfm.
● At 0610 RIA-0631 indicated 8.00 E3 cpm.
● At 0635 RIA-0631 indicates 1.00 E4 cpm.
● "B" Steam Generator is the affected generator.
What actions should be taken to address the above plant conditions?
A.) Trip the reactor and carry out the Immediate Actions of EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip
Actions"
B.) Plant management must evaluate the need to perform a controlled Plant shutdown per
GOP-8, "Power Reduction and Plant Shutdown".
C.) Place the Plant in Mode 3 within 6 hours per ONP-23.2, "Steam Generator Tube Leak",
Step 4.2.
D.) Place the Plant in Mode 3 within 2 hours per ONP-23.2, "Steam Generator Tube Leak",
Step 4.2.

D.) Place the Plant in Mode 3 within 2 hours per ONP-23.2, "Steam Generator Tube Leak",
Step 4.2.

a. Candidate selects incorrect answer if fails to use Att. 2 of ONP-23.2, or miscalculates and
arrives at an incorrect leak rate, or misuses the decision table based on rate of rise of
leak rate.
b. Candidate selects incorrect answer if the 2 cfm line on ONP-23.2, Att. 1 is used, or
misinterprets/miscalculates and arrives at an incorrect leak rate, or misuses the decision
table based on rate of rise of leak rate.
c. Candidate misinterprets/miscalculates and arrives at an incorrect leak rate, or misuses
the decision table based on rate of rise of leak rate.
d. CORRECT - Tube leak rate at 0610 = 0.0411 gpm. Tube leak rate at 0635 = 0.0541
gpm. This indicates a rate of rise of 0.031 gpm / hr which requires a plant shutdown
within 4 hours.

62

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant was at full power when the Reactor tripped.
• Atmospheric Dump Valve (ADV) controller, HIC-0780A, is in AUTO.
• Turbine Bypass Valve (TBV) controller, PIC-0511, is in AUTO.
• Main Condenser vacuum has reduced to 4".
• Instrument Air system pressure has reduced to 20 psig and is stable.
Which one of the following describes the response of the ADVs and the TBV, and what action
will the operators take for PCS heat removal?
A.) BOTH the TBV and the ADVs will close; operators will take action to remove PCS heat
using the Hogging Air Ejector.
B.) BOTH the TBV and the ADVs will close; operators will take action to remove PCS heat
using the once-through-cooling-method.
C.) ONLY the TBV will close; operators will take action to remove PCS heat using the
ADVs.
D.) ONLY the ADVs will close; operators will take action to remove PCS heat using the
TBV

C.) ONLY the TBV will close; operators will take action to remove PCS heat using the
ADVs

a. ADVs have nitrogen backup supply.
b. ADVs have nitrogen backup supply.
c. Correct - TBV fails closed on loss of air, and does not operate if condenser vacuum is
less than 5".
d. ADVs have nitrogen backup supply

63

The grid has experienced tornado damage but the Palisades switchyard is intact. The plant
was at 100% power and a loss of all offsite power occurs. The plant responds as follows:
• The Main Turbine automatically trips.
• The Reactor automatically trips.
• The Main Generator automatically trips.
• Immediately after trip, status of the Main Generator relays is as follows:
o 386Primary (386P) NOT Actuated
o 386Backup (386B) NOT Actuated
o 386Coastdown (386C) ACTUATED
Which one of the following describes the significance of the above relay status?
A.) Since neither the 386P nor the 386B relay actuated, the Main Generator has
experienced damage due to at least 10 seconds of motorizing.
B.) Because the 386C actuated, autostarting of Bearing Lift Pumps occurred, and
protected the bearings from damage.
C.) The 386P should have actuated. Because it did not, PCS temperature and pressure
will be not meet acceptance criteria of EOP-1.0, Standard Post Trip Actions.
D.) Because the 386C actuated, decay heat removal and development of natural
circulation have been enhanced.

D.) Because the 386C actuated, decay heat removal and development of natural
circulation have been enhanced.

A. It is expected for the conditions given that neither 386P or 386B would actuate, as these
are relays associated directly with faults on the Main Generator. There was no such fault for
these conditions. Since the Main Generator did automatically trip, motorizing did not occur.
B. Actuation of 386C should have occurred, however, its actuation actually aids in the development of natural circulation. C. The 386P should NOT have actuated for the given
conditions. D. CORRECT - 386C coastdown relay maintains inertially produced electrical
power to the PCPs for 10 seconds, for the above conditions.

64

With the plant in MODE 1, the following valid alarm is received:
• EK-1368, RADWASTE PANEL C-40 OFF NORMAL
The AO reports that a non-critical heat trace point associated with the discharge of Recycled
Boric Acid Pump P-96 is reading LOW at 150°F. For this heat trace point , the RED light is lit,
and the AMBER light is off.
Is the alarmed heat trace circuit energized, and what is the effect on the system?
A.) Yes. Temperature is expected to recover.
B.) Yes. Cannot transfer REBAT until the alarm is clear.
C.) No. Only the redundant channel of heat trace is available on this circuit.
D.) No. need to station portable heaters to prevent boron precipitation in these lines.

C) The primary circuit is not working correctly (yellow light not lit) have to monitor secondary
and get primary fixed.

A) Incorrect, the amber light should be lit indicating the circuit is energized.
B) Incorrect, the amber light should be lit indicating the circuit is energized.
C) The primary circuit is not working correctly (yellow light not lit) have to monitor secondary
and get primary fixed.
D) Incorrect, this action would only be needed if the secondary heat trace circuit also failed

65

During a loss of off-site power event ONLY Diesel Generator 1-1 starts and loads onto its
safety bus. Which service water pump(s) is/are available?
A.) P-7A
B.) P-7A and P-7C
C.) P-7B
D.) P-7A and P-7B

C.) P-7B

Explanation: Service water P-7B is powered by Bus 1C (D/G 1-1), Service water P-7A and P-
7C are power by Bus 1D (D/G 1-2). Since the stem states that Bus 1D is deenergized only P-
7B has power

66

Given the following plant conditions:
• PCS average temperature: 425°F
• All control rods: Fully inserted
• PCS cooldown rate: 30°F/hour
What is the current plant mode as defined in Palisades Technical Specifications for these
conditions?
A.) MODE 1
B.) MODE 2
C.) MODE 3
D.) MODE 4

C.) MODE 3

67

Excerpt from GOP-2 Mode 5 to Mode 3 ≥ 525°F

When PCS pressure is at 1700 psia, then verify SIAS unblocked (EK-1337, EK-1338, and EK-1339 clear).

When Associated S/G pressure is > 550 psia on 2 of 4 safety channels, then perform the following to verify MSIV closure unblocked.

Push HS/LPE-50A and verify EK-0970 clear.
Push HS/LPE-50B and verify EK-0970 clear

To perform the operation of verifying that MSIV closure is UNBLOCKED, how are the above
procedures to be implemented?
A.) You must EXIT GOP-2 and go to SOP-7 to perform the unblocking.
B.) You REMAIN in GOP-2 and refer to SOP-7 to perform the unblocking.
C.) Unblocking is performed per GOP-2 only. Use of SOP-7 is NOT required.
D.) Unblocking is performed per SOP-7 only. Use of GOP-2 is NOT required.

C.) Unblocking is performed per GOP-2 only. Use of SOP-7 is NOT required.

a. There is NO reference or direction to either REFER TO or GO TO the SOP.
b. There is NO reference or direction to either REFER TO or GO TO the SOP.
c. CORRECT - The details of the step are given in the GOP; no use of the SOP is
required. Also, SOP-7 makes no reference to this operation.
d. SOP-7 makes no reference to this operation. More importantly, the GOP is the
governing document and clearly prescribes required actions for the operation

68

Given the following conditions:
• The main flow through a pipe in a safety-related system at normal pressure is 100
gpm.
• A vent valve on the pipe will allow 4 gpm if full open at normal pressure.
• A drain valve on the pipe will allow 8 gpm if full open at normal pressure.
Which of the following describes the procedural requirements for locking devices for these
valves?
VENT VALVE DRAIN VALVE
A.) Lock Required Lock Required
B.) Lock Required Lock NOT Required
C.) Lock NOT Required Lock Required
D.) Lock NOT Required Lock NOT Required

C.) Lock NOT Required Lock Required

a. Plausible if candidate determines that all vent and drain valves require locks regardless
of flow value. Requirement is based on percentage of flow.
b. Plausible if candidates determines all vent valves require locks and drain valves do not.
Requirement is based on percentage of flow.
c. CORRECT Below 5% of flow a lock is not required. Above 5% flow a lock is required.
Vent valve does not require lock, but drain valve does. Plausible if candidate determines
value was greater than 5%. Limit is 5% of main flow.
d. Plausible if candidate determines value was greater than 5%. Requirement is based on
5% of main flow.

69

Refer to the following list of valve operations:
1. Close discharge valve.
2. Close suction valve.
3. Open discharge valve.
4. Open suction valve.
Which of the following describes the required sequence of valve operations when tagging out
and subsequently restoring to service of a centrifugal pump?
TAGOUT RESTORE
A.) 1,2 then 4,3
B.) 2,1 then 4,3
C.) 1,2 then 3,4
D.) 2,1 then 3,4

A.) 1,2 then 4,3

A) Correct, close discharge before suction, and open suction before discharge.
B) Incorrect, isolates suction first.
C) Incorrect, opens discharge first.
D) Incorrect, order for both tagout and restore wrong

70

A Technical Specification Action has the following requirements for completion time:

Condition
B. Required Action
and associated
Completion
Time not met.

Required Action (Completion time)

B.1 Be in MODE 3 (6hours)

AND

B.2 Be in Mode 5 (36hours)

This Action is entered at 0735 on Tuesday, and the plant enters MODE 3 at 1115 the same
day.
Which ONE of the following is the latest time by which the plant must be in MODE 5?
A.) 1715 Wednesday
B.) 1935 Wednesday
C.) 2315 Wednesday
D.) 0135 Thursday

B.) 1935 Wednesday

A) Incorrect, candidate has allowed only 30 hours from time of entry into mode 3.
B) Correct, 0735 plus 36 hours is 1935 on Wednesday.
C) Incorrect, candidate has allowed for 36 hours from the time of entry into mode 3.
D) Incorrect, candidate has allowed 42 hours from the time of entry into condition

71

An auxiliary operator will be working out on the reactor head with an NCO during control rod
coupling and testing. The auxiliary operator has received a total dose of 1890 mrem YTD.
An ALARA evaluation has been done and it has been decided that the operators will NOT
have respirator protection. The average dose rate on the head is 27 mrem/hr and 5 DAC.
How long can the AO support the NCO before reaching his annual administrative exposure
limit?
A.) 1 hour 5 min
B.) 2 hours 45 min
C.) 3 hours 25 min
D.) 4 hours 5 m

B.) 2 hours 45 min

Explanation: 1 DAC-hr is equal to 2.5 mrem. The administrative annual dose limit is 2000
mrem. The wrong answers are based on using 5/1 1/1 and 0/1 ratios. The 0/1 ratio would be
selected if the candidate did not think that DAC counted against the dose limits

72

Following a forced shutdown to repair a leaking CRDM seal, it is desired to perform ESSO-8,
Shutdown Cooling Heat Exchanger Radiation Level Reduction, which involves flushing the
SDC Heat exchanger with the SIRW Tank. Which of the following conditions will allow
performance of this procedure?
ADVs = Atmospheric Dump Valves
MO-3015/3016 = Shutdown Cooling Water Return Valves.
A.) MODE 4, ADVs available, MO-3015/3016 CLOSED.
B.) MODE 5, ADVs isolated, MO-3015/3016 OPEN.
C.) MODE 4, ADVs isolated, MO-3015/3016 OPEN.
D.) MODE 5, ADVs available, MO-3015/3016 CLOSED.

A.) MODE 4, ADVs available, MO-3015/3016 CLOSED

A) Correct, Plant needs to be in Mode 4 (to allow PCS to be cooled by S/G), ADVs must be
available, and shutdown cooling must be isolated.
B) Incorrect, SDC would be needed to cool PCS in mode 5. Candidate may have
misconception of ESSO-8.
C) Incorrect, SDC needs to be isolated in order for the heat exchangers to be filled with low
activity water.
D) Incorrect, SDC would be needed to cool PCS in mode 5.

73

Given the following conditions:
• A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred on SG ‘A’.
• SG ‘A’ has been isolated.
• HPSI Pumps have been secured.
• A cooldown is in progress using SG ‘B’ ADVs.
• 'B' S/G pressure is currently at 650 psia.
• SG ‘A’ indicated level is at 142% and slowly rising.
• SG ‘A’ pressure is 840 psia.
• Pressurizer pressure is 920 psia.
• Pressurizer level is 44%.
• All PCPs are secured.
For these conditions Pressurizer pressure should be ...
A.) REDUCED to less than 790 psia to ensure main steam code safeties remain closed.
B.) REDUCED to less than 840 psia to establish backflow from SG ‘A’ to the PCS.
C.) RAISED to at least 970 psia to maintain adequate subcooling.
D.) RAISED to at least 940 psia to prevent backflow dilution of the PCS.

B.) REDUCED to less than 840 psia to establish backflow from SG ‘A’ to the PCS.

A.) Temperature is reduced to less than 524 to prevent main steam code safeties from
lifting, this corresponds to 840 psia not 790 psia.
B.) CORRECT
C.) The affected S/G level is to be maintained less than 140%. Backflow must be
established. Raising Pressurizer pressure would raise the rate of S/G level rise. The
'B' S/G that is be used for PCS cooling indicates adequate subcooling.
D.) Raising Pressurizer pressure to at least 940 psia would indeed prevent backflow to
the PCS; however, per the EOP basis document, the amount of dilution would not
jeopardize shutdown margin.

74

Full power, following occurs.
PCS LOCA occurs
The operating crew is performing EOP-1.0 SPTA
All 4 PCPs are running
Ppzr rapidly lowers to 750 psia, and now is slowly lowering.
PCS Ths indicate 500F and lowering.

Regarding contingency actions for PCPs the NCOs responsibilites including.

A. immediately tripping all four PCPs, and THEN announcing which action was taken.
B. announcing the action to be taken, providing opportunity for intervention from the crew,
and THEN tripping all four PCPs.
C. advocating the need to trip all four PCPs, obtaining permission from the CRS, and
THEN performing the action once permission is given.
D. announcing Pressurizer pressure value, providing opportunity for CRS to direct the
action.

B. announcing the action to be taken, providing opportunity for intervention from the crew,
and THEN tripping all four PCPs

A. Incorrect - Per EOP Performance Standards (AP 4.06, Att. 15), the operator shall take the
action, AFTER allowing a short pause for crew intervention.
B. CORRECT - Per Technical Reference.
C. Incorrect - It is important for the operator to immediately take the action, without any
direction from the CRS.
D. Incorrect - Candidate correctly recognizes abnormal Pressurizer pressure concern, but
fails to correctly apply EOP Performance Standards.

75

The following plant conditions exist:
• Reactor Power 100%.
• Instrument Air Compressors C-2A in HAND.
• Instrument Air Compressor C-2B in AUTO.
• Instrument Air Compressor C-2C is OOS for maintenance.
• The Instrument Air system experiences a transient that momentarily dropped pressure
in the header to 86 psig. Pressure recovers within two (2) minutes and stabilizes at 99
psig.
• Control Room alarm EK-1105, "AIR COMPRESSORS STANDBY COMP RUNNING" is
in alarm.
• Instrument Air Compressor, C-2B "RED" indicating light above the control switch is on.
Ten minutes after C-2B started, the Auxiliary Operator calls to report that Instrument Air
Compressor, C-2B is not running.
This condition is present due to the fact that the Instrument Air Compressor, C-2B ...
A.) started in the loaded condition and therefore tripped on overcurrent.
B.) started and cycled on and off to maintain header pressure between 85-100 psig.
C.) started unloaded and therefore tripped on low lube oil pressure.
D.) ran unloaded for more than 6 minutes and then automatically shut down

D.) ran unloaded for more than 6 minutes and then automatically shut down

A) Incorrect, loading is controlled by the start circuitry and doesn't cause a trip.
B) Incorrect, these compressors do not shutdown when maintaining pressure in the required
band.
C) Incorrect, the low lube oil pressure trip is also controlled by the start circuitry.
D) Correct, since it was started on a transient and then the load returned to normal, C-2A was
able to maintain load. When this happens C-2B goes into 'sleep' mode as described in the
answer