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3 past papers > 2016 MSA > Flashcards

2016 MSA Flashcards

1
Q

List 4 risk factors for candidosis

A

Immunocompromised
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Advanced HIV infection
Diabetes mellitus

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2
Q

Name the organism and virulence factor that causes candidosis

A

C. albicans
Hydrolytic enzymes eg phospholipase causes host cell penetration

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3
Q

How does a biofilm form?

A

Adhesion
Colonisation
Accumulation
Formation of a complex community
Dispersal

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4
Q

How would you test for C. albicans and suggest a lab identification method

A

Oral swab from localised area
16S rRNA gene sequencing

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5
Q

Give an example of an azole antifungal and describe its mechanism of action

A

Fluconazole
Inhibits synthesis of ergosterol, a component of the fungal cell membrane

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6
Q

Give an example of a polyene antifungal and describe its mechanism of action

A

Nystatin
Binds to ergosterol, increasing membrane permeability and eventually leading to cell death

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7
Q

Give 3 study designs other than RCT

A

Cohort study
Cross sectional study
Case control study

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8
Q

Describe a cohort study

A

Follows a group of individuals over time to identify those that develop a certain disease to investigate incidence and risk factors

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9
Q

Describe a cross sectional study

A

Observation of defined population at a certain time to investigate prevalence and risk factors of a disease

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10
Q

Describe a case control study

A

Study of people with a disease and a suitable control group of people without the disease
Looks back in time at exposure to particular risk factors in both groups

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11
Q

What is the preferred method of correcting an amalgam overhang?

A

Remove the entire restoration and replace it with a new one

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12
Q

Give 5 functions of a provisional crown

A

To maintain aesthetics
To maintain occlusal relationship
To maintain masticatory function of tooth
To test run fit of definitive crown
Prevent sensitivity due to exposed dentine

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13
Q

Name 3 types of prefabricated crowns

A

Stainless steel
Polycarbonate
Clear plastic

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14
Q

List 2 disadvantages of a prefabricated crown

A

Large bank of crowns needed
Unlikely to fit cervically, interproximally or occlusally

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15
Q

List 2 treatment steps of an ED fracture in an 8 year old boy

A

Either bond fragment to tooth or place composite bandage
Take 2 periapical radiographs to rule out root fracture or luxation

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16
Q

List 4 radiographic signs of a non-vital tooth

A

Loss of PDL space
Loss of lamina dura
Root resorption
Periapical radiolucency

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17
Q

List 4 things from a trauma stamp

A

Any 4 from:
- TTP
- Percussion note
- ECl
- EPT
- Colour
- Mobility
- Radiograph
- Sinus

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18
Q

Explain the pattern of distribution of nursing caries

A

Lower incisors protected from decay by tongue
Maxillary incisors are the first to experience cariogenic challenge and suffer the most due to their early eruption
If the habit continues, the other teeth will be affected in sequence with their eruption order

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19
Q

Give 4 reasons for nursing caries

A

Poor OH
Inappropriate use of bottle feeding
Prolonged breastfeeding
Child swirls liquid around mouth instead of swallowing

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20
Q

What flouride regime would you use for a 2 year old with high caries risk in a dental setting

A

Sodium fluoride varnish 22,600ppm twice yearly
Recommend using a smear of 1,000-1,500ppm fluoride tooth paste

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21
Q

What 4 things for tooth brushing would you advise for a 2 year old with high caries risk?

A

Parental supervision when brushing
Spit, don’ rinse
Brush last thing at night and one other time during the day
Use 1,000-1,500ppm fluoride toothpaste

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22
Q

Name 3 types of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s
Vascular
Dementia with Lewy bodies

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23
Q

List 4 signs of late stage dementia

A

Inability to recognise familiarly people, objects and surroundings
Incontinence
Gradual loss of speech
Difficulty eating and swallowing

24
Q

Name 2 cognitive tests for dementia?

A

Mini-mental state examination
Blessed dementia scale

25
Q

List 3 ways a dental practice can be made dementia friendly

A

Reception desk visible from entrance
Signage at eye level with simple, clear text and colour
Colour and tone of walls distinctive from flooring

26
Q

What is meant by a dentally fit patient?

A

Good oral hygiene with no active caries or dental infection

27
Q

What is an MDT?

A

Multidisciplinary team
Group of medical professionals that share their expertise to provide the best holistic care for a patient

28
Q

List 4 members who could be in an MDT?

A

Dentist
Oncologist
Surgeon
Pathologist

29
Q

Name 3 complications of radiotherapy to the head and neck

A

Trismus
Increased risk of ORN
Oral mucositis

30
Q

List 4 modifiable factors for the aetiology of head and neck cancer

A

Smoking
Alcohol consumption
Sun exposure
Malnutrition

31
Q

List 4 signs of a digit sucking habit

A

Proclined upper incisors
Retroclined lower incisors
Anterior open bite
Unilateral posterior crossbite

32
Q

How does a digit sucking habit affect the posterior dentition?

A

Lower position of tongue causes musculature to move the teeth palatally narrowing the upper arch
The mandible must deviate upon closing to achieve ICP causing a unilateral posterior crossbite

33
Q

Define a local malocclusion

A

A local problem or abnormality affecting 1, 2 or several teeth in either arch that produces a malocclusion

34
Q

Name 4 conditions of tooth number which can result in malocclusion

A

Supernumeraries
Hypodontia
Retained primary teeth
Early loss of primary teeth

35
Q

List 4 supernumerary teeth

A

Conical
Tubercular
Supplemental
Odontome

36
Q

What is meant by SIMD?

A

Scottish Index of Multiple Deprivation
Ranks data zones based on levels of deprivation using factors such as education, housing, employment, income and crime

37
Q

What are 2 roles of epidemiology?

A

To assess people’s risk of disease
To study the causes and determinants of disease

38
Q

Define incidence

A

The amount of new cases of a disease in the population in a specific time period

39
Q

Define prevalence

A

Proportion of the population affected by a disease at a single point in time

40
Q

Name the constituents of stainless steel and their proportions

A

Iron - 72%
Chromium - 18%
Nickel - 8%
Titanium - 1.7%
Carbon - 0.3%

41
Q

What is work hardening?

A

Work done to a metal at low temperature such ad bending, rolling or swaging
Causes dislocations at grain boundaries making a harder, stronger material

42
Q

What is meant by springiness?

A

The ability of a material to undergo large deflections without permanent deformation

43
Q

Give 2 disadvantages of self-cure PMMA

A

Poor mechanical properties
Allergy to residual monomer

44
Q

Name 4 factors which can result in tooth mobility?

A

Occlusal trauma
Attachment loss
Root resorption
Periodontal inflammation

45
Q

Name 2 circumstances of tooth mobility that you would intervene

A

If mobility is symptomatic
If mobility is progressively increasing

46
Q

Would you expect tooth mobility to increase or decrease in a patient with moderate/advanced periodontal disease, following HPT. Explain why?

A

Decrease
Removal of bacteria causing attachment loss will promote attachment of long junctional epithelium to the root, increasing stability of the tooth

47
Q

A patient has mobile lower incisors and refuses XLA. What would you advise him and what are the disadvantages of this?

A

Splinting
Can create difficulties in oral hygiene

48
Q

A patient has an unstable INR. How would the GP assess this?

A

FBC to assess patients blood clotting factors
Adjustment in dosage or type of anticoagulant medication

49
Q

What is the mechanism of apixaban?

A

Factor Xa inhibitor

50
Q

How is facial palsy caused?

A

LA injected in to the parotid gland which is enclosed by the parotid capsule
Causes anaesthesia of the facial nerve and paralysis of the facial muscles innervated by it

51
Q

Give 3 differences between stroke and a facial palsy

A

Stroke only affects lower facial muscles, not upper
LA causes palsy of the same side
Stroke causes palsy of the opposite side

52
Q

Name 4 ways you could initially manage a facial palsy

A

Reassure the patient
Inform patient sensation will return in a few hours
Keep eye patch over eye to prevent drying out as patient does not have blink reflex
Assess whether it is a facial palsy or a stroke

53
Q

How would you determine if an impression is usable?

A

Accuracy of capturing tooth position
Fine detail reproduction
Material uniformity

54
Q

List 4 potential faults of an inlay impression?

A

Distortion or tears
Air bubbles or voids
Poor detail reproduction
Insufficient thickness

55
Q

How would you decontaminate an impression?

A

Place in perform solution for 10 minutes
Rinse before and after placing in perform
Wrap in damp gauze and place in a sealable, labelled bag

3 past papers (10 decks)

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