2017 MSA Flashcards

1
Q

What is reversible pulpitis?

A

Pulpal inflammation that should resolve following removal of the etiology
Short/sharp pain on application of cold stimulus which lingers for a few seconds after stimulus removed

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2
Q

What is symptomatic irreversible pulpitis?

A

Pulpal inflammation that is incapable of healing
Characterised by sharp pain upon thermal stimulus and lingering pain for more than 30s after stimulus is removed
Pain is spontaneous and keeps patient awake at night, analgesics typically ineffective

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3
Q

If a patient has sensitivity to heat and cold lasting for a few seconds, what is the diagnosis?

A

Reversible pulpitis

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4
Q

If a patient has pain on pressure, what is the diagnosis?

A

Symptomatic apical periodontitis

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5
Q

What is the treatment for reversible pulpitis?

A

Removal of stimulus and review to check if pulp has returned to normal status

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6
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic apical periodontitis?

A

RCT or extraction

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7
Q

What is gaseous porosity?

A

Voids in the material occurring when PMMA is cured fast
Usually happens in thicker sections of the acrylic

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8
Q

What 2 things does a mould liner help with?

A

More comfortable in patients mouth
Can promote healing and reduce inflammation of soft tissues
Distributes occlusal forces more evenly

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9
Q

Give 2 reasons why you can’t leave acrylic dentures in dry environments for too long

A

Warping so denture may be unable to fit patient
Can lose moisture and become brittle

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10
Q

Give two thermal properties of acrylic dentures and explain why they are important

A

Low thermal conductivity - denture base is not be able to transmit heat well to the palate therefore patient is less sensitive to the temperature of food and liquids
High softening temperature - must inform the patient not to clean the denture using boiling water

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11
Q

What radiograph can be taken for an uncooperative child with caries on 16, 36 and 46 that need extraction?

A

OPT

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12
Q

What would you do with the 26 if 16, 36 and 46 need extracted?

A

Compensating extraction

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13
Q

What things should you look out for in a radiograph to choose a suitable time for permanent molar extraction?

A

Calcification of bifurcation of 7s
Presence of 8s

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14
Q

Give 2 advantages of extraction of permanent molars at the correct time

A

Allows for a caries free dentition
Allows for space closure through mesial drift of 7s

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15
Q

Give 2 disadvantages of extraction of permanent molars at the correct time

A

Associated risks of GA
Extraction of permanent molar can be demanding for a child at this stage and negative experiences may affect future dental visits

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16
Q

Name 2 things needed for a 3 year old child to carry out extractions

A

Gain consent from person with parental responsibility
Write referral letter for GA

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17
Q

Give 4 peri-operative complications during extraction of a mandibular premolar

A

Abnormal resistance
Soft tissue damage
Damage to nerves
Alveolar bone fracture

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18
Q

What 2 types of administration of LA is needed for extraction of a mandibular premolar?

A

Buccal infiltration
Lingual infiltration

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19
Q

Give 2 ways you can check for anaesthesia?

A

Probe into the gingival sulcus around the tooth and check if any pain is felt
Ethyl chloride test should have no response

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20
Q

Name 3 neurone-sensory defecits

A

Paraesthesia
Anaesthesia
Hypoaesthesia

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21
Q

Name 3 possible causes of neuro-sensory defecits

A

Crushing
Cutting injury
Transection of nerve

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22
Q

Give 4 signs that trauma in a child is non-accidental

A

Delay in presentation
Untreated injury
Repeated injuries
History of injuries don’t match clinical findings

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23
Q

Name 2 effects trauma has on the primary dentition

A

Discolouration
Infection

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24
Q

Name 4 effects primary trauma has on the permanent dentition

A

Delayed eruption
Ectopic eruption
Ankylosis
Dilaceration of root

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25
Q

Give 4 ways to stop a digit sucking habit

A

Positive reinforcement
Elastoplast on finger
Habit breaker device
Bitter tasting nail polish

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26
Q

Name 4 occlusal presentations of digit sucking

A

Proclined upper incisors
Retroclined lower incisors
Anterior open bite
Unilateral posterior crossbite

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27
Q

Explain what happens to the posterior dentition during thumb sucking

A

Thumb is placed where tongue should be so cheek muscles push upper teeth palatally resulting in a narrower upper arch
The teeth meet cusp to cusp so the mandible must deviate to one side on closing to achieve ICP, resulting in a unilateral posterior crossbite

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28
Q

What is the Scottish Index of Multiple Deprivation?

A

Area based index which ranks data zones within Scotland in order of deprivation

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29
Q

Give 4 modifiable aetiologies of head and neck cancer

A

Smoking
Alcohol intake
Sun exposure
Malnutrition

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30
Q

Name 2 common reasons for an unerupted central incisor

A

Trauma
Supernumeraries

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31
Q

Give 4 steps to help with clinical diagnosis of an unerupted central incisor at the same visit

A

Detailed medical and dental history
Extraoral examination
Intra oral examination
Take a radiograph

32
Q

How should an unerupted central incisor be treated? (4 marks)

A

Remove primary teeth and supernumeraries
Create and maintain space
Monitor for 12 months if patient is under 9
Expose and bond gold chain and apply orthodontic traction

33
Q

What antibiotic, dose, amount and duration is prescribed for acute necrotising gingivitis?

A

Metronidazole 400mg 3 times daily for 3 days

34
Q

What 2 pieces of advice should be given about metronidazole?

A

Do not drink alcohol
It interacts with warfarin

35
Q

What 2 treatments should be given on a follow up appointment for necrotising gingivitis?

A

Debridement with LA
OHI

36
Q

Give 2 ways biofilms help with resistance

A

ECM acts as a physical barrier preventing antimicrobial agents from penetrating
ECM impairs diffusion of antimicrobial agents

37
Q

Name 2 microorganisms associated with caries

A

S. mutans
A.a

38
Q

Name 2 perio microorganisms (red socransky’s)

A

P. gingivalis
T. forsythia

39
Q

What aids acid adherence and acid tolerance in caries forming microorganisms? (2 marks)

A

Adhesins - proteins that bind to tooth surface
Extracellular polysaccharides - form a sticky matrix

40
Q

What is a null hypothesis?

A

Statement suggesting there is no statistical significance in a set of data

41
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

Range you can be confident data will lie within 95 times out of 100

42
Q

What is an odds ratio?

A

The chances of the event happening in the exposure group over the chances of the event happening in the placebo group

43
Q

What are the 2 types of manual washing?

A

Immersion
Non-immersion

44
Q

Give an example of an instrument used in each type of washing

A

Immersion - dental mirror
Non-immersion - handpiece

45
Q

Why do we degas an ultrasonic?

A

There are air bubbles inside water normally, during the process any bubbles created will collapse into air bubbles
This would reduce the efficiency of the machine

46
Q

How often do you degas an ultrasonic?

A

Before every production cycle

47
Q

Why shouldn’t handpieces be placed in an ultrasonic?

A

They shouldn’t be immersed in water
The ultrasonic activity can damage the high speed turbine of the hand piece

48
Q

Why is demineralised water used in a steriliser?

A

The substance in mineralised water endotoxin would coat the surface of the instruments if used

49
Q

What are the constituents of GP?

A

GP - 15%
Zinc oxide - 65%
Radiopacifier - 15%
Plasticiser - 5%

50
Q

Give 3 reasons for obturating

A

Entomb remaining surviving microorganisms within the root canal system
Prevent ingress of fluid into root canal space which will promote growth of the surviving microorganisms
Prevent entry of microbes from the oral environment due to coronal leakage

51
Q

Give 2 properties of non-setting CaOH

A

High pH - antimicrobial properties
Prolonged effect

52
Q

What are 3 functions of a sealer?

A

Lubricate canal
Seal space between dentinal wall and core
Fill voids and irregularities within canal

53
Q

Name 2 things that provide retention for a denture?

A

Border seal
Incorporation of post dam

54
Q

What 2 anatomical features help identify where the posterior border should be placed for the upper denture?

A

Hamular notch
Vibrating line

55
Q

What 2 impression materials would you take for an edentulous patient on the mandibular arch?

A

Alginate
Polyether

56
Q

What is being dentally fit?

A

Good oral health with no active caries or dental infections and having good oral hygiene

57
Q

What is a multidisciplinary team?

A

Group of healthcare professionals from different specialities who work together to provide the best and most holistic care possible for the patient

58
Q

Name 4 people that can be involved in a MDT

A

Dentist
Surgeon
Oncologist
Pathologist

59
Q

Name 4 oral implications of radiotherapy

A

Xerostomia
Oral mucositis
Increased risk of ORN
Limited opening due to trismus

60
Q

What 3 features of cerebral palsy impair access to the mouth?

A

Muscle stiffness
Muscle weakness
Random and uncontrolled body movements

61
Q

Name 2 ways to open a patients mouth?

A

Open wide mouth rests
Bedi shield

62
Q

Give 2 ways to tilt a patient back for access

A

Wheelchair recliner
Reclining wheelchair

63
Q

How can you ensure a patient has access to the upper floor?

A

Handrail
Lift

64
Q

What can you use to communicate if a patient cannot speak or write?

A

Makaton
Picture boards
Electrical tablet

65
Q

What are the differences between medical models and social models in relation to disability?

A

Social models - disability is caused by how society is organised rather than the persons difference
Medical models - disability is caused by a persons abnormality and should be fixed through medicine

66
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

Dry mouth caused by reduced salivary flow

67
Q

Name 4 oral problems exacerbated by xerostomia

A

Caries
Periodontal disease
Candida infection
Oral mucositis

68
Q

Name 4 drugs that cause xerostomia

A

Tricyclics
Diuretics
Nicotine
Opioids

69
Q

Name 2 other causes of xerostomia

A

Radiotherapy
HIV

70
Q

Why may anteriors be magnified in an OPT?

A

Canine positioned behind canine guidance line (patient too far back in machine)

71
Q

Why may posteriors be magnified on one side of an OPT?

A

Patient rotated in the machine

72
Q

What plane is horizontal to the floor during an OPT?

A

Frankfort plane

73
Q

What kind of OPT should be taken for a partially erupted 48, no sign of 38?

A

Righ sided OPT

74
Q

What OPT radiograph should be taken for a child who is unable to take bitewings?

A

OPT setting for deciduous dentition

75
Q

In an OPT, what part of the maxillary sinus is immediately above the premolars and immediately above the third molars?

A

Premolars - inferior border
Third molars - posterior border

76
Q

Where is the mental foramen?

A

Between the apices of the lower premolars

77
Q

What 2 structures does the mental nerve innervate?

A

Lower lip
Chin