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Microbiology > Micro Chapter 34 > Flashcards

Micro Chapter 34 Flashcards

1
Q

The function of the specific immune system in vertebrates is
A) To recognize anything that is foreign material to the body
B) To respond to foreign material in the body
C) To remember foreign invaders
D) All of the above

A

D

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2
Q

Which of the following is true of the specific immune response?
A) Immune cells respond similarly to host cells and foreign cells
B) Immune cells recognize and respond specifically to trillions of foreign substances
C) The immunity to one pathogen confers immunity to others
D) Re-exposure to the same pathogen results in a generalized response

A

B

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3
Q 
The action of specific kinds of T lymphocytes that directly attack foreign or abnormal cells is called
		A)	Humoral immunity
		B)	Cellular immunity
		C)	Lymphocytic immunity
		D)	Memory response
A

B

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4
Q 
The action of antibodies on the surface of B cells is called
		A)	Humoral immunity
		B)	Cellular immunity
		C)	Lymphocytic immunity
		D)	None of the above
A

A

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5
Q 
Self and non-self substances that elicit an immune response are called
		A)	Antibodies
		B)	Antigens
		C)	B cells
		D)	T cells
A

B

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6
Q 
Regions or sites of the antigen that bind a specific antibody or T-cell receptor are called
		A)	Haptens
		B)	Variable regions
		C)	Epitopes
		D)	None of the above
A

C

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7
Q 
The ability of an antibody to bind antigen at all antigen-binding sites is known as
		A)	Antibody affinity
		B)	Antibody avidity
		C)	Valence capability
		D)	Humoral immunity
A

B

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8
Q 
Penicillin only becomes antigenic when it is complexed with serum proteins; therefore, penicillin is an example of a(n)
		A)	Epitope
		B)	Hapten
		C)	Antibody
		D)	Receptor
A

B

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9
Q

Which type of immunity is the result of an individual developing his or her own immune response to a microbial infection?
A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired active immunity
D) Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

C

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10
Q

Which type of immunity is the result of receiving preformed immunity made by another person; for example, transfer via breastfeeding?
A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired active immunity
D) Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

D

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11
Q

Which type of immunity is the result of one person receiving preformed immunity made by another person through a medical procedure such as a bone marrow transplant?
A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired active immunity
D) Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

B

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12
Q

Which type of immunity is the result of a person developing his or her own immune response to a microbe introduced through vaccination?
A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired active immunity
D) Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

A

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13
Q

The collection of genes that code for self vs. non-self recognition in vertebrates is called the
A) Interferon
B) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
C) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
D) Immunoglobin G

A

C

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding class I MHC molecules?
A) They are found only on red blood cells
B) They are required for T-cell communication
C) They are transmembrane proteins
D) They are important to MHC typing for organ transplantation

A

D

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15
Q 
In endogenous antigen processing, foreign antigen is presented to which type of cells?
		A)	B cells
		B)	Helper T cells
		C)	Cytotoxic T cells
		D)	Red blood cells
A

C

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding exogenous antigen processing?
A) Involves class II MHC molecules only
B) Antigen is taken into host cells via endocytosis or phagocytosis
C) Antigen is processed and presented to helper T cells
D) All of the above

A

D

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17
Q

Clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules are
A) Cell-surface proteins
B) Used to determine the cell’s identity
C) Receptors
D) All of the above

A

D

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18
Q 
Which of the following cluster of differentiation (CD) molecules functions as a T-cell antigen receptor?
		A)	CD1
		B)	CD3
		C)	CD8
		D)	CD34
A

B

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19
Q 
Where do T cells originate?
		A)	CD34+ stem cells in the bone marrow
		B)	Thymus
		C)	Spleen
		D)	Lymph nodes
A

A

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20
Q

Which of the following is true regarding T cells?
A) All cells formed will become activated immune cells
B) Maturation occurs in the thymus
C) Naïve T cells are activated by a specific MHC-antigen
D) All of the above

A

B

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21
Q

What is the function of T-helper (TH) cells?
A) To destroy host cells infected with pathogens
B) To distinguish between self and non-self
C) To phagocytose microbes
D) To interact will B cells to produce antibody

A

D

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22
Q

What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)?
A) Kills cells expressing foreign specific antigen on class I MHC
B) Produces cytokines that activate macrophages
C) Produces cytokines that promote B-cell maturation and humoral immune responses
D) All of the above

A

A

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23
Q

Cytotoxic T cells destroy pathogens by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Release of perforin that makes pores inside the target cell membrane
B) Release of granzymes that induce apoptosis
C) Induces the FAs-FasL pathway that results in apoptosis
D) All of the above

A

D

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24
Q

Which of the following is true of T cell activation?
A) Only requires interaction between MHC molecule of an antigen presenting cell (APC) with the appropriate T cell receptor
B) Only requires the binding of the B7 protein on the antigen presenting cell (APC) with the appropriate T cell receptor
C) Requires both A and B
D) None of the above

A

C

25
Q 
Proteins that induce extensive T cell activation when no specific antigen has triggered them are called
		A)	Co-stimulators
		B)	Superantigens
		C)	Haptens
		D)	Immunoglobins
A

B

26
Q 
Which of the following molecules is classified as a superantigen?
		A)	Penicillin
		B)	Mold spores
		C)	Staphylococcal enterotoxins
		D)	All of the above
A

C

27
Q

Which of the following is true of B cells?
A) They mature in the thymus and lymph nodes
B) They secrete antibodies
C) They activate T cells
D) All of the above

A

B

28
Q

Activation of B cells occurs by which of the following mechanisms?
A) A T cell associates with a B cell displaying an activated antigen-MHC complex
B) A T cell secretes growth factors that stimulate proliferation and differentiation of B cells into plasma cells that secrete antibodies
C) Interaction with antigen triggers antibody secretion in B cells directly
D) All of the above

A

D

29
Q 
Which of the following best describes the molecular structure of an antibody?
		A)	Cross-linked polysaccharides
		B)	Glycoproteins
		C)	Lipids
		D)	All of the above
A

B

30
Q 
Which of the following best describes the shape of an antibody?
		A)	Multi-ring structure
		B)	Long and filamentous
		C)	Circular
		D)	Y-shaped
A

D

31
Q 
Which portion of the antibody binds with the host cell receptor?
		A)	Crystallizable fragment (Fc)
		B)	Antigen-binding fragment (Fab)
		C)	Constant regions
		D)	Hinged regions
A

A

32
Q

Which of the following is true regarding immunoglobin binding to pathogenic cells?
A) The binding of the antibody usually destroys the antigen
B) The antibody must bind the antigen exactly with a lock-and-key fit
C) Strong covalent bonding binds antigen and antibody
D) All of the above

A

B

33
Q 
The major immunoglobin in human serum is
		A)	Immunoglobin A
		B)	Immunoglobin E
		C)	Immunoglobin G
		D)	Immunoglobin M
A

C

34
Q 
Which immunoglobin exists in a pentameric or hexameric form and acts to agglutinate bacteria?
		A)	Immunoglobin A
		B)	Immunoglobin E
		C)	Immunoglobin G
		D)	Immunoglobin M
A

D

35
Q 
Which immunoglobin is most abundant in mucus secretions?
		A)	Immunoglobin A
		B)	Immunoglobin E
		C)	Immunoglobin G
		D)	Immunoglobin M
A

A

36
Q 
Which immunoglobins are associated with allergic and hypersensitivity responses?
		A)	Immunoglobin A
		B)	Immunoglobin E
		C)	Immunoglobin G
		D)	Immunoglobin M
A

B

37
Q

Antigen is first detectable during which of the following phases of the antibody response?
A) Latent period in the primary response
B) Log phase in the primary response
C) Latent period in the secondary response
D) Log phase in the secondary response

A

B

38
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the secondary antibody response?
A) Antibody titers are not detectable for two weeks
B) Immunoglobin G concentration increases steeply and rapidly
C) A delay in immunoglobin G response occurs
D) Immunoglobin M concentration increases steeply and rapidly

A

B

39
Q

The tremendous diversity in antigens is related to
A) Rearrangement of antibody gene segments
B) Generation of different codons during antibody gene splicing
C) Somatic mutations
D) All of the above

A

D

40
Q 
The clearing of antigen-antibody complexes is aided by
		A)	T-independent B cell activation
		B)	Apoptosis
		C)	Antibody class switching
		D)	All of the above
A

C

41
Q

Which of the following is true of clonal selection of lymphocytes?
A) The pool of lymphocytes is capable of binding a limited range of epitopes
B) Self-reactive lymphocytes are eliminated at an early stage of development
C) Once a lymphocyte is released into the body, it cannot replicate
D) Clonal cells react with a wide range of antigens

A

B

42
Q 
Antibodies counteract pathogenic cells through which of the following mechanisms?
		A)	Neutralization
		B)	Opsonization
		C)	Formation of immune complexes
		D)	None of the above
A

D

43
Q 
Which of the following mechanisms prevents pathogenic cells from binding to host cells and tissues?
		A)	Neutralization
		B)	Opsonization
		C)	Formation of immune complexes
		D)	None of the above
A

A

44
Q 
The coating of microorganisms with antibody in order to prepare them for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells is called
		A)	Neutralization
		B)	Opsonization
		C)	Formation of immune complexes
		D)	None of the above
A

B

45
Q 
The cross-linking and aggregation of cells in response to antibody binding is called
		A)	Neutralization
		B)	Opsonization
		C)	Agglutination
		D)	Negative selection
A

C

46
Q

Which immunological method takes advantage of the tenets of clonal selection?
A) Agglutination reaction
B) Immunoelectrophoresis
C) Radioimmunoassay
D) Monoclonal antibody (mAb) production

A

D

47
Q 
The body's ability to produce T cells and antibodies against non-self antigens is called
		A)	Autoimmunity
		B)	Acquired immune tolerance
		C)	Hypersensitivity
		D)	None of the above
A

B

48
Q 
Allergies are an example of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hypersensitivity reaction.
		A)	Type I
		B)	Type II
		C)	Type III
		D)	Type IV
A

A

49
Q

Which of the following is true of the type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Immunoglobin G or M is produced in response to antigen
B) Immune complexes are formed
C) Immunoglobin E sensitizes mast cells
D) Involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions

A

C

50
Q 
Hay fever is an example of
		A)	Systemic anaphylaxis
		B)	Localized anaphylaxis
		C)	Desensitization
		D)	Cytotoxic reaction
A

B

51
Q

Which of the following is true of the type II hypersensitivity response?
A) Results in the damage of host tissues
B) Involves an over-activation of immunoglobin E
C) Involves the formation of immune complexes
D) Often result in systemic anaphylaxis reactions

A

A

52
Q 
An individual with AB blood type can receive blood from which of the following donors?
		A)	Type O donor
		B)	Type A donor
		C)	Type B donor
		D)	All of the above
A

D

53
Q 
The formation of immune complexes and inflammatory responses occurs in which of the following hypersensitivity responses?
		A)	Type I
		B)	Type II
		C)	Type III
		D)	Type IV
A

C

54
Q 
Tuberculin hypersensitivity and contact dermatitis are examples of a
		A)	Type I hypersensitivity
		B)	Type II hypersensitivity
		C)	Type III hypersensitivity
		D)	Type IV hypersensitivity
A

D

55
Q

Which of the following is true of the type IV hypersensitivity response?
A) Immunoglobin G or M is produced in response to antigen
B) Immune complexes are formed
C) Immunoglobin E sensitizes mast cells
D) Involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions

A

D

56
Q 
The presence of serum antibodies that react with self antigens is called
		A)	Acquired immune tolerance
		B)	Desensitization
		C)	Autoimmunity
		D)	Hypersensitivity
A

C

57
Q

Which of the following events can cause a tissue rejection reaction following transplantation?
A) T cells recognize and react directly with non-MHC molecules
B) Host T-cells recognize graft class II MHC molecules as foreign
C) The tissue graft naturally suppresses the host immune response
D) All of the above

A

B

58
Q 
Which of the following is an example of an immunodeficiency?
		A)	Peanut allergy
		B)	Contact dermatitis
		C)	HIV infection
		D)	Rheumatoid arthritis
A

C

Microbiology (42 decks)

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