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Year One Comprehensive Material > DPT 620: Clinical Human Anatomy > Flashcards

DPT 620: Clinical Human Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Loss of patellar reflex and loss of cutaneous sensation on the anteromedial side of the leg indicate damage to this spinal nerve:

a. L2
b. L4
c. L5
d. S2
e. S4

A

B

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2
Q

Which statement concerning the great saphenous vein is false?

a. When it is removed and inserted as a coronary bypass, it is reversed, so that the cusps do not obstruct blood flow.
b. It is located about ten cm. (a handbreadth) posterior to the medial border of the patella.
c. It passes anterior to the medial malleolus.
d. It perforates the femoral sheath
e. It is accompanied by the sural nerve in the leg.

A

E

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3
Q

The deep fascia of the thigh:

a. is thickened on its medial side to form the iliotibial tract
b. has an oval opening which transmits the small saphenous vein
c. is attached to the whole length of the inguinal ligament
d. is designated the cribriform fascia
e. lies superficial to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

A

C

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4
Q

Structures passing through the adductor hiatus include:

a. saphenous nerve
b. profunda femoral artery
c. both
d. neither

A

D

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5
Q

Skin on the most dorsal part of the foot is supplied by the:

a. sural nerve
b. first sacral nerve
c. both
d. neither

A

D

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6
Q

The muscle which can both flex the hip and extend the knee is:

a. sartorius
b. rectus femoris
c. semimembranosus
d. biceps femoris
e. vastus lateralis

A

B

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7
Q

The actions of the gracilis muscle include _______ of the thigh at the hip and _______ of the leg at the knee.

a. lateral rotation, lateral rotation
b. medial rotation, extension
c. abduction, flexion
d. flexion, extension
e. adduction, flexion

A

E

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8
Q

Which muscle is able to produce flexion at the knee joint more efficiently if the hip joint is in flexion at the same time?

a. semimembranosus
b. rectus femoris
c. hamstring part of adductor magnus
d. sartorius
e. short head of biceps femoris

A

A

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9
Q

Difficulty extending the knee can result from damage to the ________.

a. femoral nerve
b. inferior gluteal nerve
c. common peroneal nerve
d. superior gluteal nerve
e. tibial nerve

A

A

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10
Q

Muscles in the posterior thigh compartment are paralyzed because the sciatic nerve has been severed. Nevertheless the patient can still produce some flexion of the leg at the knee due to action of the:

a. sartorius m.
b. semitendinosus m.
c. both A and B
d. short head of biceps femoris
e. gastrocnemius

A

A

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11
Q

The muscle that is not a medial rotator of the leg is the:

a. semimembranosus
b. semitendinosus
c. biceps femoris
d. gracilis
e. popliteus

A

C

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12
Q

After an obturator nerve injury, some adduction of the thigh is still possible because of double innervation to the:
a. gracilis m.

b. adductor magnus m.
c. sartorius m.
d. adductor longus m.
e. adductor brevis m.

A

B

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13
Q

After passing through the obturator canal, divisions of the obturator nerve (an anterior branch and a posterior branch) pass on either side of the:

a. pectineus m.
b. adductor brevis m.
c. gracilis m.
d. adductor magnus m.
e. adductor longus m.

A

B

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14
Q

Injury to the tibial nerve in the popliteal fossa might result in:

a. loss of eversion
b. (diminished sensation) on dorsal surface of foot
c. inability to stand on one’s toes
d. drop foot
e. loss of sensation between the great and second toe

A

C

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15
Q

The fibular artery:

a. supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg
b. passes anterior to the interosseous membrane
c. usually becomes the dorsalis pedis
d. courses through the deep posterior compartment of the leg
e. none of the above

A

D

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16
Q

A tight plaster cast that exerted pressure on the head and neck of the fibula might result in loss of:

a. eversion of the foot
b. foot drop
c. both
d. neither

A

A

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17
Q

When the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg swell from some kind of overuse:

a. the deep fibular nerve may be injured
b. there is loss of sensation in the web space between the great and second toes
c. both
d. neither

A

C

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18
Q

The medial and lateral plantar neurovascular structures enter the foot deep to the:

a. inferior peroneal retinaculum
b. abductor digiti minimi m.
c. abductor hallucis m.
d. quadratus plantae m.
e. sustentaculum tali

A

C

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19
Q

The medial plantar nerve innervates:

a. abductor hallucis m.
b. abductor digiti minimi m.
c. adductor hallucis m.
d. 2-4 lumbrical muscles

A

A

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20
Q

The deep plantar arch:

a. is formed primarily from the lateral plantar artery
b. passes between the first and second muscular layers of the foot
c. both
d. neither

A

A

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21
Q

The arcuate artery

a. is a branch of the medial plantar artery
b. courses deep to extensor digitorum brevis
c. both
d. neither

A

B

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22
Q

The lateral plantar nerve:

a. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles
b. supplies quadratus plantae m.
c. both
d. neither

A

C

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23
Q

The two bellies of flexor hallucis brevis muscle:

a. have insertions that contain sesmoid bones
b. attach to the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe
c. pass on either side of the tendon of extensor hallucis longus
d. are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve
e. all of the above

A

A

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24
Q

The tendon of peroneus longus:

a. attaches to the navicular bone
b. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles
c. both
d. neither

A

D

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25
Q

Which statement is false concerning the hip joint?

a. it is a ball and socket joint
b. the entire acetabulum articulates with the femoral head
c. the acetabulum is deepened by the acetabular labrum
d. the ligamentum teres is attached to the fovea on the femoral head
e. the iliofemoral ligament attaches to the intertrochanteric line

A

B

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26
Q

Which statement concerning the hip joint is false?

a. The transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch
b. The proximal attachment of the iliofemoral ligament is to the ASIS
c. The acetabulum is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis
d. The iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint
e. Fractures of the femoral neck, rather than the femoral shaft, usually sever arteries supplying the femoral head

A

B

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27
Q

The fibular collateral ligament is:

a. tested by the application of valgus stress, rather than varus stress, to the leg.
b. located superficial to the tendon of popliteus
c. attached to the lateral meniscus
d. located superficial to the biceps femoris tendon
e. located deep to the iliotibial tract

A

B

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28
Q

The _______ ligament of the knee joint attaches to the _______.

a. lateral collateral ____shaft of fibula, deep to pes anserinus
b. patellar_____anterior intercondylar area of the tibia
c. posterior cruciate______posterior surface of tibia, just above soleal line
d. tibial collateral_______periphery of medial meniscus
e. anterior cruciate______anterior intercondylar area, just anterior to the anterior horn of the medial meniscus

A

D

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29
Q

True statements concerning the anterior cruciate ligament include:

a. its attachment to the tibial plateau (top of tibia) is anterior to the attachment of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus
b. it prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia
c. both
d. neither

A

B

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30
Q

Important stabilizing structures on the lateral side of the knee joint are:

a. tibial collateral ligament; biceps tendon; and iliotibial tract
b. fibular collateral ligament; biceps tendon;and iliotibial tract
c. fibular collateral ligament; cruciate ligament; and pes anserinus
d. tibial collateral ligament; popliteus tendon;and patellar ligament
e. fibular collateral ligament; coronary ligament;and transverse ligament

A

B

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31
Q

The major cutaneous innervation of the anteromedial side of the leg is provided by which nerve?

a. Obturator
b. Sural
c. superficial peroneal
d. saphenous
e. medial sural

A

D

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32
Q

Which muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur?

a. Iliopsoas
b. Pectineus
c. quadratus femoris
d. gluteus medius
e. obturator externus

A

A

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33
Q

The principle action of the gracilis muscle is _______ of the thigh at the hip.

a. lateral rotation
b. medial rotation
c. abduction
d. flexion
e. adduction

A

E

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34
Q

In the subsartorial canal this muscle separated the femoral artery from the deep (profunda) femoral artery:

a. Pectineus
b. adductor magnus
c. adductor brevis
d. adductor longus
e. psoas major

A

D

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35
Q

The neck of a femoral hernia lies lateral to the:

a. pubic tubercle
b. femoral vein
c. femoral artery
d. femoral nerve
e. femoral sheath

A

A

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36
Q

The great saphenous vein:

a. passes anterior to the medial malleolus
b. passes a handbreadth posterior to the medial border of the patella
c. both
d. neither

A

C

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37
Q

This structure forms the boundary between the greater and lesser sciatic foramina:

a. ischial tuberosity
b. posterior superior iliac spine
c. sacrotuberous ligament
d. sacrospinous ligament
e. piriformis muscle

A

D

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38
Q

This is the only gluteal muscle to originate from the posterior surface of the sacrum:

a. quadratus femoris
b. gluteus maximus
c. gluteus medius
d. piriformis
e. biceps femoris

A

B

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39
Q

Nerve injury of sacral spinal nerve 1 will result in pain located along the:

a. anterior surface of the thigh
b. anteromedial surface of the leg
c. medial side of the foot
d. lateral side of the foot
e. none of the above

A

D

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40
Q

If the sciatic nerve were damaged by an intramuscular injection in the buttocks, the patient would have diminished cutaneous sensation on the:

a. dorsum of the foot
b. anteromedial side of the leg
c. both
d. neither

A

A

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41
Q

All the following pass through the greater sciatic foramen EXCEPT:

a. piriformis muscle
b. pudendal nerve
c. sciatic nerve
d. inferior gluteal vessels and nerve
e. obturator internus tendon

A

E

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42
Q

The superior gluteal nerve:

a. contains fibers from the second and third lumbar nerves
b. leaves the pelvis just inferior to the piriformis muscle
c. must be intact to resist pelvic tilt during gait
d. innervates the piriformis muscle
e. innervates the gemellus superior muscle

A

C

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43
Q

All of the following muscles are lateral rotators of the thigh at the hip EXCEPT the:

a. gluteus maximus
b. gluteus minimus
c. obturator internus
d. obturator externus
e. piriformis

A

B

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44
Q

All of the following muscles are medial rotators of the leg EXCEPT:

a. semimembranosus
b. semitendinosus
c. biceps femoris
d. gracilis
e. popliteus

A

C

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45
Q

Which statement about the semimembranosus muscle is FALSE?

a. it extends at the hip joint
b. it attaches to the medial condyle of the tibia
c. it flexes at the knee joint
d. it forms the arcuate ligament
e. it is innervated by the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve

A

D

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46
Q

Gracilis, sartorius, semimembranosus

a. form the pes anserinus
b. extend the knee
c. act across both hip and knee joints
d. all have the same innervation
e. help laterally rotate the femur

A

C

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47
Q

What nerve has been damaged in a patient who can no longer extend his knee?

a. sciatic
b. common peroneal
c. femoral
d. obturator
e. tibial

A

C

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48
Q

What nerve has been damaged in a patient whose pelvis tilts too far toward the right when walking?

a. right superior gluteal nerve
b. left superior gluteal nerve
c. right inferior gluteal nerve
d. left inferior gluteal nerve
e. right femoral nerve

A

B

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49
Q

Excessive anterior movement of the tibia when pulling forward on the leg with the knee flexed would indicate damage to this ligament of the knee:

a. medial collateral
b. lateral collateral
c. anterior cruciate
d. posterior cruciate

A

C

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50
Q

The saphenous nerve

a. is a motor branch of the femoral nerve
b. accompanies the short saphenous vein in the leg
c. is the only branch of the femoral nerve that extends considerably below the knee
d. emerges through the saphenous hiatus
e. is a sensory branch of the obturator nerve

A

C

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51
Q

What nerve is damaged in a patient whose foot is everted and dorsiflexed and who cannot flex his/her toes?

a. Tibial
b. superficial peroneal
c. deep peroneal
d. common peroneal
e. medial peroneal

A

?

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52
Q

The femoral sheath

a. is found in the femoral triangle
b. has a medially located compartment called the femoral canal
c. contains the femoral artery, vein and nerve
d. all of the above are correct
e. only a and b above are correct

A

E

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53
Q

Fascia lata

a. is the investing fascia of the thigh
b. is fused with the inguinal ligament from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle
c. is thickened laterally forming the iliotibial tract
d. all of the above are correct
e. only b and c are correct

A

D

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54
Q

The lateral compartment of the leg

a. usually contains no major artery
b. contains only two muscles
c. both a and b are correct
d. contains the peroneus tertius muscle
e. includes muscles innervated by the deep fibular nerve

A

C

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55
Q

The biceps femoris muscle

a. lies lateral to the popliteal fossa
b. lies medial to the popliteal fossa
c. forms the floor of the popliteal fossa
d. gives rise to the oblique popliteal fossa
e. does not attach to the leg bone

A

A

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56
Q

Where would you feel for the pulse of the dorsalis pedis artery?

a. directly posterior to the tendon of flexor digitorum longus
b. directly lateral to the tendon of tibialis anterior
c. directly lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus
d. directly posterior to the tendon of peroneus longus
e. directly lateral to the tendon of extensor digitorum longus

A

C

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57
Q

Which nerve has been damaged in a patient whose pelvis tilts down to the left when he stands on his right foot?

a. right inferior gluteal nerve
b. right superior gluteal nerve
c. left inferior gluteal nerve
d. left superior gluteal nerve
e. left obturator nerve

A

B

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58
Q

The gluteus maximus muscle:

a. has an origin from the ischium
b. inserts only onto the femur
c. is a flexor of the thigh at the hip
d. is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve
e. none of the above

A

E

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59
Q

The inferior gluteal nerve:

a. contains fibers from the second and third lumbar nerves
b. leaves the pelvis just inferior to the piriformis muscle
c. must be intact to resist pelvic tilt during gait
d. innervates the tensor faschiae latae muscle
e. innervates the gemellus inferior muscle

A

B

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60
Q

The nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral fascial compartment of the leg is directly by this nerve:

a. deep peroneal
b. superficial peroneal
c. anterior tibial
d. posterior tibial
e. common peroneal

A

B

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61
Q

The spinal cord segment that supplies the cutaneous innervation to the lateral side of the foot is:

a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

A

D

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62
Q

The most important arterial supply to the head of the femur is via:

a. the artery of the ligamentum teres
b. retinacular vessels
c. vessels traveling along the spermatic cord
d. internal pudendal artery

A

B

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63
Q

If the foot is inverted due to paralysis of some muscles, one of the muscles that is paralyzed is the:

a. tibialis posterior
b. tibialis anterior
c. peroneus longus
d. extensor hallucis longus
e. extensor digitorum longus

A

C

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64
Q

The blood supply to the anterior compartment muscles of the leg is normally:

a. the anterior tibial artery, a branch of the popliteal artery
b. the peroneal artery, a branch of the posterior tibial artery
c. the deep femoral artery
d. A and B above
e. A and C above

A

A

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65
Q

The deep peroneal nerve supplies motor fibers to:

a. peroneus longus
b. peroneus brevis
c. peroneus tertius (a portion of extensor digitorum longus)
d. flexor hallicis longus
e. all of the above

A

C

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66
Q

The anterior tibial artery:

a. is normally a branch of the popliteal artery
b. runs with the deep peroneal nerve on the anterior surface of the interosseus membrane of the leg
c. usually terminates as the dorsalis pedis artery
d. all of the above
e. only A and B above

A

D

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67
Q

The following structures are in the femoral sheath, which is an extension of abdominal and pelvic fascias:

a. femoral artery
b. femoral vein
c. deep femoral lymphatics
d. fatty connective tissue
e. all of the above

A

E

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68
Q

The branch(es) of the femoral nerve that extend into the leg proper (ie lower leg) is (are):

a. the motor nerve to the vastus lateralis
b. the common peroneal nerve
c. the obturator nerve
d. the saphenous nerve, carrying only sensory fibers
e. all of the above

A

D

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69
Q

The anterior part of the talus articulates with the:

a. cuboid
b. first, second and third cuneiform bones
c. fourth and fifth cuneiform bones
d. calcaneus
e. navicular

A

E

70
Q

A barefoot child steps on a broken bottle and severs an artery on the medial side of the plantar surface of the big toe; the best place to apply pressure to stop bleeding would be:

a. on the dorsum of the foot, between the tendons of tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
b. on the dorsum of the foot, between the tendons of extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius
c. between medial malleolus and calcaneus
d. between lateral malleolus and calcaneus
e. on the plantar surface of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones

A

C

71
Q

Severing the common peroneal nerve results in inability to:

a. evert the foot
b. extend (dorsiflex) the foot
c. both
d. neither

A

C

72
Q

When the foot is suddenly and violently inverted, the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal may be avulsed (pulled off) by the tendon of this muscle:

a. peroneus brevis
b. peroneus tertius
c. tibialis anterior
d. tibialis posterior

A

A

73
Q

The pulse of the posterior tibial artery is best felt:

a. against the popliteal surface of the tibia
b. lateral to the neck of the fibula
c. anterior to the lateral malleolus
d. posterior to the lateral malleolus
e. posterior to the medial malleolus

A

E

74
Q

Muscles inserting on the medial aspect of the proximal end of the tibia include:

a. Gracilis
b. hamstring part of adductor magnus
c. both
d. neither

A

A

75
Q

The patellar tendon reflex involves which spinal nerves?

a. L1 and L2
b. L3 and L4
c. L4 and L5
d. L5 and S1
e. S2 and S3

A

B

76
Q

Which statements concerning the quadriceps femoris is FALSE?

a. The tone of quadriceps femoris is very important to the stability of the knee joint.
b. The final insertion of most of its fibers is to the tibial tuberosity via the patellar ligament.
c. The lowest fibers of vastus medialis prevent medial displacement of the patella.
d. Much of the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis originate from the linea aspera

A

C

77
Q

Each of the following matchings of thigh muscles with points of origin is correct EXCEPT:

a. sartorius—anterior superior iliac spine
b. long head of biceps femoris—ischial tuberosity
c. straight head of rectus femoris—anterior inferior iliac spine
d. pectineus—superior ramus of pubis
e. semitendinosus—linea aspera of femur

A

E

78
Q

Each of the following statements concerning the tibial nerve is true EXCEPT:

a. It is a branch of the sciatic nerve.
b. It is motor to all muscles in the superficial and deep compartments of the leg.
c. It passes down the leg between gastrocnemius and soleus
d. It passes posterior to the medial mallolus
e. Its terminal branches are the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

A

C

79
Q

The muscle that contracts to unlock the extended knee joint is the:

a. popliteus
b. plantaris
c. medial head of the gastrocnemius
d. lateral head of gastrocnemius
e. soleus

A

A

80
Q

A sharp blow to the neck of the fibula is most apt to result in damage to which structure?

a. sciatic nerve
b. common peroneal nerve
c. tibial nerve
d. popliteal nerve
e. none of the above

A

B

81
Q

Paralysis of which nerve would result in “foot drop”?

a. femoral
b. tibial
c. superficial peroneal
d. deep peroneal
e. obturator

A

D

82
Q

Your patient is unable to stand on his toes. The damaged nerve is the:

a. femoral
b. tibial
c. superficial peroneal
d. deep peroneal
e. sural

A

B

83
Q

This artery passes posterior to the medial malleolus:

a. posterior tibial
b. anterior tibial
c. peroneal
d. dorsalis pedis
e. arcuate artery

A

A

84
Q

Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior BOTH:

a. invert the foot
b. insert on the tuberosity of the navicular bone
c. both
d. neither

A

A

85
Q

The flexor retinaculum of the foot attaches to which two bony structures?

a. distal ends of tibia and fibula
b. calcaneus and medial malleolus
c. lateral malleolus and calcaneus
d. medial malleolus and talus
e. talus and navicular

A

B

86
Q

In a very young child, the head of the femur usually receives most of its blood supply from a branch of the:

a. obturator artery
b. external iliac artery
c. femoral artery
d. deep femoral artery
e. pudendal artery

A

B

87
Q

The iliofemoral ligament:

a. attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine
b. resists flexion at the hip
c. both
d. neither

A

D

88
Q

A torn anterior cruciate ligament would permit:

a. valgus displacement of the leg at the knee
b. varus displacement of the leg at the knee
c. anterior displacement of the leg at the knee
d. posterior displacement of the leg at the knee
e. all of the above

A

C

89
Q

The “spring” ligament attaches to what two bones?

a. fibula and calcaneus
b. tibia and calcaneus
c. tibia and talus
d. talus and navicular
e. calcaneous and navicular

A

E

90
Q

The ligament usually injured in a hyper-inversion of the foot (sprained ankle) is the:

a. Anterior tibiotalar
b. Posterior tibiotalar
c. Medial collateral
d. Lateral collateral

A

D

91
Q

The anterior tibial artery:

a. is the source of the peroneal artery
b. continues as dorsalis pedis artery
c. usually travels with the superficial peroneal nerve
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

B

92
Q

The gastrocnemius muscle can produce:

a. plantar flexion of the foot
b. flexion of the leg at the knee
c. both
d. neither

A

C

93
Q

The soleus muscle:

a. is innervated by the tibial nerve
b. is a plantar flexor of the foot
c. both
d. neither

A

C

94
Q

Which muscle inserts onto the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal bone?

a. Abductor digiti minimi
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Peroneus longus
d. Tibialis anterior
e. Tibialis posterior

A

B

95
Q

The muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg are:

a. dorsiflexors of the foot
b. evertors of the foot
c. both
d. neither

A

B

96
Q

Which muscle is essential to lift the heel off the ground in walking?

a. peroneus longus
b. tibialis anterior
c. flexor hallucis longus
d. flexor hallucis brevis
e. gastrocnemius

A

E

97
Q

The fibular collateral ligament is:

a. tested by the application of valgus stress, rather than varus stress, to the knee joint
b. located superficial to the tendon of the popliteus
c. attached to the lateral meniscus
d. located superficial to the biceps femoris tendon

A

B

98
Q

Which statement concerning ligaments of the hip joint is FALSE?

a. the iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperextension
b. the ligament of the head of the femur is attached to the transverse acetabular ligament
c. the iliofemoral ligament is in the shape of an inverted Y
d. the ishiofemoral ligament attaches to the intertochanteric crest
e. the transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch

A

D

99
Q

The deltoid ligament :

a. is attached to the talus, navicular and calcaneus
b. is torn less commonly than the lateral ligament of the ankle
c. both
d. neither

A

C

100
Q

The medial meniscus:

a. is torn less commonly than the lateral meniscus
b. is much broader behind than in front
c. is nearly circular (O- shaped)
d. is separated from the joint capsule by the popliteus tendon
e. is attached to some of the inserting fibers of pes anserinus

A

B

101
Q

The suprapatellar bursa:

a. communicates directly with the knee joint cavity
b. is located superficial to the quadriceps femoris muscle
c. both
d. neither

A

A

102
Q

Which one of the following structures attaches to the most anterior part of the tibial plateau?

a. anterior cruciate ligament
b. posterior cruciate ligamet
c. anterior horn of the medial meniscus
d. anterior horn of the lateral semilunar cartilage
e. ligament of Wrisberg

A

C

103
Q

Which nerve is endangered during a canulation of the great saphenous vein?

a. lateral sural
b. medial sural
c. saphenous
d. superficial peroneal
e. medial femoral cutaneous

A

C

104
Q

The sural nerve is located most closely to the:

a. inferior border of the gluteus maximus
b. lateral malleolus
c. great saphenous vein
d. neck of the fibula
e. medial side of the patella

A

B

105
Q

The best diagnostic test for the anterior compartment syndrome of the leg is to check for loss of cutaneous sensation on the:

a. Medial part of the plantar surface of the foot
b. lateral part of the plantar surface of the foot
c. dorsum of the foot, between the first and second toes
d. dorsolateral side of the foot and little (5th) toe
e. anterolateral side of the leg

A

C

106
Q

The gait cycle is defined as:

a. The point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the contralateral lower extremity.
b. The point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the same lower extremity.
c. The distance from the point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the contralateral lower extremity.
d. The time intervals between both periods of double support.

A

B

107
Q

The stance phase/period comprises approximately what percent of the gait cycle:

a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%

A

D

108
Q

The swing phase/period comprises approximately what percent of the gait cycle:

a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%

A

B

109
Q

How many periods of double support exist during the gait cycle?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

B

110
Q

The double support period occurs when:

a. Both feet are in mid-stance
b. One lower extremity is at the beginning of its stance phase and the other is near the end of its stance phase
c. One lower extremity is in mid-stance and the other is near the end of its stance phase

A

B

111
Q

The traditional stance phase of gait is subdivided into three periods. They are:

a. Double support, mid-stance, and propulsion
b. Contact, double support, and propulsion
c. Contact, double support, and mid-stance
d. Contact, mid-stance, and propulsion

A

D

112
Q

The primary function of gait is :

a. Upright stability on uneven terrain
b. Locomotion of the entire body
c. Smooth transition of body momentum
d. Minimizing muscle activation between phases of gait

A

B

113
Q

The greatest amount of shock absorption occurs during:

a. contact
b. mid-stance
c. propulsion
d. double support

A

A

114
Q

Propulsion of the body is achieved by:

a. “pushing off” by the gastrocsoleus muscle group during propulsion
b. forward fall of the body
c. forward swing of the contralateral limb
d. forward fall and forward swing of the contralateral limb

A

D

115
Q

Which of the following serve as “rockers,” or pivot points, to preserve the body’s forward momentum?

a. The heel and ankle
b. The ankle and forefoot
c. The forefoot and heel
d. The heel, ankle, and the forefoot

A

D

116
Q

The determinants of gait are:

a. Six patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity
b. Five patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity
c. Four patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity
d. Three patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity

A

A

117
Q

The three primary functional tasks of gait defined in the Ranchos approach are:

a. Stance stability, smooth swing, and propulsion
b. Weight acceptance, single limb support, and limb advancement
c. Shock absorption, stride length, and cadence
d. Shock absorption, cadence, and velocity

A

B

118
Q

The contact period ends with:

a. Initial contact of the contralateral side
b. Toe off of the contralateral side
c. Foot-flat of the ipsilateral side
d. Heel-off of the ipsilateral side

A

B

119
Q

During the initial contact of the heel with the ground, what percentage of bodyweight contacts the ground in the first 0.02 seconds?

a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%

A

D

120
Q

The primary function of the quadriceps during contact is :

a. Concentric to absorb shock and facilitate knee extension
b. Eccentric to absorb shock and control knee flexion
c. Eccentric control of transverse plane tibial rotation
d. Concentric to allow full knee extension

A

B

121
Q

During contact, the pattern of ankle motion is :

a. Rapid dorsiflexion followed by gradual plantarflexion
b. Steady plantarflexion throughout the contact phase
c. Rapid plantarflexion followed by steady dorsiflexion
d. Steady dorsiflexion throughout the contact phase

A

C

122
Q

The primary shock absorption mechanism in the foot during contact is:

a. Eccentric control of plantarflexion by the soleus
b. Eccentric control of dorsiflexion by the soleus
c. Eccentric control of supination by the peroneus longus and brevis
d. Eccentric control of pronation by the tibialis posterior and anterior

A

D

123
Q

The primary muscle function at the hip during contact is:

a. Eccentric control of hip flexion by the iliopsoas
b. Eccentric control of hip extension by the iliopsoas
c. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the gluteus maximus and hamstrings
d. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the rectus femoris

A

C

124
Q

The function of the anterior compartment muscles during contact is best described as:

a. Concentric control of ankle dorsiflexion
b. Concentric control of ankle plantarflexion
c. Eccentric control of ankle plantarflexion
d. Eccentric control of supination

A

C

125
Q

The best description of the activation pattern of the hip abductors during mid-stance is:

a. The gluteus medius is most active early and the tensor fascia lata is most active late in mid-stance
b. The gluteus medius and the tensor fascia lata are both most active late in mid-stance
c. The gluteus medius and the tensor fascia lata are equally active throughout mid-stance
d. Neither the gluteus medius nor the tensor fascia lata exhibit significant activity during mid-stance

A

A

126
Q

Which of the following is true about muscle function at the knee during midstance?

a. By the second half of mid-stance, much of the muscular control is from the gastrocsoleus complex
b. The quadriceps are very active during mid-stance to provide stability to the knee due to the gravity line being anterior to the knee throughout much of mid-stance
c. The hamstrings play a vital role in limiting knee extension during mid-stance
d. The popliteus reaches its peak activity during mid-stance

A

A

127
Q

Motion at the foot and ankle during mid-stance is best described as:

a. Steady plantarflexion and pronation
b. Steady dorsiflexion and pronation
c. Steady plantarflexion and supination
d. Steady dorsiflexion and supination

A

D

128
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. The soleus has minimal function during mid-stance
b. The soleus is primarily responsible for decelerating dorsiflexion during mid-stance
c. The posterior tibialis functions to facilitate pronation during mid-stance
d. The anterior compartment muscles play a primary role in facilitating dorsiflexion during mid-stance

A

B

129
Q

Maximal lateral shift of the pelvis during stance occurs:

a. At the beginning of mid-stance
b. At the end of mid-stance
c. At the middle of mid-stance
d. Just after mid-stance

A

C

130
Q

Sagittal plane motion at the hip during propulsion is best described as:

a. Moving from neutral to 30° of flexion
b. Moving from neutral to 10° of extension
c. Moving from 10° of extension to neutral
d. Moving from 10° of extension to 20° of flexion

A

C

131
Q

The demand on the tensor fascia lata to control pelvic drop on the contralateral side is reduced during propulsion by:

a. The contralateral gluteus medius
b. The ipsilateral gluteus maximus
c. Shifting of the pelvis away from the midline
d. Shifting of the pelvis closer to the midline

A

D

132
Q

The initiation of knee flexion that occurs during propulsion is a direct resultof:

a. Concentric hamstring activity
b. Eccentric hamstring activity
c. Movement of the body vector anterior to the metarsalphalangeal joint, resulting in forward rotation of the tibia
d. None of the above

A

C

133
Q

The major progression force used in walking is generated by:

a. Movement of the center of pressure anterior to the forefoot rocker, causing a free forward fall of the body
b. Hip extension “thrust” resulting from the gluteus maximus
c. Forward swing of the limb from iliopsoas activity
d. None of the above

A

A

134
Q

At the end of mid-stance, the foot reaches its position of:

a. Maximum dorsiflexion
b. Maximum plantarflexion
c. Maximum supination
d. Maximum pronation

A

A

135
Q

Hip flexion that occurs late in propulsion is a result of:

a. Light activity of the hip flexors (iliopsoas and rectus femoris)
b. The rapid ankle plantarflexion that is occurring
c. The rapid knee flexion that is occurring
d. All of the above

A

D

136
Q

The knee achieves approximately how many degrees of flexion by the end of propulsion

a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 50°

A

C

137
Q

The primary function of knee flexion during propulsion is:

a. To initiate hip flexion
b. To prepare the way for toe clearance during swing
c. To assist in forward pelvic rotation
d. None of the above

A

B

138
Q

During propulsion, the ankle undergoes rapid:

a. Dorsiflexion
b. Plantarflexion
c. Pronation
d. None of the above

A

B

139
Q

Much of the plantarflexion that occurs in propulsion is:

a. Forceful contraction of the gastrocsoleus complex
b. Ballistic activity form the previously generated momentum
c. Hip flexor muscle activity
d. Hip extensor muscle activity

A

B

140
Q

The initiation of hip flexion during initial swing is a result of:

a. Activity of the hip flexors
b. Momentum generated during propulsion
c. Forceful contraction of the plantarflexors
d. a and b

A

D

141
Q

Prevention of pelvic drop during swing is a result of:

a. Ipsilateral quadratus lumborum activity
b. Contralateral gluteus medius activity
c. Ipsilateral paraspinal muscle activity
d. All of the above

A

D

142
Q

Knee flexion reaches its maximum of 60° during:

a. initial swing
b. mid-swing
c. terminal swing
d. none of the above

A

A

143
Q

Sufficient knee flexion during swing is critical because:

a. It facilitates normal hip flexion
b. It results in greater speed during gait
c. It reduces the need for dorsiflexion to obtain toe clearance
d. It prevents excessive ankle plantarflexion from occurring

A

C

144
Q

The ankle dorsiflexors reach their peak activity during:

a. Initial swing
b. Mid-swing
c. Terminal swing
d. Mid-stance

A

A

145
Q

Knee extension during swing begins during:

a. Initial swing
b. Mid-swing
c. Terminal swing
d. Knee extension does not occur during swing

A

B

146
Q

The role of the hamstrings during mid-swing is:

a. To control the rate of hip flexion
b. To control the rate of knee extension
c. To facilitate greater knee flexion
d. The hamstrings have no significant role during mid-swing

A

B

147
Q

The anterior compartment muscles are:

a. The only muscles active at the ankle during swing
b. Work in conjunction with the plantarflexors to hold the foot in a neutral position for swing
c. a and b
d. None of the above

A

A

148
Q

Which of the following is true about the pelvis during terminal swing?

a. The swing side is at its highest and the pelvis is in neutral rotation in the transverse plane
b. The stance side is at its highest and the pelvis reaches its maximum anterior rotation
c. The pelvis is level and reaches its maximum posterior rotation
d. The stance side is at its lowest and the pelvis reaches its maximum anterior rotation

A

B

149
Q

During the initial contact of the heel with the ground, what percentage of bodyweight contacts the ground in the first 0.02 seconds?

a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%

A

D

150
Q

The primary function of the quadriceps during initial contact and loading response is:

a. Concentric to absorb shock and facilitate knee extension
b. Eccentric to absorb shock and control knee flexion
c. Eccentric control of transverse plane tibial rotation
d. Concentric to allow full knee extension

A

B

151
Q

During initial contact and loading response, the pattern of ankle motion is:

a. Rapid dorsiflexion followed by gradual plantarflexion
b. Steady plantarflexion throughout both phases
c. Rapid plantarflexion followed by steady dorsiflexion
d. Steady dorsiflexion throughout both phases

A

C

152
Q

The primary shock absorption mechanism in the foot during initial contact is:

a. Eccentric control of plantarflexion by the soleus
b. Eccentric control of dorsiflexion by the soleus
c. Eccentric control of supination by the peroneus longus and brevis
d. Eccentric control of pronation by the tibialis posterior and anterior

A

D

153
Q

The primary muscle function at the hip during initial contact and loading response is :

a. Eccentric control of hip flexion by the iliopsoas
b. Eccentric control of hip extension by the iliopsoas
c. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the gluteus maximus and hamstrings
d. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the rectus femoris

A

D

154
Q

During terminal stance at the hip, the body vector is:

a. Posterior to the hip facilitating hip flexion
b. Posterior to the hip facilitating hip extension
c. Anterior to the hip facilitating hip extension
d. Anterior to the hip facilitation hip flexion

A

C

155
Q

The initiation of knee flexion that occurs during terminal stance is a direct

a. Concentric hamstring activity
b. Eccentric hamstring activity
c. Movement of the body vector anterior to the metatarsalphalangeal joint, resulting in forward rotation of the tibia
d. None of the above

A

A

156
Q

During terminal stance, the foot reaches its position of:

a. Maximum dorsiflexion
b. Maximum plantarflexion
c. Maximum supination
d. None of the above

A

B

157
Q

Hip flexion during pre-swing occurs as a result of:

a. Light activity of the hip flexors (iliopsoas and rectus femoris)
b. The rapid ankle plantarflexion that is occurring
c. The rapid knee flexion that is occurring
d. All of the above

A

D

158
Q

The knee achieves approximately how many degrees of flexion by the end of pre-swing?

a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 50°

A

C

159
Q

The primary function of knee flexion during pre-swing is:

a. To initiate hip flexion
b. To prepare the way for toe clearance during swing
c. To assist in forward pelvic rotation
d. None of the above

A

B

160
Q

During pre-swing, the ankle undergoes rapid:

a. Dorsiflexion
b. Plantarflexion
c. Pronation
d. None of the above

A

B

161
Q

Much of the plantarflexion that occurs late in pre-swing is a direct result of:

a. Forceful contraction of the gastrocsoleus complex
b. Ballistic activity from the previously generated momentum
c. Hip flexor muscle activity
d. Hip extensor muscle activity

A

A

162
Q

What vein drains the face, scalp, and neck?

A

external jugular vein

163
Q

Why does residual volume increase with age?

A

decrease in alveoli elasticity

164
Q

Circumduction is associated with weak what?

A

hip flexors

165
Q

Weak gluteus maximus is compensated by what?

A

trunk extension

166
Q

Foot slap is associated with what 2 things?

A
  • flat foot

- weak dorsiflexors

167
Q

What are the strongest ligaments of the shoulder?

A
  • coracoclavicular

- acromioclavicular

168
Q

If a patient’s shoulder is adducted and internally rotated, which nerve roots are involved?

A

C5 and C6

169
Q

Where does the long head of the biceps brachii originate?

A

on the supraglenoid tubercle

170
Q

Weakness in the ankle dorsiflexors shows involvement of which nerve root?

A

L4

171
Q

When does maximal pronation of the foot occur during gait?

A

during midstance

Year One Comprehensive Material (16 decks)

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